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exam 3

front 1

The haploid human genome is 3 Gbp long (3x10^9 bp). How long would the genomic DNA in a single diploid cell in your body be if it were stretched out end to end?

back 1

~2 m

front 2

The haploid human genome is 3 Gbp long (3x10^9 bp). There are approximately 50 trillion cells in the human body. How long would all of the human genomic DNA in your body be if it were stretch out end to end?

back 2

100 billion Km

front 3

Which shows the correct hydrogen bond potential for adenine?

back 3

Picture d

front 4

Which of the DNA structures is correct?

back 4

Figure b

front 5

If there are 6 C’s in the DNA sequence, how many G’s are there?

back 5

6

front 6

Which sequence would you predict for the 13-mer DNA that melts to initiate DNA replication?

back 6

Sequence b

front 7

What kind of enzyme is primase?

back 7

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

front 8

Which of the following components is not involved during the formation of the replication fork?

back 8

Ligase

front 9

If you were primase where would you lay down primers to replicate the melted DNA?

back 9

As indicated in d

front 10

If the two oligonucleotides are allowed to anneal and the DNA polymerase and all substrates (4 dNTPs, etc.) are added to the mix, what will the first nucleotide incorporated in the DNA be?

back 10

T

front 11

In what cells would you expect to see telomerase activity?

back 11

Cancer cells. Pluripotent stem cells. Adult B lymphocytese.

front 12

Which base will thymine (enol) pair with in DNA?

back 12

Guanine

front 13

A tautomeric shift may result in:

back 13

A transition mutation

front 14

How many mutations would you expect to see in the human genome if mismatches could not be repaired?

back 14

600,000

front 15

Proofreading removes approximately 99% of mismatches before DNA replication moves on. After proofreading what is the mutation rate for DNA replication in humans?

back 15

10^-6 mutations/base pair

front 16

Proofreading removes approximately 99% of mismatches before DNA replication moves on. How many mutations would you expect to see in the human genome if mismatches can be repaired by proofreading?

back 16

6,000

front 17

The initial mechanism for repairing nucleotide errors in DNA is ________.

back 17

DNA polymerase proofreading

front 18

What types of mutations can intercalating agents lead to?

back 18

Frameshift mutations

front 19

Which of the following is the type of DNA repair in which thymine dimers are directly broken down by the enzyme photolyase?

back 19

Direct repair

front 20

The graph shows the results of an Ames test to identify the the effect of several concentrations of Aflatoxin B using a couple of his- Salmonella strains (TA 100 and TA 1538). While TA 100 is a strain sensitive to reversion mutations by base substitutions, TA 1538 is sensitive to frameshift mutations. Based on the results, what kind of mutations can Aflatoxin B1 lead to?

back 20

All except frameshift mutations

front 21

Which of the following regarding the Ames test is true?

back 21

It is used to identify mutants with restored biosynthetic activity.

front 22

In a given chromosome, both strands are used as templates, but in any one gene, only one strand is used. For the 3 genes shown above, what are the template strands?

back 22

Lower, lower, upper.

front 23

Which sequence would you predict to be at a promoter site?

back 23

TATAAT

front 24

For the prokaryotic DNA sequence above, which direction does the transcription proceeds? Note: -35 and -10 consensus sequences are in blue.

back 24

Right to left

front 25

For the prokaryotic DNA sequence above, which strand is the coding (non-template) strand?

back 25

Bottom

front 26

What is the sequence of the 5’ end of the mRNA transcribed from this prokaryotic gene?

back 26

UAGA

front 27

Which amino acid would you expect to be part of an alpha-helix from the GPCR signaling protein?

back 27

Leucine

front 28

What is the sequence of the protein made from this prokaryotic nucleic acid sequence?

back 28

N-Met-Asn-Ser-C

front 29

For the eukaryotic DNA sequence shown, what region of the DNA will be transcribed into mRNA?

back 29

41-101

front 30

For the eukaryotic DNA sequence shown, what region of the mRNA contains the open reading frame that will be translated into protein?

back 30

51-59

front 31

For the eukaryotic DNA sequence shown below, where is the 3’ UTR?

back 31

63-101

front 32

An operon of genes encoding enzymes in a biosynthetic pathway is likely to be which of the following?

back 32

Repressible

front 33

Which of the following conditions leads to maximal expression of the lac operon?

back 33

lactose present, glucose absent

front 34

What does the wild-type lacI protein do?

back 34

Acts as a repressor (inhibits transcription from the lac operon).

front 35

Lactose (actually allolactose) binds to the lacI protein and regulates its ability to bind to the operator. Lactose binding to lacI protein:

back 35

Prevents lacI protein from binding to the operator (acts as an inducer).

front 36

Which of the following are true of epigenetic changes?

back 36

Allow DNA to be transcribed. Move histones to open or close a chromosomal region. Are temporary

front 37

The PCR step during which the double-stranded template molecule separates into two strands is called _____________.

back 37

denaturation

front 38

In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA will be attracted to the negative electrode.

