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Test 1

1.

The Nurse has charted: "Client has an open wound located on the lateral aspect of the leg". This wound would be located on which portion of the leg?

outer surface or lateral side

2.

The serous membrane that covers the intestines is what?

Visceral Peritoneum

3.

A vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior portions is what?

Coronal or frontal

4.

The anatomical position is used as what?

A standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body

5.

The frontal plane is also called the _______ plane?

Coronal

6.

The dorsal body cavity is the site of what?

Brain and spinal cord

7.

The spleen is located in which quadrant of the body?

Left upper quadrant

8.

Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex
molecule, atom, tissue, cell, organ

Atom, molecule, cell, tissue, organ

9.

Homeostasis is the condition in which the b.
body maintains what?

A relatively stable internal environment, within limits

10.

The parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane that does what?

lines the thoracic cavity

11.

The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except_______
body erect
palms turned posteriorly
arms at side
thumbs pointed laterally

palms turned posteriorly

12.

A negative feedback mechanism works how?

To prevent sudden severe changes within the body

13.

The main, general purpose of negative feedback is?

to maintain homeostasis

14.

True or false
The epigastric region is located superior to the umbilical region.

True

15.

True or False
The major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.

True

16.

True or False
The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity is termed the visceral peritoneum.

False

17.

True or False
The elbow is proximal to the shoulder.

False

18.

Directly causes mechanical motion

Muscular

19.

Responds to environmental changes by transmitting electrical impulses

Nervous

20.

Provides support and levers for muscle to work on

Skeletal

21.

Protects underlying organs from mechanical damage and synthesizes vitamin D

Integumentary

22.

The other two terms for the horizontal plane are what?

Transverse and cross section

23.

The elbow is _________ to the wrist?

Proximal

24.

The knee is _________ to the hip?

Distal

25.

The knee is ______ to the ankle?

Proximal

26.

True or False
In the anatomic position the posterior surface of the body is the dorsal surface.

True

27.

True or False
In the anatomic position the little finger (5th finger) is the medial side

True

28.

In anatomic position the great (1st toe) is which of the following?
Medial or Lateral

medial

29.

A chain of 25 amino acids would be called a what?

Polypeptide

30.

The coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix is referred to as the what?

Secondary structure

31.

Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the _____?

Removal of a water molecule between each two units

32.

Which statement about enzymes is NOT true?
Enzymes are composed mostly of protein
Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction
Enzymes are organic catalysts
Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature

Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction

33.

What four elements make up about 96% of body matter?

Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

34.

The structure composed of glycerol and 3 fatty acids is what?

Tryglycerides

35.

The major function of carbohydrates in humans is what?

Generation of ATP

36.

Which of the following is NOT a type of lipid?
Cholesterol
Prostaglandin
Glycogen
Oils

Glycogen

37.

The major functions of proteins in the body are what?

Structures and enzymes

38.

Having a polar and nonpolar portion is called?

Amphiphatic

39.

The plasma membrane on the extracellular side and the cytosolic side are what?

Not identical in structure

40.

The hydrophobic portion of the plasma membrane is made up of what?

Fatty acid tails

41.

The most abundant substance in the plasma membrane is what?

Phospholipids

42.

The cholesterol molecules separate phospholipids, provides an anchoring function in the outer portions of the membrane and what?

Contributes to fluidity in the inner portion of the membrane

43.

Glycolipids and glycoproteins are located at which sites in the plasma membrane?

Extracellular side

44.

Lipid rafts display what characteristic?

Less fluid than the rest of the membrane

45.

The plasma membrane will be disrupted with the removal of what types of proteins?

Integral proteins

46.

Most of the integral proteins are positioned such that they what?

Face both the cytosolic and extracellular side

47.

Peripheral proteins are associated with which portion of the plasma membrane?

Hydrophilic portion

48.

Plasma membrane proteins can move how?

Laterally in the membrane

49.

Integral proteins do not function how?

Exclusively as transport channels

50.

Glycocalyx is associated with what functions?

