A&P2 Final
A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n) ________neuron. Hint : Upper or lower
Preganglionic
Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on ……………
ganglionic neurons
Autonomic motor neurons conduct impulses to smooth and cardiac muscles and glands.
True /false
True
The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as ………………………
thoracolumbar division
craniosacral division is also called as ……………….?
Parasympathetic division
Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located……….
in the CNS
The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is known as the "rest and digest" division.
Parasympathetic
The celiac ganglia innervates …………………..(organs)
abdominopelvic viscera (liver, spleen, stomach, pancreas)
The statement "It initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. True or false
True
What do you mean by Splanchnic nerves?
These are relating to the viscera or internal organs, especially those of the abdomen
Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic neurons are present in few cranial nerves, name them.
CN III (Oculomotor), CN VII (Facial), CN IX (Glossopharyngeal), CN X (Vagus)
Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the ________ nerve(s).
CN X- Vagus nerve
Intramural ganglia in the large intestine, urinary bladder, and reproductive organs are innervated by the ________ nerves.
Pelvic
Which structure carries postganglionic fibers for distribution in the body wall and limbs?
gray ramus communicants
Which nerve provides preganglionic parasympathetic innervation to structures in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?
CN X- Vagus Nerve
Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the………….
lateral gray horns of segments T1-L2 of the spinal cord
The adrenal medullae secrete both …………………………….(Catecholamine)
Epinepherine and Norepinephrine
In general, parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and postganglionic fibers are ________. Length ?
longer, shorter
Neurons that use norepinephrine as a transmitter are called
adrenergic receptors
Stimulation of α1 adrenergic receptors by norepinephrine results in
D) release of calcium ions from intracellular stores.
Nicotinic receptors open chemically gated sodium ion channels. True. False
True
Muscarinic receptors are normally activated by acetylcholine. True/ false
True
Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating ……………..
high blood pressure or excessive heart rate
Mary accidentally ate poisonous mushrooms that contain muscarine. What would occur?
Diarrhea, salivation, very low heart rate, sweating
An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain a drug that……..
activates beta-2 adrenergic receptors
A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells.
This drug probably binds to ________ receptors.
Beta-1 adrenergic
Sweat glands contain ________ receptors.
Muscarinic cholinergic
Stimulation of the neurons in the celiac ganglion would lead to
C) hydrolysis of liver glycogen reserves.
A person is confronted by a dangerous dog. His heart begins to race and beat strongly, his pupils dilate, and his hairs stand up. These signs are not the result of.....
parasympathetic nervous system, “rest and digest” response
Most vital organs receive ________ innervation. That is, they receive input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Dual
Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes.
Short
Baroreceptors are not found in the…………………..(Organs)
Mouth, Oral cavity
Name the organs which are associated with both chemoreceptors and baroreceptors respiratory autonomic reflexes?
Aortic and carotid arteries
Which brain area is considered to be the headquarters of the ANS?
hypothalamus
Which of the following would be an example of higher-level control of autonomic
function?
C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear
Compare the SNS with the ANS.
Somatic nervous system (SNS)-conscious and subconscious control of skeletal muscles
Autonomic nervous system (ANS)- controls visceral function
Identify two major divisions of the ANS.
Sympathetic (“fight or flight”) and parasympathetic (“rest and digest”) nervous systems
Describe the ENS.
Enteric Nervous System (ENS)- extensive network of neurons and nerve networks in walls of the digestive tract- initiates many complex local visceral reflexes with no CNS input
Which division of the ANS is responsible for the physiological changes you experience when startled by a loud noise?
Sympathetic nervous system.
Describe an intramural ganglion.
Embedded in the tissues of target organ (“murus” - wall)
Define splanchnic nerves.
Special groups of nerves that relate to the viscera or internal organs, especially those of the abdomen. Contain the cardiopulmonary, abdominopelvic, and pelvic nerves.
Name the plexuses innervated by the vagus nerve.
Cardiac, celiac, inferior mesenteric and hypogastric plexuses.
Which nerve carries most of the parasympathetic outflow?