T/F

back 38

False

front 39

Which of the following are true about DNA and gel electrophoresis?

back 39

DNA is negatively charged. Small bands travel more quickly than large bands. The size of a DNA fragment is measured in base pairs

front 40

Regarding Sanger's sequencing method, why does the incorporation of a ddNTP in the growing complementary strand terminates the process of DNA replication?

back 40

Because the ddNTP cannot form a phosphodiester bond with the sugar from a newly recruited dNTP due to the missing hydroxyl group (–OH).

front 41

Insulin produced by molecular cloning:

back 41

is a recombinant protein

front 42

All of the following are processes used to introduce DNA molecules into bacterial cells except:

back 42

transcription

front 43

Which of the following is required for repairing the phosphodiester backbone of DNA during molecular cloning?

back 43

DNA ligase

front 44

In blue-white screening, what do blue colonies represent?

back 44

Cells containing empty plasmid vectors.

front 45

In the reproductive cloning of an animal, the genome of the cloned individual comes from ________.

back 45

a body cell

front 46

How are genomic libraries created?

back 46

There are multiple methods - the main one uses molecular cloning to amplify fragments of genomes for further study and addition to a collection (the genomic library).

front 47

Personal genomics is relatively __________.

back 47

new, as recent discoveries and genome mapping efforts have made genetic information more readily available.

front 48

What led to the commercialization of personal genomic products?

back 48

The increase in understanding of genetics and decrease in price of mapping a genome.

front 49

Why are personal genomics products potentially dangerous?

back 49

Results are limited and consumers may make incorrect medical decisions based on their results. Genetic discrimination may also occur.

front 50

What is genetic discrimination?

back 50

Discrimination against people by their employers, health care providers, insurance companies because of genetic indicators of health.

front 51

Epigenetics is best described as ________________.

back 51

additions to changes in a sequence, like "tags" that sit on the main nucleotide sequence.

front 52

Epigenetics creates noticeable effects by _________________.

back 52

histone modifications, which alter gene expression.

front 53

What kind of traits does epigenetics affect?

back 53

Widespread, multi-cellular traits like cancer and inherited disorders.

front 54

What factors influence epigenetics?

back 54

Both environmental and genetic factors.

front 55

An expectant mother is exposed to secondhand smoke for the duration of her pregnancy. Who in the situation is affected?

back 55

All three generations - the mother, developing baby, and subsequent generations.

front 56

Cytosines and guanines are paired by 2 hydrogen bonds, while adenines and thymines are paired by 3 hydrogen bonds.

T/F

back 56

False

front 57

The correct order of steps in a PCR cycle is:

back 57

Denaturation, annealing, extension

front 58

At which temperature does a DNA double helix denature?

back 58

95

front 59

The goal of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is to:

back 59

Amplify a small amount of DNA sequence

front 60

RNA differs from DNA in that it:

back 60

contains ribose sugar

contains uracil

is usually found as a single-stranded molecule in cells

front 61

What are the 3 main components of a DNA nucleotide?

back 61

A phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, a deoxyribose

front 62

Hydrogen bonds are weaker than covalent bonds. During PCR, hydrogen bonds are broken during the denaturation step.

T/F

back 62

True

front 63

Which of the following is incorrect?

-Two strands of DNA double helix are held together by covalent bonds

-Adenine pairs with Thymine

-Nucleotides in DNA consist of deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group and a nitrogenous base

-Cytosine pairs with Guanine

back 63

Two strands of DNA double helix are held together by covalent bonds

front 64

Which of the following amino acids are frequently found at the transcription start site in eukaryotes?

back 64

Methionine

front 65

Although DNA and RNA synthesis have many shared features, there is a distinctive property in RNA synthesis which is absent in DNA. Which of the following is this?

back 65

RNA polymerase can begin synthesis of a new RNA strand by first adding nucleoside triphosphate; DNA polymerase requires a primer sequence

front 66

Choose the pair of molecules that are most alike in their nucleotide sequence:

back 66

mRNA and DNA coding strand

front 67

Given DNA sequence: 5’ TCCGATTGG 3’. Which of the answers below represents the correct type and complementary sequence in the correct direction for this sequence?

back 67

DNA; 3’ AGGCTAACC 5’

front 68

What is the term used to represent a set of bacterial genes under coordinate control?

back 68

Operon

front 69

What effect on transcription of the structural genes of the lac operon is observed when glucose is absent and lactose present in high levels?

back 69

Transcription is induced

front 70

The main role of cAMP in transcriptional regulation of lac operon is:

back 70

Activates activator protein

front 71

What happens when E.coli is grown in environment that contains both glucose and lactose in terms of lac operon regulation?

back 71

Neither CAP or lac repressor are bound to DNA

front 72

Genetic engineering has been used to do which of the following:

back 72

Make bacteria that produce human proteins

Make plants more resistant to disease

Improve the nutritional quality of plants

front 73

The mechanism of intake of DNA fragments from the surrounding medium by a cell is called

back 73

Transformation

front 74

When ‘sticky ends’ are paired they can be covalently joined by:

back 74

DNA Ligase

front 75

In the lab, DNA can be cut at a specific sequence in rDNA technology using:

back 75

Restriction Endonuclease