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Viewing:

Extremities

front 1

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

A Invert the foot.

B Evert the foot.

C Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.

D Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly.

back 1

Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.

front 2

To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the toes, which of the following procedures may be employed?

  1. Angle the CR 15 degrees caudad.
  2. Angle the CR 15 degrees cephalad.
  3. Place a sponge wedge under the foot with the toes elevated 15 degree

back 2

2 and 3 only

front 3

The scapula shown in Figure 2–29 demonstrates

  1. its posterior aspect
  2. its costal surface
  3. its sternal articular surface

back 3

1 only

front 4

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?

A Medial oblique 15° to 20°

B Lateral oblique 15° to 20°

C Medial oblique 45°

D Lateral oblique 45°

back 4

Medial oblique 45°

front 5

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the

  1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
  2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
  3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs.

back 5

1 only

front 6

The medical term for congenital clubfoot is

A coxa plana. B osteochondritis. C talipes. D muscular dystrophy

back 6

talipes.

front 7

Which of the labeled bones in Figure A identifies the tarsal navicular?

back 7

Number 6

front 8

What is the structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2–37?

A Trapezium B Scaphoid C Ulnar styloid D Radial styloid

back 8

Radial styloid

front 9

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?

A AP B Lateral C Medial oblique D Lateral oblique

back 9

Lateral oblique

front 10

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

A Distal interphalangeal joints B Proximal interphalangeal joints C Metacarpals D Radial styloid

back 10

Radial styloid process

front 11

Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee shown in Figure 2–16.

A Lateral condyle B Lateral epicondyle C Medial condyle D Medial epicondyle

back 11

Medial epicondyle

front 12

Impingement on the wrist's median nerve causing pain and disability of the affected hand and wrist is known as

A carpal boss syndrome B carpal tunnel syndrome C carpopedal syndrome D radioulnar syndrome

back 12

carpal tunnel syndrome

front 13

Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?

  1. Intercondyloid fossa
  2. Tibial condyles
  3. Tibial tuberosity

back 13

2 and 3 only

front 14

In the lateral projection of the foot, the

  1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR.
  2. metatarsals are superimposed.
  3. talofibular joint should be visualized.

back 14

1 and 2 only

front 15

The structure labeled number 4 in Figure 2–41 is the

back 15

coracoid process

front 16

What is the name of the structure indicated as number 5 in Figure 7–7?

back 16

Olecranon fossa

front 17

With the patient positioned as shown in Figure 6–13, how should the CR be directed to best demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

A Perpendicular to the popliteal depression

B 40 degrees caudad to the popliteal depression

C Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur

D 40 degrees cephalad to the popliteal depression

back 17

40 degrees caudad to the popliteal depression

front 18

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the

  1. talotibial joint is visualized.
  2. talofibular joint is visualized.
  3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

back 18

1 and 3 only

front 19

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by

  1. trauma or other pathology
  2. greater than 90-degree flexion
  3. less than 90-degree flexion

back 19

1 and 3 only

front 20

Which of the labeled bones in Figure 6–14 identifies the tarsal navicular?

back 20

Number 6

front 21

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

  1. Fractured lateral malleolus
  2. Fractured medial malleolus
  3. Fractured posterior tibia

back 21

1, 2, and 3

front 22

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint?

  1. Femur
  2. Tibia
  3. Patella

back 22

1 and 2 only

front 23

Adult orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories?

  1. Bell-Thompson scale
  2. Bucky tray
  3. Cannula

back 23

1 and 2 only

front 24

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?

A AP B Lateral C Medial oblique D Lateral oblique

back 24

Medial oblique

front 25

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint , which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

back 25

Coronoid process

front 26

Which of the following correctly identifies the letter T in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13?

back 26

Diarthrotic joint

front 27

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

  1. Knee
  2. Intervertebral joints
  3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

back 27

1 and 3 only

front 28

In which of the following projections was the image in Figure 2–7 made?

back 28

medial oblique

front 29

All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except

A popliteal surface B intercondyloid fossa C intertrochanteric line D linea aspera

back 29

intertrochanteric line

front 30

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images shown in Figure 2–33?

  1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.
  2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
  3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A.

back 30

2 and 3 only

front 31

All the following can be associated with the elbow joint except

A the capitulum. B the trochlea. C the tubercles. D the epicondyles

back 31

the tubercles.

front 32

What is the anatomic structure indicated by the number 7 in Figure 6–22?

note: number 6 - coronoid process

back 32

Radial notch of the ulna

front 33

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

A. AP

B. 90 degrees mediolateral

C. 45-degree internal rotation

D. 45-degree external rotation

back 33

45-degree internal rotation

front 34

The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as

back 34

apposition

front 35

The bone labeled number 3 in Figure 7–15 is the

A talus B cuboid C navicular D lateral cuneiform

back 35

cuboid

front 36

Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include
1. osteoarthritis.