Vagus nerve
What neurotransmitter is released by all parasympathetic neurons?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
Compare nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors.
Nicotinic are excitatory, while muscarinic can be excitatory OR inhibitory.
Muscarinic receptors have longer lasting effects than nicotinic.
Nicotinic stimulated by nicotine, muscarinic stimulated by muscarine
Nicotinic receptors are located on all postganglionic neurons, on adrenal medullae cells, and at neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle fibers; while muscarinic receptors are located at cholinergic neuromuscular or neuroglandular junctions in parasympathetic division and few cholinergic junctions in sympathetic division
Name the two types of motor pathways.
Somatic and visceral
Identify somatic effectors and visceral effectors.
Somatic effectors-skeletal muscles
Visceral effectors- smooth muscles, glands, cardiac muscle, adipocytes
Define dual innervation
Receives instructions from both ANS divisions- sympathetic and parasympathetic
Define visceral reflex.
Autonomic reflexes initiated in viscera
Compare short reflexes with long reflexes.
Short reflexes are autonomic responses that bypass the CNS, whereas long reflexes involve interneurons in the CNS and autonomic delivery of motor commands to effectors.
Describe the solitary nuclei.
They are large masses of gray matter on each side of the medulla oblongata that serve as processing sorting centers for visceral sensory information.
Define baroreceptors. Where are baroreceptors located within the body?
Baroreceptors are stretch receptors that monitor pressure changes. Located in hollow organs, blood vessels, and tubes are respiratory, digestive, and urinary tracts
Which type of receptor is sensitive to changes in blood pH?
Chemoreceptors
What brain structure is considered to be the headquarters for the ANS?
Hypothalamus
What brain structure relays somatosensory information?
Thalamus
Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?
45% of blood makes up the formed elements
The combination of plasma and formed elements is called
Whole blood
The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is called ..
Hematocrit- packed cell volume (PCV)
The total volume of blood in the body of an adult male is approximately ________ liters.
5-6 liters
Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the
Globulins as in immunoglobulins, or antibodies
A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is
Fibrinogens
The most abundant component of plasma is ……..
Water
Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood, and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume.
55%; 92%
Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by
The liver
The normal pH of blood is
Slightly alkaline, 7.35-7.45 (avg.: 7.4)
Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone ________ which is mostly produced in the ________.
Erythropoietin (EPO); kidneys
When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, what would you expect in his/ her blood?
Release of EPO, increase in RBC production, drop in oxygen levels, rise in hematocrit
Erythropoiesis is stimulated when ……………
Anemia, Reduced blood flow to kidneys, Oxygen content in lungs decreased (either from disease or high altitude), Lung damage
Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.
Colony-stimulating factors
The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells.
WBC differential count
The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of mature erythrocytes.
RBC count
________ transport(s) oxygen and CO2 in the RBCs.
Hemoglobin
The function of red blood cells is to carry……….
Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues
Carry CO2 from the tissues to the lungs
RBCs typically live about 120 days. The main reason for this short lifespan in RBCs is due to …………
Lack of nucleus
In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in
Red bone marrow
The process of red blood cell production is called
erythropoiesis
The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as
reticulocytes
A person with Type A blood has ……..type of antibody on RBCs and ……… type of antibody in plasma?
A person with Type A blood has surface antigen A on the RBCs and anti-B antibodies in the plasma
If the blood types of a donor and recipient are compatible, then
The donor’s blood and the recipient’s plasma will not cross-react
There is no reaction between antibodies and surface antigens
People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because …
There are neither Anti-A nor Anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) in the plasma.
RBCs have both A and B surface antigens (agglutinogens)
Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. What do you know about Bill’s Rh Antibody?
Rh-, blood contains anti-B antibodies, A- blood type, could donate to AB blood type
Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if
Rh- mother is carrying an Rh+ baby
This occurs when the mother’s antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal RBCs
Which of the following descriptions best matches the term eosinophils?
