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Microbiology Test 1

1.

A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed

synthetic

2.

Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that

dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.

3.

Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right):

family, genus, species

4.

A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is

blood agar

5.

The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and _____.

liquid

6.

TRUE or FALSE: A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes.

TRUE

7.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation?

The culture is contaminated.

8.

TRUE or FALSE: Identification relies entirely on biochemical test results.

False

9.

Disease-causing microorganisms are called

pathogens.

10.

The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to

add contrast in order to see them better.

11.

If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?

95X

12.

Which of the following is the correct way to type the scientific name of this bacterium?

Staphylococcus aureus

13.

Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea?

in a hot spring

14.

Taxonomy does not involve

Koch's postulates.

15.

TRUE or FALSE: Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.

False

16.

A media is designed that allows only staphylococci to grow. In addition, Staphylococcus aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is

both selective and differential.

17.

TRUE or FALSE: At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells.

True

18.

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called

fastidious.

19.

The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is

inoculation.

20.

The scientific field called_____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.

taxonomy

21.

Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?

mosquito

22.

Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.

incubated

23.

This microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification:

electron

24.

TRUE or FALSE: A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.

TRUE

25.

The Six I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except

infection.

26.

Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?

kingdom

27.

TRUE or FALSE: One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments.

True

28.

All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except

petri dish.

29.

All of the following are correct about agar except

it is a source of nutrition for bacteria.

30.

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms?

lack cell structure

31.

Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the _______ lens. This image is then projected to the _______ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye.

objective, ocular

32.

TRUE or FALSE: The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.

False

33.

When assigning a scientific name to an organism,

both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.

34.

Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?

a solid medium

35.

TRUE or FALSE: All microorganisms are parasites.

False

36.

The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is

dark-field.

37.

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that

a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.

38.

Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?

differential

39.

A pure culture contains only

one species of microorganism.

40.

one species of microorganism.

Subculture

41.

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed _____.

fastidious

42.

Define Microbe:

organism that is invisible to the naked eye seen only under magnification or with a microscope

43.

What is the largest bacteria?

Thiomargarita magnifica

44.

How does Dr. Bali B define microbiology?

the study of cellular and acellular organisms, most of which are usually too small to be seen without the aid of a microscope

45.

Biotechnology is

the exploitation of biological processes to make industrial products, foods, or drugs

46.

Genetic Engineering is

manipulation of the genes of microbes, plants, and animals

47.

Bioremediation is:

the introduction of microbes into the environment to restore stability or clean up pollutants

48.

Define Infectious diseases

caused by pathogens and can be spread

49.

Define Noninfectious diseases

not caused by pathogens and cannot be spread example would be diabetes

50.

Define emerging diseases

new diseases, not previously seen in a population

51.

Define re-emerging diseases

"old" diseases previously seen in a population but are increasingly being seen in the population

52.

What are the 3 classifications of organisms that cause disease

Obligate, Accidental, or Opportunistic

53.

Describe Obligate pathogens

must have a host to stay alive, ALL viruses are an example

54.

Describe Opportunistic pathogens

Only cause disease under unusual circumstances most time when people are immunocompromised. Example is Pseudomonas aeruginosa

55.

Describe Accidental pathogens

thrive in the environment and can only infect under unusual circumstances. Example is Clostridium tetani

56.

Who invented cell theory

Robert Hooke

57.

Who was the first to observe unicellular organisms

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

58.

Compound microscopes have ____ lens to produce a _______ image and enable ______________ an object

2 or more lens, to produce a 2D image, to look through an object

59.

What is germ theory of disease and who came up with it

That disease is caused by tiny, invisible, organisms, Joseph Lister

60.

WHAT ARE KOCH'S POSTULATES!?!?

1. The organism must be present in all cases of the disease

2. The organism must be isolatable from the infected host and grown in a pure culture

3. Pure culture of the organism must cause the same disease in a new host

4. The organism must be reisolated from the new host and identified as identical to the original causative agent of the disease

61.

What is a vaccine and what does it do?

stimulate production of antibodies and provide immunity against disease prepared from agent of disease

62.

what does ELISA stand for

Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay

63.

What is Selective Media

It contains 1 or more agents that inhibit growth of some microbes and encourage growth of the desired microbes

64.

Who developed the 5 kingdom system for classifying living things

Robert H. Whittaker

65.

What is a strain

is a population of organisms that have some slight differences between themselves and other member of the species

66.

for eukaryotes "species" refers to what?

organisms that can interbreed

67.

for prokaryotes "species" refers to what?

organisms that are similar

68.

Describe a dichotomous key

tools for identification and pays no attention to how related organisms are

69.

describe a cladogram

used in classification and are used to describe how closely related organisms are

70.