Cell recognition, Maintaining the hydration status of the cell, Making the cell slippery

51.

The major function of a microvilli is what?

Increase the surface area of the cell

52.

What are the characteristics asoociated with passive movement across a plasma membrane?

Nonpolar and small molecular size

53.

Give examples of classified passive processes?

Osmosis, Facilitated diffusion, Diffusion through channels

54.

What is one example that is not a classified passive process?

Vesicular transport

55.

What are examples of passive process simple diffusion?

Oxygen, alcohol

56.

What are examples of passive process Facilitated diffusion?

Glucose, Galactose

57.

What are examples of passive process Osmosis?

Water

58.

Osmosis is the movement of water from?

An area of low to high solute concentration

59.

The generation of the resting membrane potential is most associated with what channel?

Leakage channel

60.

There are not more leakage channels for sodium in the plasma membrane than for what?

Potassium

61.

Gated channels can be opened by what mechanism?

Ligands, Voltage change, Mechanical stimulation of the plasma membrane

62.

A cell that is surrounded by a hypertonic extracellular fluid will do what?

shrink

63.

A substance that binds to a plasma membrane receptor to trigger a cellular response is what?

Ligand

64.

What are some examples of ligands?

Neurostansmitter, hormones and drugs

65.

What does the sodium-potassium ATPase pump do?

3 sodium ions are pumped from the intracellular to the extracellular space

66.

Active transport does what?

Release of acetylcholine from a secretory vesicel via exocytosis

67.

Phagocytosis is best described by what?

An active process in which lysosomes fuse with the enveloped vesicle

68.

Membrane-enclosed vesicles formed in the golgi complex that contains strong hydrolytic and digestive enzymes

Lysosomes

69.

Network of protein filaments that extend throughout the cytoplasm, providing cellular shape, organization and movement

Cytoskeleton

70.

Sites of protein synthesis

Ribosomes and Rough ER

71.

Contains enzymes that break apart unneeded, damaged or faulty proteins into smaller peptides

proteosomes

72.

Site where secretory proteins and membrane molecules are synthesized

Rough ER

73.

Membrane-enclosed vesicle that contains enzymes that oxidize various organic substances

Peroxisomes

74.

Short microtubular structures extending from the plasma membrane and involved in movement of materials along the cell's surface

Cilia

75.

Modifies, sorts, packages, and transports molecules synthesized in the rough ER

Golgi complex

76.

An organizing center for growth of the mitotic spindle

Centrosome

77.

Functions in ATP generation

Mitochondria

78.

Functions in synthesizing fatty acids and steroids, helping liver cells release glucose into the bloodstream, and detoxification

Smooth ER

79.

Membrane-bound sacs that transport, transfer or secrete proteins

Vesicles

80.

Long microtubular structures extending from the plasma membrane and involved in the movement of a cell

Flagellum

81.

Cristae

Mitochondria

82.

Cis and trans face

Golgi apparatus

83.

Cisternal system that is located immediately adjacent to the nucleus and is involved in protein synthesis

Rough ER

84.

movement of sperm

Flagellum

85.

Vesicles that contain oxidases and catalases

Peroxisome

86.

Smallest of the cytoskeletal elements; example is actin

Microfilaments

87.

Site of attachment of tRNA

Ribosome

88.

Exhibits a beating motion for movement of particles in the respiratory and female reproductive tract

Cilia

89.

Site of assembly of ribosomes

Nucleolus

90.

Associated with the proteins kinesins and dyneins for movement

Microtubules

91.

Degradation of damaged or old proteins; peptide chains broken down into amino acids

Proteosome

92.

Electron transport chain

Mitochondria

93.

Cisternal system that has vesicles budding from its surface

Golgi apparatus

94.

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Smooth ER

95.

Mitotic spindle

centriole

96.

Vesicle containing hydrolytic enzymes

Lysosome

97.

Conversion of hydrogen peroxide to a non-harmful substance

Perioxisome

98.

Transport of substances that have entered the cell via endocytosis to various organelles

Endosomes

99.