Bilobed, 2-4% makeup of white blood cells, granular and stains, numbers increase during inflammation, allergy, and parasitic infection, destroy antibody-labeled antigens
The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the
Neutrophils
White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are………
Basophils
During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of……..
neutrophils
________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Coagulation phase of hemostasis
The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by
Thrombin
Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors?
Vitamin K
________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.
Anemia
Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from ……artery/vein?
A superficial vein
Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?
Vitamin B12 deficiency (pernicious anemia)
A cancer involving neutrophils, eosinophils, or basophils is called a ……
Myeloid leukemia
Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by ..
Injections of Vitamin B12
A condition where pathogens are present and multiplying in the blood is called….
Septicemia
Define hematocrit
Also called the packed cell volume (PCV), is the percentage of whole blood volume contributed by formed elements.
Which specific plasma proteins would you expect to be elevated during an infection?
During an infection, you would expect the level of immunoglobulins (antibodies) in the blood to be elevated.
Define hemocytoblasts.
These form from hematopoietic stem cells. hemocytoblasts divide in the red bone marrow, producing two types of cells: lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells.
Compare the types of cells that lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells produce
-Lymphoid stem cells originate in red bone marrow and give rise to lymphocytes, these stem cells also produce lymphocytes in the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes.
-Myeloid stem cells are ells in bone marrow that give rise to all of the formed elements except for lymphocytes.
What is hematology?
The medical study of blood, blood-producing organs, and blood disorders.
Which condition would a patient have if she had a depressed hematocrit level?
This patient would have anemia
Describe hemoglobin.
Hemoglobin (Hb) is a protein- composed of 4 globular subunits, each bound to a heme molecule- that gives RBCs the ability to transport oxygen in the blood.
What is determined by the surface antigens on RBCs?
These are glycoproteins in the plasma membrane, they determine your blood type.
Which blood type(s) can be safely transfused into a person with type O- blood?
Only type O- blood can be safely transfused into a person whose blood type is O-
Why can't a person with type A blood safely receive blood from a person with type B blood?
A person with Type A blood also has anti-B antibodies, so if the person received a transfusion of type B blood, the transfused blood cells would clump, or agglutinate, potentially blocking blood flow to various organs and tissues.
Define hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).
A condition in which maternal antibodies attack and destroy fetal red blood cells, resulting in fetal anemia. It most commonly occurs in a sensitized Rh- mother who is carrying an Rh+ fetus.
Does an Rh+ mother carrying an Rh‒ fetus require a RhoGAM injection? Explain your answer.
No she doesn’t require RhoGAM because the fetus is not at risk of Rh incompatibility. The fetus is not at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens, and the mother’s plasma lacks anti-Rh antibodies.
Identify the five types of white blood cells.
Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
Define hemostasis.
The stopping of bleeding and involves three phases: the vascular phase, the platelet phase, and the coagulation phase.
Compare pernicious anemia with iron deficiency anemia.
Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production that results from a lack of Vitamin B12. The blood cells that do develop tend to be abnormally large and abnormally shaped.
Iron deficiency anemia results when the dietary intake or absorption of iron is insufficient, impairing normal Hb synthesis. These blood cells are abnormally small.
Identify the two types of leukemia.
Myeloid leukemia and lymphoid leukemia
Name the location where metabolites exchange by diffusion with the tissues and the cells.
capillary
Where does blood enters while returning from the systemic circuit?
The right atrium (entry chamber) of the heart.
Explain the correct order of blood flow in the heart.
Right atrium --> right ventricle --> pulmonary arteries --> pulmonary capillaries --> pulmonary veins --> left atrium --> left ventricle --> into systemic circuit
The process of decrease in any vessel diameter that occurs due to smooth muscle contraction is called …
vasoconstriction
The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the
Tunica media (it causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation)
Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue?
Tunica media
The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called
Veins
Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel?
Tunica intima
The layer of the arteriole wall that can contains smooth muscle and can produce vasoconstriction is the ………………
Tunica media
Capillaries that have a complete lining are called ………………..
Continuous capillaries
Capillaries with a perforated lining are called……………
Fenestrated capillaries
After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the …………………….