2. osteomalacia.

3. rickets.

back 36

2 and 3 only

front 37

The term varus refers to

the term valgus refers to

back 37

turned inward

turned outward

front 38

The AP oblique projection (medial rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following?
1. Radial head free of superimposition

2. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa

3. Coronoid process free of superimposition

back 38

2 and 3 only

front 39

An AP oblique (lateral rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following?

  1. Radial head free of superimposition
  2. Capitulum of the humerus
  3. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa

back 39

1 and 2 only

front 40

In the 15° medial oblique projection of the ankle, demonstrates the entire
1. talofibular joint.

2. tibiotalar joint.

3. ankle mortise.

back 40

1, 2, and 3

front 41

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion,

A the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures.

B the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular to IR.

C the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR parallel to the humerus.

D the AP projection is eliminated from the routine.

back 41

the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures.

front 42

In Figure 2–29, which of the following is represented by the number 3?

back 42

Acromion process

front 43

What does the number 8 in Figure 6–14 identify?

back 43

Medial malleolus

front 44

With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?

A Patella B Patellofemoral articulation C Intercondyloid fossa D Tibial tuberosit

back 44

Intercondyloid fossa

front 45

The primary center of ossification in long bones is the

back 45

diaphysis

front 46

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

back 46

epiphysis

front 47

Figure A was made in which of the following positions?

back 47

Lateral oblique

front 48

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph shown in the Figure below?

  1. The acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib.
  2. This projection is performed to evaluate the scapula.
  3. This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation.

back 48

2 only

front 49

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

A Avulsion fracture B Torus fracture C Comminuted fracture D Compound fracture

back 49

Avulsion fracture

front 50

Which of the following statements regarding Figure 2–10 is (are) true?

  1. Correct degree of rotation is present.
  2. Midphalanges are foreshortened.
  3. Fingers are parallel to the IR

back 50

1 and 2 only

front 51

The carpal scaphoid can be demonstrated in which of the following projection(s) of the wrist?

  1. PA oblique
  2. PA with radial flexion
  3. PA with elbow elevated 20 degrees

back 51

1 only

front 52

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

back 52

Internal rotation

front 53

What projection was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2–41?

back 53

AP, external rotation

front 54

Which of the following shoulder projections can be used to evaluate the lesser tubercle in profile?

back 54

Internal rotation position

front 55

Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm?

back 55

AP and lateral

front 56

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?

  1. Talotibial
  2. Talocalcaneal
  3. Talofibular

back 56

1 and 3 only

front 57

What is the most superior structure of the scapula?

A Apex

B Acromion process

C Coracoid process

D Superior angle

back 57

Acromion process

front 58

All of the following statements regarding the inferosuperior axial (nontrauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder are true, except:

A the coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile.

B the arm is abducted about 90° from the body.

C the arm should be in internal rotation.

D the CR is directed medially 25° to 30° through the axilla.

back 58

the arm should be in internal rotation.

front 59

All the following can be associated with the distal ulna except

A head. B radioulnar joint. C styloid process. D trochlear notch.

back 59

trochlear notch.

front 60

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

A AP projection

B lateral projection

C medial oblique projection

D lateral oblique projection

back 60

AP projection

front 61

Cells concerned with the formation and repair of bone are

A osteoblasts. B osteoclasts. C osteomas. D osteons

back 61

osteoblasts.

front 62

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

A Lateral oblique foot B Medial oblique foot C Lateral foot D Weight-bearing foot

back 62

Lateral oblique foot

front 63

Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus?

  1. Intertubercular groove
  2. Capitulum
  3. Coronoid fossa

back 63

1 only

front 64

Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint?

1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch

2. Between the capitulum and the radial head

3. The proximal radioulnar joint

back 64

1 2 and 3

front 65

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

back 65

distal

front 66

The radiograph shown in Figure 7–12 can be produced with the

  1. long axis of the plantar surface perpendicular to the IR
  2. CR 40 degrees cephalad to the base of the third metatarsal
  3. CR 20 degrees cephalad to the talotibial joint

back 66

1 and 2 only

front 67

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?