WHAT ARE THE 6 I's IN ORDER!!!

Inoculation

Incubation

Isolation

Inspection

Information gathering

Identification

71.

Complex or nonsynthetic media

contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically definable

72.

General purpose media

grows a broad range of microbes, usually nonsynthetic

73.

Enriched media

contains complex organic substances such as blood, serum, hemoglobin, or special growth factors required by fastidious microbes

74.

Synthetic media

contains pure organic and inorganic compounds in an exact chemical formula

75.

Selective media

contains one or more agents that inhibit growth of some microbes and encourage growth of the desired microbes

76.

Differential media

allows growth of several types of microbes and displays visible difference among those microbes

77.

Give an example of microbes that need live media

All viruses, some bacteria, and certain protozoa

78.

What is Serology

the study of serum and immune responses

79.

What is a genophore?

prokaryotic genetic material/nucleic acid/chromosome material

80.

What is the glycocalyx

surface coating allowing cells to attach to each other can form biofilms

81.

Monotrichous flagella

just 1 flagella

82.

Lophotrichous flagella

flagella bunched together

83.

Amphitrichous flagella

flagella on both sides

84.

Peritrichous flagella

flagella all over

85.

Chemotaxis respond to _______ stimuli and phototaxis respond to ________ stimuli

Chemical, Light

86.

Fimbriae

fine hairlike bristles, that function in adhesion to other bacterial/prokaryotic cells and surfaces

87.

Pili

rigid tubular structure made of pilin protein, found only in gram-negative bacteria, function to join bacterial cells for partial DNA transfer called conjugation

88.

What are the two types of glycocalyx

Slime layer - mucoid, loosely organized and attached, prevents drying out and nutrients

Capsule - highly organized, tightly attached, contribute to pathogenicity causes the immune system confusion

89.

Gram-positive bacteria

thick cell wall composed primarily of peptidoglycan and cell membranes

90.

Gram-negative bacteria

outer cell membrane, thin peptidoglycan layer, and cell membrane

91.

All bacterial cells have

a chromosome.

92.

Which of the following are present in viruses?

none of the above

93.

Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called

dimorphic.

94.

What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain?

Crystal Violet, Gram's iodine, Alcohol, Safranin

95.

TRUE or FALSE The term diplococci refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells.

False

96.

If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is

cell wall

97.

The cytoskeleton

All of the choices are correct.

98.

The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia
compared to the typical gram-positive bacterial cell wall structure is

predominance of unique, waxy lipids.

99.

Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes?

tetrad

100.

A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is

gram-positive.

101.

TRUE or FALSE If during the Gram stain procedure, the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied, gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless.

False

102.

All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except

cell wall.

103.

When a eukaryotic cell is not
undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible thread-like mass called the

chromatin.

104.

TRUE or FALSE Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses.

True

105.

The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called

sex pili.

106.

TRUE or FALSE Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls.

True

107.

All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease, except

inclusions.

108.

All of the following pertain to endotoxins, except they

are found in acid fast bacterial cell walls.

109.

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of ___________.

lipids

110.

Magnetosomes are

composed of magnetic iron oxide particles.

111.

Which of the following is the cause of malaria?

Plasmodium

112.

The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is

80S

113.

Lysozyme, an enzyme found in tears, provides a natural defense against bacteria by

hydrolyzing peptidoglycan in cell walls.

114.

The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called

fimbriae.

115.

TRUE or FALSE Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease.

True

116.

Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except

euglenids.

117.

In order to reproduce sexually, diploid cells must produce _________ gametes through ________.

haploid, meiosis

118.

TRUE or FASLE Gram-negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls.

False

119.

Which is mismatched?

Plasmodium - causes Chagas disease

120.

The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the

lysosomes.

121.

Protists include

algae and protozoa.

122.

Which is not a characteristic of fungi?

photosynthetic

123.

In the Gram stain, the mordant is

Iodine.

124.

The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the

trophozoite.

125.

Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?

mitochondria

126.

A microoganism has been described to you as living in hot acidic habitats in the waste piles of coal mines that regularly sustain a pH of 1 and a temperature of nearly 60°C. Which type of organism do you immediately assume it is?

Archaea

127.

TRUE or FALSE If you observe rod shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been gram stained, you can assume that their cell walls contain endotoxin.

True

128.

Sarcinae refers to

a cuboidal packet of cells.

129.

Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of

fungi.

130.

TRUE or FALSE All algae have chloroplasts.

True

131.

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of

gram-negative bacteria.

132.

The bacterial chromosome

is part of the nucleoid.

133.

An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the

Golgi apparatus.

134.

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's

cell wall.

135.

Endospores are

All of the choices are correct.

136.

The periplasmic space is

an important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell.

137.