Venules
Sinusoids can be found in the ……………………
Liver, red bone marrow, spleen, and many endocrine organs
________ are multiple arteries that fuse in order to serve a single capillary network.
collaterals
________ refers to all the factors that resist blood flow in the entire circulatory system.
Total peripheral resistance
The main control of peripheral resistance by the vasomotor centers occurs in the
Arteriole
Where is blood pressure highest? Hint: Blood vessels
in the arteries
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure.
Pulse pressure
As blood travels from arteries to veins, blood pressure…………………..
decreases
If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg.
90+(120-90)/3= 90+(30/3)= 90+10 = 100 mm Hg
________ are the only blood vessels whose walls are thin enough to permit blood-tissue exchange.
capillaries
Materials can move across capillary walls by ………….(process)
Diffusion, filtration, and reabsorption (osmosis)
The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the
The concentration of plasma proteins
The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the ……….
Capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP)
The hormone that produces cardiovascular effects similar to activation of the sympathetic nervous system is ………….
Epinephrine or norepinephrine
________ is the regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed.
autoregulation
What part of brain contains sensory neurons that are part of chemoreceptor reflexes?
Ventrolateral surface of the medulla oblongata
What will happen to pH due to decrease in blood CO2 levels in blood?
increase in pH
How does body defend blood volume against dehydration?
Accelerates reabsorption of water at the kidneys
Experiences a recall of interstitial fluids
Experiences an increase in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure
Increases water intake
Angiogenesis refers to ……………………
The growth of new blood vessels from preexisting vessels.
The systemic circuit delivers oxygenated blood to ________ and returns blood to the ________.
The body tissues; the right atrium
The superior vena cava collect blood from the………………. (Parts of body).
Upper limbs, head, neck, and chest/thorax.
Describe the pulmonary circuit.
Transports blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the left atrium.
Describe the systemic circuit.
Transports blood through the arteries, capillaries, and veins of the body from the left ventricle to the right atrium. Blood returning to the heart from the system circuit must complete the pulmonary circuit before it re-enters the systemic circuit.
Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the systemic circuit?
The right atrium receives the blood from the systemic circuit.
List the five general classes of blood vessels.
Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.
Describe a capillary.
A small blood vessel located between an arteriole and a venule, whose thin walls permits exchange between blood and interstitial fluid by diffusion.
Identify the two types of capillaries with a complete endothelium.
Continuous capillaries and fenestrated capillaries
Where are fenestrated capillaries located in the body?
Located where solutes as large as small peptides move freely into and out of the blood. These sites include endocrine glands, the choroid plexus of the brain, absorptive areas of the intestine, and filtration areas of the kidneys.
Why are valves located in veins but not in arteries?
In the arterial system, pressures are high enough to keep the blood moving away from the heart and through arteries and capillaries. In the venous system, blood pressure is too low to keep the blood moving back toward the heart. Valves in veins prevent blood from flowing backward whenever the venous pressure drops.
Describe the distribution of total blood volume in the body. Percentage
systemic venous system 64%
systemic arterial system 13%
heart 7%
pulmonary circulation 9%
systemic capillaries 7%
What factors are involved in the formation of varicose veins?
Varicose veins are sagging, swollen superficial veins in the thighs and leges. They result from the pool of blood due to gravity and failure of venous valves.
Which is greater: arterial pressure or venous pressure?
Arterial pressure is higher because it must push blood a greater distance and through progressively smaller and thinner vessels.
Why is it beneficial for capillary pressure to be very low?
This allows time for diffusion between the blood and the surround interstitial fluid
List the factors that contribute to total peripheral resistance.
Total peripheral resistance reflects a combination of vascular resistance, vessel length, vessel luminal diameter, blood viscosity, and turbulence.
Explain the equation R α 1/r4.
This states that Resistance (R) is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius (r). this means that a small change in vessel diameter results in a large change in resistance
Which would reduce peripheral resistance: an increase in vessel length or an increase in vessel diameter?