  1. AP humerus
  2. Lateral forearm
  3. Internal rotation shoulder

back 67

2 and 3 only

front 68

To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2–31, the radiographer should

A flex the knee more acutely

B flex the knee less acutely

C angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad

D angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees caudad

back 68

angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad

front 69

Which of the following indicates the scapular costal surface seen in the figure below?

back 69

K

front 70

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the

  1. atlantoaxial joint
  2. radioulnar joint
  3. temporomandibular joint

back 70

1 and 2 only

front 71

A modified axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck is particularly useful
1. when the "cross-table" axiolateral is contraindicated.

2. for patients with bilateral hip fractures.

3. for patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg.

back 71

1, 2, and 3

front 72

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

A AP

B Lateral oblique

C Medial oblique

D Lateral

back 72

Medial oblique

front 73

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?

A Lateral wrist B Ulnar deviation C Radial deviation D Carpal tunnel

back 73

Ulnar deviation

front 74

All the following are posterior structures except

A the linea aspera. B the intertrochanteric line. C the popliteal surface. D the intercondyloid fossa.

back 74

the intertrochanteric line.

front 75

Which of the following correctly identifies the head of the ulna in the illustration in Figure 6–22?

back 75

Number 9

front 76

For the AP projection of the scapula, the

  1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
  2. patient's elbow is flexed.
  3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.

back 76

1, 2, and 3

front 77

In the 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle, the

  1. talotibial joint is visualized
  2. tibiofibular joint is visualized
  3. plantar surface should be vertical

back 77

2 and 3 only

front 78

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?

A AP recumbent, affected shoulder

B AP recumbent, both shoulders

C AP erect, affected shoulder

D AP erect, both shoulders

back 78

AP erect, both shoulders

front 79

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

SN: 19 cm (thin pelvis), the CR should be directed 3 to 5 degrees caudad; when the distance is between 19 to 24 cm, the CR is directed vertically/perpendicular (0 degrees); when the distance is greater than 24 cm (thick pelvis), the CR is directed 3 to 5 degrees cephalad.

back 79

0 degrees (perpendicular)

front 80

Which of the following articulates with the base of the fifth metatarsal?

A First cuneiform B Third cuneiform C Navicular D Cuboid

back 80

Cuboid

front 81

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?

A Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

B Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees

C Medial oblique 45 degrees

D Lateral oblique 45 degrees

back 81

Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

front 82

How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist?

A Extend the fingers.

B Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.

C Extend the forearm.

D Oblique the metacarpals 45 degrees

back 82

Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.

front 83

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

A Ewing sarcoma

B Osgood–Schlatter disease

C Gout D

Exostosis

back 83

Osgood–Schlatter disease

front 84

In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5° cephalad to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space?

back 84

Medial femoral condyle

front 85

Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?
1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally.

2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed.

3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

back 85

2 and 3 only

front 86

The instrument that is used frequently in quality-control programs to measure varying degrees of x-ray exposure is the

A aluminum step wedge. B spinning top. C densitometer. D sensitometer

back 86

densitometer.

front 87

Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

  1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
  2. The cuboid
  3. The cuneiforms

back 87

2 and 3 only

front 88

Which of the following is (are) valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?

  1. The radius and the ulna should be superimposed distally.
  2. The coronoid process and the radial head should be partially superimposed.
  3. The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed.

back 88

1, 2, and 3

front 89

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?

  1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

back 89

1 and 2 only

front 90

The greater tubercle should be visualized in profile in which of the following?

A AP shoulder, external rotation

B AP shoulder, internal rotation

C AP elbow

D Lateral elbow

back 90

AP shoulder, external rotation

front 91

Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure A is (are) true?

1. The tibial eminences are well visualized.

2. The intercondyloid fossa is demonstrated between the femoral condyles.

3. The femorotibial articulation is well demonstrated.

back 91

1 and 3 only

front 92

Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

A Synarthrodial B Diarthrodial C Amphiarthrodial D Cartilaginous

back 92

Diarthrodial

front 93

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the

  1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
  2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
  3. femoral condyles should be superimposed.

back 93

1, 2, and 3

front 94

Which of the following correctly identifies the letter L in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13?

back 94

Lunate

front 95

Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

back 95

AP and scapular Y

front 96

What is the structure labeled number 2 in Figure 2–37?

back 96

Trapezium

front 97

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?

  1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
  2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
  3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.

back 97

1 and 2 only

front 98

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees

A toward the affected side

B away from the affected side

C with the arm at the side in the anatomic position

D with the arm in external rotation

back 98

toward the affected side

front 99

The mediolateral projection of the knee shown in Figure 6–1 could best be improved by

back 99

angling the CR about 5 degrees cephalad

front 100

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

  1. Scapular Y projection
  2. Inferosuperior axial
  3. Transthoracic lateral

back 100

1, 2, and 3

front 101

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?