Opening in double layered membrane by which mRNA exits in route to the cytosol

Nuclear pore

100.

Synthesis of fatty acids and steroids and detoxification of some substances (ex: alcohol)

Smooth ER

101.

Cytoskeletal element associated with red blood cell structural integrity

Intermediate filament

102.

What processes occur in the cell's nucleus?

Replication and trancription

103.

How many nucleus' do all cell's contain?

1 or more

104.

Double layered and selectively permeable

Nuclear membrane

105.

A nucleosome contains how many histone proteins wrapped in the DNA strand?

8

106.

When the cell is carrying out normal daily activity the DNA is in what form?

Extended form(chromatin)

107.

Deoxyribose and the phosphate group is part of what?

DNA nucleotide

108.

The shortest portion of interphase is what?

G2

109.

During interphase the cell is doing what?

Performing its usual metabolic activities

110.

What is the correct sequence of bases for the complementary strand of DNA formed during replication for the DNA template bases of CGTA?

GCAT

111.

Shortest sequences of RNA are needed to initiate the process of replication. These RNA nucleotides are later what?

Replaced by DNA nucleotides

112.

The complementary strand of DNA made during replication that is synthesized in segments that are spliced together is what?

Lagging strand

113.

What cells do not have the ability to divide in the human adult?

Cardiac muscle cells and neurons

114.

What is a trigger for cells to stop dividing?

Contact inhibition

115.

What rise and fall in a cyclic pattern during interphase and mitosis?

Cyclin and MFP

116.

The longest phase of mitosis is what?

Prophase

117.

What is the correct sequence of events in mitosis?

Prophase, Metaphaose, Anaphase, and Telophase

118.

During prophase the nuclear membrane disintegrates. It reforms during what stage?

Telophase

119.

The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell is what?

Anaphase

120.

The microtubular elements of the mitotic spindle that are attached to the centromere of the chromosomes is what?

Kinetochores

121.

The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are lined up at the equator of the cell is what?

Metaphase

122.

Kinetochores pulls the chromosomes to the middle of the cell. Polar microtubules push the poles of the cell which way?

apart

123.

Nucleoli remain visible or nonvisible thoughout mitosis?

nonvisible

124.

The shortest phase of mitosis is what?

Anaphase

125.

The term chromosomes refers to 2 chromatids connected by a centromere. Once anaphase has occurred and the individual chromatids have separated, each chromatid is now what?

termed a chromosome

126.

Telophase is in most ways ________ in reverse?

Prophase

127.

The cleavage furrow is most associated with which stage of mitosis?

Telophase

128.

The base pair of RNA is what?

AUCG

129.

The 3 base pair groupings of mRNA is what?

Codon

130.

The RNA that is cloverleaf-shaped and has an end for bases and an end for a specific amino acid is what?

tRNA

131.

The process of transcription is best described as what?

A strand of mRNA and is made from a DNA template

132.

What type of RNA is used in the process of translation?

tRNA, mRNA and rRNA

133.

Transcription factor performs what function?

Loosens the histones and binds to the promotor region of DNA

134.

What would be the complementary codon for a DNA template with the bases TAACGA?

AUUGCU

135.

What would be the complementary anticodon for a codon with the base ACG?

UGC

136.

What would be the anticodon for the DNA bases of ATGC?

AUGC

137.

The portion of pre-RNA that is removed is termed what?

introns

138.

The mRNA binds to what following translation?

A site

139.

The sequence for tRNA to the large ribosomal subunit during translation is what?

A site....P site....E site

140.

The basic physical unit of heredity, consisting of a sequence of DNA that occupies a specific location on a chromosome and determines a particular characteristic in an organism is what?

Gene

141.

Complex of proteins and enzymes required for replication

Replisome

142.

Removes the introns from the pre-mRNA

Spliceosome

143.

Microtubules attached to the centrioles

Asters

144.

Aids in the attachment of chromatids to each other

Cohesin

145.

Protective caps on the ends of chromosomes

Telomeres

146.

Histones wrapped together by DNA helix

Nucleosomes

147.