An increase in vessel diameter
Calculate the mean arterial pressure for a person whose blood pressure is 125/70.
70+(125-70)/3 = 70+(55/3) = 70 + 18.3 = 88.3 mm Hg
Under what general conditions would fluid move into a capillary?
Fluid moves into a capillary (reabsorption) whenever blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) is greater than capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP)
Define edema.
An abnormal accumulation of interstitial fluid in peripheral tissues
Define tissue perfusion.
Blood flow to tissues that is sufficient to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients
Describe autoregulation as it relates to cardiovascular function
Cardiovascular autoregulation involves local factors changing the pattern of blood flow within capillary beds in response to chemical change in interstitial fluids
Identify the hormones responsible for short-term regulation of decreasing blood pressure and blood volume.
E and NE from the adrenal medullae provide short-term regulation of decreasing blood pressure and blood volume.
How does the kidney respond to vasoconstriction of the renal artery?
Vasoconstriction of the renal artery would decrease both blood flow and blood pressure at the kidney. In response, the kidney would release EPO and renin. EPO increases the rate of red blood cell formation, which leads to an increase in blood volume. The release of renin would lead to an increase in the level of angiotensin II. The angiotensin II would bring about increased blood pressure and blood volume.
Describe the roles of the natriuretic peptides.
Excessive stretching of the right atrium during diastole causes the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). Excessive stretching of the ventricles during diastoles causes the release of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). The roles of these peptides are to trigger responses whose combined effects acts to decrease blood volume and blood pressure. As blood volume and blood pressure decrease, natriuretic peptide production ceases.
Where are chemoreceptors located?
The carotid bodies, the aortic bodies, and on the ventrolateral surfaces of the medulla oblongata
What effect does an increase in the respiratory rate have on CO2 levels?
An increase in the respiratory rate reduces CO2 levels
Describe the respiratory pump.
A mechanism by which a reduction of pressure in the thoracis cavity during inhalation assists venous return to the heart.
Name the immediate and long-term problems related to hemorrhage.
The immediate problem during hemorrhage is to maintain adequate blood flow; the long-term problem is to restore normal blood volume
Review fetal circulation
Umbilical veins carry OXYGENATED blood from placenta to the fetus, while the umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. This blood bypasses the pulmonary circuit through the foramen ovale.
Review all the fetal arteries and vein and their function.
-Umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. Runs from the internal iliac arteries into the umbilical cord.
-Umbilical veins carries oxygenated and nutritious blood from the placenta to the fetus. Drains into the ductus venosus
-Ductus venosus- vascular connection the veins within the liver that collects blood from liver and umbilical vein, and empties into the inferior cava
-Foramen ovale, or interatrial opening, allows blood to pass from right atrium to left, and bypasses the pulmonary circuit(because oxygenated blood comes from the placenta)
-Ductus arteriosus is the bypass between pulmonary trunk and aorta that sends blood from right ventricle to systemic circuit.
Names of fetal blood vessels post childbirth.
-Fossa ovalis- remnant of the foramen ovale
-Ligamentum arteriosum- remnant of the ductus arteriosus
The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the…….
The base
The inferior point of the heart is called ……………..
The apex
The left border of the heart is formed by the
Left ventricle and a small portion of the left atrium
The muscle layer of the heart is called …
myocardium
The earlike extension of the atrium is called …….
The auricle
Where is bicuspid, or mitral, valve is located?
Between the left atrium and left ventricle
The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium.
Mitral, or bicuspid, valve
In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of ________ membrane permeability to ________ ions.
Increased; sodium
What is the sequence of conducting system of the heart? Hint SA node to ………
Sinoatrial (SA) node --> atrioventricular (AV) node --> AV bundle--> Bundle branches --> Purkinje fibers
Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute.
80-100
The T wave on an ECG tracing represents
Ventricular repolarization
During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are electrically ________ and functionally ________.
Repolarizing ; relaxing
Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the ECG's ( Hint P-QRS-T)
P wave
Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing.