  1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
  2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)
  3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)

back 101

1 only

front 102

Synovial fluid is associated with the

A brain. B spinal canal. C peritoneal cavity. D bony articulations

back 102

bony articulations.

front 103

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

A Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

B Use a support sponge for the phalanges.

C Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR.

D Use ulnar flexion.

back 103

Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

front 104

What could be done to improve the mediolateral projection of the knee seen in Figure 2–3?

A Rotate the pelvis slightly forward/anteriorly.

B Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.

C Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees cephalad.

D Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees caudad.

back 104

Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.

front 105

The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the

back 105

AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph.

front 106

Ulnar deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?

  1. Medial carpals
  2. Lateral carpals
  3. Scaphoid

back 106

2 and 3 only

front 107

A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an)

A Hill-Sachs defect.

B Bankart lesion.

C rotator cuff tear.

D adhesive capsulitis.

back 107

Hill-Sachs defect.

front 108

Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal?

A First cuneiform B Third cuneiform C Navicular D Cuboid

back 108

First cuneiform

front 109

The structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2–41 is the

back 109

glenohumeral joint

front 110

In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?

back 110

Medial oblique foot

front 111

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

back 111

Tangential metatarsals/toes

front 112

The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the

back 112

trapezium.

front 113

Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
1. AP humerus

2. AP thumb

3. Lateral humerus

back 113

2 and 3 only

front 114

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

A Fifth metacarpal B First metacarpal C Distal radius D Distal ulna

back 114

First metacarpal

front 115

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?

A AP oblique, medial rotation

B AP oblique, lateral rotation

C Mediolateral

D Lateral weight-bearing

back 115

AP oblique, medial rotation

front 116

What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2–22?

A Use a perpendicular CR.

B Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad.

C Angle the CR about 30 degrees caudad.

D Angle the MSP 15 degrees toward the affected side.

back 116

Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad

front 117

The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?

back 117

Medial

front 118

Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the

1. subscapularis.

2. infraspinatus.

3. teres minor.

back 118

1, 2, and 3

front 119

The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the
1. transverse arch.

2. longitudinal arch.

3. oblique arch.

back 119

1 and 2 only

front 120

Which of the following projections/positions would best demonstrate structure number 6 seen in Figure 7–7?

back 120

Lateral projection

front 121

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include

  1. only the joint closest to the injured site must be supported during movement.
  2. both joints must be included in long bone studies.
  3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.

back 121

2 and 3 only

front 122

Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation?

  1. AP humerus
  2. Lateral forearm
  3. Lateral humerus

back 122

1 only

front 123

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

A Endocrine B Integumentary C Skeletal D Muscular

back 123

Skeletal

front 124

The radiograph shown in Figure 2–15 demonstrates the articulation between the

  1. talus and the calcaneus
  2. calcaneus and the cuboid
  3. talus and the navicular

back 124

2 and 3 only

front 125

What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor?

A Coracoid B Coronoid C Olecranon D Glenoid

back 125

Olecranon

front 126

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that

  1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR.
  2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally.
  3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

back 126

2 and 3 only

front 127

Conditions in which there is a lack of normal bone calcification include

  1. rickets.
  2. osteomalacia.
  3. osteoarthritis.

back 127

1 and 2 only

front 128

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

A Tangential

B AP axial

C Transthoracic lateral

D PA oblique scapular

back 128

PA oblique scapular Y

front 129

Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions?
1. supine flexion 45° (Merchant)

2. prone flexion 90° (Settegast)

3. prone flexion 55° (Hughston)

back 129

1, 2, and 3 only

front 130

What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

A Axial plantodorsal projection

B Axial dorsoplantar projection

C Lateral projection

D Weight-bearing lateral projection

back 130

Axial plantodorsal projection

front 131

Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

A AP recumbent

B Lateral recumbent

C AP erect

D Medial oblique

back 131

AP erect

front 132

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

A rest on the cassette for immobilization

B must be supported parallel to the IR

C are radiographed in natural flexion

D are radiographed in palmar flexion

back 132

must be supported parallel to the IR

front 133

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate

  1. a fracture
  2. a foreign body
  3. soft tissue

back 133

2 and 3 only

front 134

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

  1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
  2. Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia
  3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

back 134

1 and 2 only

front 135

Shoulder arthrography is performed to

  1. evaluate humeral luxation
  2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear
  3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

back 135

2 and 3 only

front 136

Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?

back 136

Lateral oblique

front 137

In the AP knee projection of an asthenic patient who measures less than 19 cm from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to tabletop, the CR should be directed

back 137

5 degrees caudad

front 138

Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee?