Y-shaped area site of replication

Replication fork

148.

Enzyme used in transcription

RNA polymerase

149.

Enzyme that unwinds the DNA strands during replications

Helicase

150.

Enzyme involved in replication by placing the correct nucleotide and creating bonds

DNA ploymerase III

151.

Enzyme that splices together the segments of DNA made during replication on the lagging strand

DNA ligase

152.

Enzyme that cleaves the cohesin holding the chromatids together

Separase

153.

The area surrounding the centrioles

Centrosomes

154.

Mitotic spindle

Centrioles

155.

Connects to chromatids

Centromeres

156.

What is #1 in this picture?

Nucleus

157.

What is #2 in this picture?

Nuclear envelope

158.

What is #3 in this picture?

Chromatin

159.

What is number #4 in this picture?

Nucleolus

160.

What is #5 in this picture?

Smooth ER

161.

What is #6 in this picture?

Cytosol

162.

What is # 7 in this picture?

Lysosome

163.

What is #8 in this picture?

Mitochondrion

164.

What is #9 in this picture?

Centrioles

165.

What is #10 in this picture?

Microvilli

166.

What is #11 in this picture?

Microfilament

167.

What is #13 in this picture?

Intermediate Filament

168.

What is #14 in this picture?

Peroxisome

169.

What is #15 in this picture?

Exocytosis

170.

What is #16 in this picture?

Golgi Apparatus

171.

What is #17 in this picture?

Ribosomes

172.

What is #18 in this picture?

Rough ER

173.

What is #19 in this picture?

Plasma Membrane

174.

What is #12 in this picture?

Microtubules

175.

What is #20 in this picture?

Centrosome Matric

176.

What does pollex mean?

Thumb

177.

What does hallux mean?

big toe

178.

What does sural mean?

calf

179.

What does Crural mean?

(front) lower leg

180.

What does popliteal mean?

back side of knee

181.

What does palmar mean?

palm of hand

182.

What is a phospholipid?

1 glycerol, 2 fatty acid chains, and a phosphate group

183.

What % of plasma lipids do cholesterol have?

20%

184.

Cholesterol molecules are aligned with the phospholipid molecules where?

On both sides of the bilayer

185.

Glycolipids are found where?

Only in the portion of the plasma membrane that faces the extracellular fluid space

186.

Which one gets cut out during transcriptions Introns or exons?

Introns

187.

What has a cloverleaf structure?

tRNA

188.

What % of body mass makes up fluids in the female?

55%

189.

What % of body mass makes up fluids in males?

60%

190.

How much of the bodily fluid is in the intracellular cells?

2/3

191.

How much of the bodily fluid is in the extracellular fluid?

1/3

192.

In our extracellular fluid what % is in the Interstitial fluid?

80%

193.

The cytoplasm is what?

The cellular material inside the plasma membrane and outside the nucleus

194.

What % of the total cell volume is made up of the cytoplasm?

55%

195.

Major functional area of a cell where most cellular activities are accomplished

Cytoplasm

196.

What is A in this picture?

Cytoplasm

197.

What is B in this picture?

Cytosol

198.

What is C in this picture?

Plasma membrane

199.

What is D in this picture?

Nucleus

200.

What is E in this picture?

Organelles

201.

What is A in this picture

Smooth ER

202.

What is B in this picture?

Rough ER

203.

What is C in this picture?

Ribosomes

204.

What is D in this picture?

Nuclear Envelope

205.

What is E in this picture?

Large ribosomal subunit

206.

What is F in this picture?

Small ribosomal subunit

207.

What is A in this picture?

Cis face "receiving" side of golgi apparatus

208.

What is B in this picture?

Transport vesicle from the golgi

209.

What is C in this picture?

Secretory vesicle from trans face

210.

What is D in this picture?

Trans face "shipping" side of golgi apparatus

211.

What is E in this picture?

New vesicles forming

212.

What is F in this picture?

Cisternae

213.

What is G in this picture?

Transport vesicle from rough ER

214.

What is H in this picture?

Golgi apparatus

215.

What is I in this picture?

New Vesicles forming

216.

What is J in this picture?

Transport vesicle from the golgi

217.

What does the Cis face do?

Receives proteins from the rough ER

218.

What does the medial cisternae do?

Adds carbohydrates to proteins to form glycoproteins
Adds proteins to lipids to form lipoproteins

219.

What does the trans face do?

Modifies the proteins further and packages them in vesicles for transport

220.

What contains proteins to be exported from the cell?

Secretory vesicles

221.

What delivers proteins to the cell plasma membrane to be incorporated there?

Membrane vesicles

222.

What carries proteins to another location in the cell other than the plasma membrane?

Transport Vesicles

223.

How many different kinds of enzymes are their in lysosomes?

60

224.

Lysosomes work best in what kind of environment?

acidic

225.

What do lysosomes contain?

Digestive and hydrolytic enzymes

226.

What do peroxisome's do?

Removes hydrogen from organic compounds such as fatty acids and amino acids
Oxidixes toxins such as alcohol

227.

What does peroxisomes contain?

Oxidases and catalases

228.

Where do you find more mitochondria cells?

Muscle cells, liver and kidney
Cells with large energy needs

229.

Mitochondria do what kind of replicating?

self-replicating

230.

What kind of DNA do Mitochondria have?

their own distinct kind

231.

How many genes do Mitochondria have and what pattern is the DNA?

37 genes and the DNA is circular

232.

Where does Mitochondrial DNA come from?

mother

233.

What is A in this picture?

Outer mitochondrial membrane

234.

What is B in this picture?

Ribosome

235.

What is C in this picture?

Mitochondrial DNA

236.

What is D in this picture?

Enzymes

237.

What is E in this picture?

Matrix

238.

What is F in this picture?

Cristae

239.

What is G in this picture?

Inner mitochondrial membrane

240.

What detoxifies toxins such as alcohol in liver cells

Smooth ER

241.

What synthesizes fatty acids and steroids such as Estrogen and testosterone

Smooth ER

242.

Structural framework for cell shape and for movement of organelles within the cell, chromosomes during mitosis and phagocytosis

Cytoskeleton

243.

What forms the mitotic spindle?

Centrioles

244.

What is the centrosome?

Cellular location of the centrioles

245.

How many clusters of triplets do centrioles have?

9

246.

How many centrioles do each cell have and how are they located?

2 pairs perpendicular to each other

247.

What is A in this picture?

Centrosome matrix

248.

What is B in this picture?

Centrioles

249.

What is C in this picture?

Microtubules

250.

What is A labeled in this picture?

DNA double helix

251.

What is B labeled in this picture?

Histones

252.

What is C labeled in this picture?

Chromatid " beads on a string"

253.

What is D labeled in this picture?

Linker DNA

254.

What is E labeled in this picture?

Nucleosomes

255.

What is F labeled in this picture?

Super coiled structure

256.

What is G labeled in this picture?

Tight Helical fiber

257.

What is H labeled in this picture?

Chromatid

258.

What is I labeled in this picture?

Metaphase chromosome

259.

DNA base pairs are:
Adinene to _________
Guanine to _________

Adinene to Thymine
Guanine to Cytosine

260.

RNA base pairs are:
Adinene to _______
Guanine to ______

Adinene to Thymine
Guanine to Cytosine

261.

What is A in this picture?

Adenine

262.

What is B in this picture?

Thymine

263.

What is C in this picture?

Cytosine

264.

What is D in this picture?

Guanine

265.

What is E in this picture?

Replication fork

266.

What is F in this picture?

DNA Polymerase III

267.

What is G in this picture?

Old template strand

268.

What is H in this picture?

Newly made strand

269.

What is I in this picture?

Leading strand

270.

What is J in this picture?

DNA One chromatid

271.

What is K in this picture?

New strand forming

272.

What is L in this picture?

DNA Polymerase III

273.

What is M in this picture?

Old template strand

274.

What is N in this picture?

Lagging strand