QRS complex
A faster-than-normal heart rate is called
Tachycardia
A slower-than-normal heart rate is called
Bradycardia
The heart is innervated by ________ nerves.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate.
Bradycardia; tachycardia
Acetylcholine slows the heart because it
It is released by parasympathetic neurons, opens chemically gated K+ channels in plasma membrane, thereby slowing the rate of spontaneous depolarization, and slightly extending the duration of repolarization
Opens potassium ion channels in SA node cells and causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more slowly.
The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the
Stroke volume
Describe the heart's location in the body.
-The heart is surrounded by the pericardium in the anterior mediastinum, deep to the sternum and superior to the diaphragm.
-base starts at the 3rd costal cartilage, and base ends at 5th intercostal space
From superficial to deep, name the layers of the heart wall.
Pericardium --> myocardium --> endocardium
Why is the left ventricle more muscular than the right ventricle?
The more muscular left ventricle must generate enough force to propel blood throughout the body in the systemic circuit, whereas the right ventricle must generate only enough force to propel blood the short distance to and from the lungs in the pulmonary circuit
What do semilunar valves prevent?
Prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles
Compare arteriosclerosis with atherosclerosis.
-Arteriosclerosis is any thickening and toughening of arterial walls
-Atherosclerosis is a type of arteriosclerosis characterized by changes in the endothelial lining and the formation of fatty deposits (plaque) in the tunica media.
What is coronary ischemia?
A blood condition in which the blood supply to the coronary arteries is reduced.
Define cardiac cycle.
The period between the start of one heartbeat and the beginning of the next
Give the alternate terms for heart contraction and heart relaxation.
Heart contraction = systole
Heart relaxation = diastole
List the phases of the cardiac cycle.
Atrial systole, atrial diastole, ventricular systole, and ventricular diastole
Why does tetany not occur in cardiac muscle?
Cardiac muscle has a long refractory period that continues until relaxation is well under way. As a result, another action potential cannot arrive quickly and thus tetany cannot occur.
List the three stages of an action potential in a cardiac muscle cell.
Rapid depolarization --> plateau --> repolarization
Define autorhythmicity.
The ability of cardiac muscle tissue to contract without neural or hormonal stimulation.
If the cells of the SA node failed to function, how would the heart rate be affected?
The heart would continue to beat, but at a slower rate; the AV node would act as the pacemaker
Define electrocardiogram.
ECG or EKG, is a recording of electrical activities of the heart over time.
List the important features of the ECG, and indicate what each represents.
P wave- atrial depolarization
QRS complex- ventricular depolarization
T wave-ventricular repolarization
Why is ventricular fibrillation fatal?
Causes a condition known as cardiac arrest, it is fatal because the ventricles merely quiver and do not pump blood into the systemic circulation
Compare bradycardia with tachycardia.
-Bradycardia- heartrate below 60 bpm
-Tachycardia- heartrate above 100 bpm
Describe the sites and actions of the cardioinhibitory and cardioacceleratory centers.
-Cardioacceletory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons to increase heart rate.
-Cardioinhibitory center is also in the medulla oblongata, and controls the parasympathetic neurons that slow heart rate.
What effect would an increase in venous return have on the stroke volume?
An increase in venous return would stretch the heart muscle. The more heart muscle is stretched, the more forcefully it will contract (to a point). The more forceful contraction, the more blood the heart will eject with each beat (stroke volume) therefore, increased venous return would increase the stroke volume (if all other factors are constant)
Define heart failure. </3 :(
A condition in which the heart can no longer meet the oxygen and nutrient demand of the peripheral tissues.
Name the accessory organs of digestive system.
Teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas
In the digestive and urinary systems, rings of smooth muscle, called ________, regulate the movement of materials along internal passageways.
sphincters
Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called
peristalsis
The movement of organic molecules, electrolytes, minerals, and water across the digestive epithelium into interstitial fluid is known as ……….
absorption
Chemical breakdown of materials by acid and enzymes takes place in the
stomach
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the
mouth
The crown of a tooth is covered by …………..