  1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally.
  2. Patella superimposed on distal tibia.
  3. CR enters ½ in. distal to base of patella.

back 138

1 only

front 139

Which of the following is most useful for bone age evaluation?

back 139

PA hand

front 140

Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2–7?

back 140

olecranon process

front 141

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?

  1. Clavicular body
  2. Acromioclavicular joint
  3. Sternocostal joint

back 141

1 and 2 only

front 142

A spontaneous fracture most likely would be associated with

A pathology. B crepitus. C trauma. D metabolism

back 142

pathology.

front 143

With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–2, which of the following will be visualized?

  1. Intercondyloid fossa
  2. Patellofemoral articulation
  3. Tangential patella

back 143

2 and 3 only

front 144

All the following can be associated with the distal radius except

A head.

B styloid process.

C ulnar notch.

D radioulnar joint.

back 144

head

front 145

Which of the following is (are) located on the distal aspect of the humerus?
1. Capitulum

2. Intertubercular groove

3. Coronoid fossa

back 145

1 and 3 only

front 146

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

A Dorsoplantar projection of the foot

B Plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus

C Medial oblique position of the foot

D Lateral foot

back 146

Plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus

front 147

What is the structure indicated by the letter A in Figure 7–3?

back 147

acromion process

front 148

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

  1. Patellar surface
  2. Intertrochanteric crest
  3. Linea aspera

back 148

1 only

front 149

Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, “Ball-Catcher's position,” is (are) correct?

  1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained.
  2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis.
  3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up.

back 149

1, 2, and 3

front 150

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

A Semilunar/trochlear notch B Radial head C Capitulum D Trochlea

back 150

Trochlea

front 151

The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid:
1. elevate hand and wrist 20°.

2. place wrist in ulnar deviation.

3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers).

back 151

1 and 2 only

front 152

Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true?

  1. Ligament tears can be demonstrated.
  2. Sterile technique is observed.
  3. MRI can follow x-ray.

back 152

1, 2, and 3

front 153

All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the

A femur. B tibia. C fibula. D mandible

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fibula.

front 154

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees, with epicondyles perpendicular to IR. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best ?

  1. Radial head
  2. Capitulum
  3. Coronoid process

back 154

1 and 2 only

front 155

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection

2. Inferosuperior axial

3. Transthoracic lateral

back 155

1, 2, and 3

front 156

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

A AP knee B Lateral knee C Tangential patella D Tunnel view

back 156

Tangential patella

front 157

Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn meniscus.

2. Baker's cyst.

3. torn rotator cuff.

back 157

1 and 2 only

front 158

Which of the following correctly identifies the radial styloid process in the illustration in Figure A?

back 158

Number 11

front 159

In the AP projection of the ankle, the

  1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical.
  2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia.
  3. calcaneus is well visualized.

back 159

1 and 2 only

front 160

Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

A Mediolateral B Lateromedial C Lateral weight-bearing D 30-degree medial oblique

back 160

Lateral weight-bearing

front 161

Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile?
1. Epicondyles parallel to the IR

2. Arm in external rotation

3. Humerus in AP position

back 161

1, 2, and 3

front 162

Which of the following is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm?

A Bicipital groove projection B Superoinferior lateral C Inferosuperior axial D Transthoracic lateral

back 162

Transthoracic lateral

front 163

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

A Radial flexion/deviation B Ulnar flexion/deviation C AP (medial) oblique D AP (lateral) oblique

back 163

AP (medial) oblique

front 164

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

back 164

AP (medial) oblique

front 165

With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate?

back 165

Acromion process

front 166

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include

  1. epicondyles parallel to the IR
  2. lesser tubercle in profile
  3. superimposed epicondyles

back 166

2 and 3 only

front 167

In Figure 2–29, which of the following is represented by the number 7?

A Medial border B Lateral border C Inferior angle D Superior angle

back 167

Lateral border

front 168

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

back 168

epiphysis.

front 169

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed

  1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula
  2. following inversion or eversion injuries
  3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

back 169

2 and 3 only

front 170

The best projection to demonstrate the articular surfaces of the femoropatellar articulation is the

back 170

tangential (“sunrise”) projection.

front 171

To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned

A 45 degrees oblique, affected side away from IR.

B 45 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR.

C 25 degrees oblique, affected side away from IR.

D 25 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR.

back 171

45 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR.

front 172

Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

A AP projection. B lateral projection. C medial oblique projection. D lateral oblique projection

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lateral projection.