All of the following are correct about helminthes except

they generally make only a few eggs per day

138.

The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is

peritrichous.

139.

The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is

mostly polysaccharide.

140.

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells?

All of the choices are correct.

141.

Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be

lophotrichous

142.

Both fish and humans develop neurological symptoms and bloody skin lesions due to a sudden "bloom" of this algae.

Pfiesteria piscida

143.

A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is

Mycobacterium.

144.

Which is mismatched?

plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism

145.

All of the following are correct about a slime layer, except

it plays a role in cell motility.

146.

TRUE or FALSE Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls.

True

147.

Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes, is mismatched?

unique hydrocarbon present - cyanobacteria

148.

The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the

endoplasmic reticulum

149.

Cilia are found in certain

protozoa.

150.

TRUE or FALSE Iodine is the decolorizer in the Gram stain.

False

151.

Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of

helminths.

152.

Which statement is not a characteristic of biofilms?

They involve bacteria only.

153.

Bacterial endospores are not produced by

Staphylococcus.

154.

Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure?

endospore

155.

A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has

flagella.

156.

Fungal spores

are used to identify fungi.

157.

TRUE or FALSE Algae are classified into Divisions based principally on their type of motility.

False

158.

When you use alcohol as the decolorizer what are you doing to the cell?

washing away the outer layer in Gram negative bacteria that contains lipopolysaccharides

159.

What is the correct procedure to Gram stain?

1. Crystal violet - primary

2. Iodine - mordant

3. Alcohol - decolorizer

4. Safranin - counterstain to make Gram - appear pink

160.

Give examples why pure cultures may show both Gram + and Gram - results

old, over decolorized, indeterminate, uneven decolorization, too thick of a smear of cells

161.

What does pleomorphic mean?

size and shape differences in a single species

162.

What are the two forms of plasmids?

Relaxed - free in cytoplasm, replicate independently

Stringent - integrated in chromosome, replicates when genome replicates "episome"

163.

what does mean polyhydroxybutyrate mean

source of nutrients, not soluble

164.

What are endospores?

inert, resting, cell produced by some G + genera, example Bacillus, Clostridium, and Sporosarcina

165.

What does the vegetative state of endospore mean

they are metabolically active and growing

166.

What does the sporulation state of an endospore mean

formation of endospores, can withstand extreme conditions, not a means of reproduction

167.

What is the germination state of an endospore mean

return to vegetative growth

168.

Ferdinand Julius Cohn did what?

Classified bacteria into four groups based on shape (spherical, short rods, threads, and spirals)

169.

coccus

single round

170.

cocci

multiple round

171.

bacillus

single rod

172.

bacilli

multiple rods

173.

Give examples of why bacteria is important

produce oxygen, decomposition, nitrogen fixation, food and medicine, produce greenhouse gases

174.

What is cell theory?

The idea that all living things are comprised of at least 1 cell and that all cells must rise from existing cells

175.

Who first introduced aseptic technique?

Louis Pasteur

176.

What is "pasteurization"

Brief heating of foods to kill most bacteria that cause it to spoil

177.

Who first introduced antiseptic techniques

Joseph Lister, introduced sterilization with carbolic acid or phenol

178.

What did Edward Jenner discover/invent

vaccines to rid of smallpox's

179.

What did Alexander Fleming discover

identified penicillium and isolated penicillin which was effective against Gram + bacteria

180.

Who proposed the current 3-domain system we currently utilize

Carl Woese

181.

Give reasons why Microorganisms are difficult to study

most are invisible to naked eye, mixed in nature, need special tools and techniques

182.

Prokaryotes (bacteria & archaea) have no _____________.

nucleus, PRO=NO

183.

What are the functions of the glycocalyx

protect cells from dehydration and nutrient loss

inhibit killing by white blood cells

attachment to form biofilms

184.

Who came up with the technique of Gram staining?

Sir Hans Gram

185.

What dye acts the primary in Gram staining

Crystal Violet

186.

What dye acts as the mordant in Gram staining

Iodine

187.

What acts as the decolorizer in Gram staining

alcohol (ethanol)

188.

What dye acts as the counterstain in Gram staining

Safranin

189.

What are plasmids?

extrachromosomal, circular, double stranded DNA molecules found in bacteria

190.

Which domain is considered extremophiles

Archaea

191.

Eukaryotes include:

human, animal, fungi, algae, protozoans, helminths/worm cells

192.

Eukaryotes have a ______ ribosome

80s

193.

Prokaryotes have a _______ ribosome

70s

194.

List some positive impacts that fungi can have

certain foods, decomposition, medicine, research (model organisms)

195.

List some adverse impacts that fungi can have

disease causing, crop destruction, allergy

196.

What is the dormant resting stage of a protozoa called

cyst