Enamel
________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding.
Premolars
Name the region where esophagus connects to the stomach.
cardia
The greater omentum is ………………
-a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera
-attaches to the greater curvature of the stomach.
The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the
pylorus
Chief cells secrete ………………….
Pepsinogen
The enzyme pepsin digests………….
proteins
An enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa of a newborn that assists in the digestion of milk proteins is
rennin and gastric lipase
Mary had most of her stomach surgically removed in an effort to overcome obesity. As a result, Mary can expect to be at risk for
vitamin b12 deficiency
The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the
ileum
The order of the small intestine segments, from proximal to distal, is
“Don’t Jump In”
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
G cells of the stomach secrete ………
gastrin
An intestinal hormone that stimulates contraction of the gallbladder to release bile is
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
The hormone that stimulates secretion and contraction by the stomach is
gastrin
Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials?
Large intestine
Functions of the large intestine include
-storage of fecal material prior to defecation
-Absorption of vitamins
-Reabsorption of water and compaction of feces
________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.
three
What is the salivary gland that secretes a watery mixture rich in salivary amylase and buffers?
submandibular
The enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates is
Salivary amylase
The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s).
four
The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the
Falciform ligament
Bile is stored in the
gallbladder
Bile salts break lipids apart in a process called
emulsification
The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of
Pancreatic acini
Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom?
jaundice
A viral infection that often involves the parotid glands, which swell noticeably, is
mumps
Starting at the mouth, identify the major organs of the digestive tract.
The oral cavity (mouth), pharynx (throat), esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.
List the accessory organs of the digestive system.
Teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas
Describe enteroendocrine cells.
Endocrine cells scattered among the epithelial cells lining the digestive tract that secrete peptide hormones important to digestion.
Distinguish between chemical digestion and absorption.
-Chem digestion- chemical and enzymatic breakdown of food into small molecules.
-Absorption- the movement of molecules and other substances across the digestive epithelium and into the interstitial fluid of the digestive tract.
Name the three main parts of a typical tooth.
Crown, a neck, and a root
Name the four major regions of the stomach in order from its junction with the esophagus to the small intestine.
The cardia, fundus, body, and pyloric part
What is the function of parietal cells?
Secrete intrinsic factor and the ions of HCl
Describe the alkaline tide.
A sudden influx of bicarbonate ions into the bloodstream from active parietal cells; it causes a temporary increase in blood pH
Name the layers of the small intestine from superficial to deep.
The mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, and serosa.
What is the primary function of the duodenum?
To receive chyme from the stomach and neutralize its acids to prevent damage to the absorptive surfaces of the remaining regions of the small intestine, especially the jejunum
Does a high-fat meal raise or lower the level of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the blood?
Raises the CCK level in the blood
Name the major functions of the large intestine.
1- reabsorbing water and compacting material into feces
2- absorbing vitamins produced by bacteria
3- storing fecal material prior to defecation.
Distinguish between the exocrine and endocrine secretions of the pancreas.
-Exocrine secretions of the pancreas are buffers and digestive enzymes.
-Endocrine secretions are insulin, glucagon, pancreatic polypeptide (PP), and GH-IH.
Which pair of salivary glands contributes most to saliva production?
Submandibular glands secrete about 70% of saliva.
What is the function of the gallbladder?
Temporarily stores bile produced by the liver
Describe a portal triad.
A portal triad is located at each of the six corners of a liver lobule; each portal contains:
1-an interlobular vein (a branch of the hepatic portal vein)
2- an interlobular artery (branch of the hepatic artery proper)
3- an interlobular bile duct (a small branch of the bile duct)
Describe hepatitis.
Inflammation of the liver. It can be caused by alcohol abuse, drugs, or infection. Cirrohosis is a form of hepatitis that destroys liver cells and replaces them with nonfunctional fibrous connective tissue. In viral hepatitis, hepatitis viruses attack an destroy liver cells
Describe cholecystitis.
Inflammation of the gallbladder, usually resulting from blockage of the cystic duct or the bile duct by gallstones.
What bacterium is responsible for most peptic ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori.