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Phlebotomy Certification

front 1

The first step in controlling severe bleeding is to?

A)Apply pressure directly over the wound or venipuncture site

B) send for medical assistance

C) start cardiopulmonary resuscitation

D) make the individual lie down and apply pressure totge persons forehead

back 1

A.)Apply pressure directly over the wound venipuncture site

front 2

If a health care provider is in an area of the health care facility where a fire starts, she or he should?

A) attempt to extinguishthe fire, using the proper equipment

B) pull the lever in the fire alarm box

C) block the entrances so that others will not entr the fire area

D) close all doorsand windows before leaving tge area

back 2

B) pull the lever in the fire alarm box

front 3

If an electrical accident occurs involving electrical shock to an employee or a patient, the first thing that the health care provider should do is?

A) move the victim away from the electricity

B) start CPR

C) shut off the electrical power

D) place a blanket over the victim

back 3

C) shut off the electrical power

front 4

The abbreviation Race is used in?

A) mechanical emergencies

B) radiation emergencies

C) electrical emergencies

D) fire emergencies

back 4

D) fire emergencies

front 5

A dosimeter badge is required in health care facilities for

A) radiation safety

B) fire safety

C) electrical safety

D) mechanical safety

back 5

A) radiation safety

front 6

MSDS stands for

A) mean safety data sheet

B) mean standard deviation sheet

C) material standard deviation sheet

D) material safety data sheet

back 6

D) material safety data sheet

front 7

CPR stands for

A) cardiopulmonary resuscitation

B) cardiopulmonary recovery

C) cardiopulmonary rescue

D)cardiopulmonary return

back 7

A) cardiopulmonary resuscitation

front 8

Which of the following describes the term systole

A) blood tension

B) a heart murmur

C) relaxation of the heart

D) contraction of the heart

back 8

D) contraction of the heart

front 9

Which of the following describes the term diastole

A) blood tension

B) a heart murmur

C) contraction of the heart

D) relaxation of the heat

back 9

D) relaxation of the heart

front 10

Which of the following veins is most commonly used for venipuncture

A) femoral

B) great saphenous

C) median cubical

D) brachial

back 10

C) median cubital

front 11

Hemoglobin content is assessed in the laboratory by analyzing

A) megakaryocytes

back 11

C) erythrocytes

front 12

Which of the following is another name for leukocytes

A) white blood cells

B) platelets

C) sera

D) red blood cells

back 12

A) white blood cells

front 13

Which of the following is another name for erythrocytes

A) a red blood cells

B) sera

C) platelets

D) white blood cells

back 13

A) red blood cells

front 14

Which of the following is another name thrombocytes

A) red blood cells

B) white blood cells

C) sera

D) platelets

back 14

D) platelets

front 15

Which of the following is true of a serum specimen

A) is rich in carbon

B) contains anticoagulant additive

C) does not contain an anticoagulant additive

D) is highly oxygenated

back 15

C) does not contain an anticoagulant additive

front 16

Leukemia is a condition in which

A) clothing factors do not work property

B) WBCs are overproduced and do not function correctly

C) there is anemia due to excessive venipuncture

D) there is a weekend area of the blood vessel wal

back 16

B) WBCs are overproduced and do not function correctly

front 17

Hemophilia is an inherited condition in which

A) there is a weakened area ofthe blood vessel wall

B) clotting factors do not work properly

C) there is anemia due to excessive venipuncture

D) there is a weakend area of the blood vessel wall

back 17

B) clotting factors do not work properly

front 18

Iatrogenic anemia is a condition in which

A) clothing factors do not work properly

B) the anemia is due to excessive venipuncture

C) there is a weakend area of blood vessel wall

D) WBCs are overproduced and do not function correctly

back 18

B) the anemia is due to excessive venipuncture

front 19

Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which there is a

back 19

A) low platelet count

front 20

Polycythemia is a condition in which there is a

A) high WBC count

B) high BUN

C) high RBC count

D) low platelet count

back 20

C) high RBC count

front 21

An XX pair of chromosomes means that the fetus will be a

A) brown- haired child

B) baby girl

C) blue- eyed child

D) baby boy

back 21

B) baby girl

front 22

A test request for O and P refers to

A) an evaluation for parasites

B) chromosomes analysis

C) oxygen and pH

D) occult blood and pathogens

back 22

A) an evaluation for parasite

front 23

Which of the following controls skin pigmentation

A) melanin

B) glucose

C) hemoglobin

D) vitamin d

back 23

A) melanin

front 24

Which of the followingis designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganism from both recognize and unrecognized sources of infectionin health care facilities

A) standard precautions

B) protective environment

C) droplet precautions

D) reverse isolation

back 24

A) standard precautions

front 25

Which of the organized overseers the investigation and control of various disease, especially those that are cummunicable

A) CLIA

B) THE JOINT COMMISSION

C) JCAHO

D)CDC

back 25

d) CDC

front 26

Which of the following is an agency of U.S. Department of labor that requires employers to provide measure that will protect workers exposed to biological hazards

A) the joint commission

B)CLIA

C) OSHA

D) CLSI

back 26

C) OSHA

front 27

If an accident such as a needlestick occurs, the injured health care worker should immediately:

A) contact his or her immediate supervisor
B) fill out the necessary health care forms
C) cleanse the area with isopropyl alcohol and apply an adhesive bandage
D) take the needle back to the clinical laboratory for verification of the accident

back 27

C) cleanse the area with isopropyl alcohol and apply an adhesive bandage

front 28

About how many patients acquire a nosocomial infection annually?

A) 1 to 1.5 million
B) 1.75 to 3 million
C) 4 to 5.5 million
D) 6 to 7.2 million

back 28

B) 1.75 to 3 million

front 29

Which of the following is a commonly identified pathogenic agent that affects the skin?

A) Shigella sp.
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Herpes virus

back 29

D) Herpes virus

front 30

Which of the following would require contact precautions?

A) scarlet fever
B) tuberculosis
C) rubella
D)herpes simplex

back 30

D)herpes simplex

front 31

Which of the following would require airborne precautions?

A) tuberculosis
B) scabies
C) rubella
D) hepatitis A

back 31

A) tuberculosis

front 32

Which of the following is a commonly identified causative agent of nosocomial infections in the nursery unit?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Haemophilus vaginalis
C) Shigella
D) Vibrio cholerae

back 32

A) Escherichia coli

front 33

Reverse isolation is commonly used for patients who have:

A) Vibrio cholerae
B) immunodeficiency disorders
C) hepatitis A
D) whooping cough

back 33

B) immunodeficiency disorders

front 34

Antiseptics for skin include:

A) hypochlorite solution
B) formaldehyde
C) iodine
D) ethylene oxi

back 34

C) iodine

front 35

Which of the following chemicals should be used to disinfect tourniquets and items contaminated with blood?

A) 70 percent isopropyl
B) 1:10 dilution of chlorine bleach
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) iodophors

back 35

B) 1:10 dilution of chlorine bleach

front 36

In health care facilities, which of the following is a typical fomite?

A) laboratory coat
B) 70% isopropyl alcohol
C) phlebotomy trey
D) iodine for blood culture collection

back 36

C) phlebotomy trey

front 37

Which of the following is the most important procedure in the prevention of disease transmission in health care institutions?

A) use of appropriate waste disposal practices
B) use of personal protective equipment
C) handwashing
D) reporting personal illnesses to supervisor

back 37

C) handwashing

front 38

22) Which of the following is a vector in transmitting infectious diseases?

A) age
B) mites
C) rabies
D) Salmonella

back 38

B) mites

front 39

A health care-acquired infection occurs when:

A) a source is detected
B) the chain of infection is complete
C) a means of transmission is maintained by disinfectants
D) a susceptible host remains stable

back 39

B) the chain of infection is complete

front 40

Disinfectants are:

A) quaternary ammonium compounds
B) chemicals that are used to remove or kill pathogenic microorganisms
C) used frequently on skin for removal of microorganisms

D) chemicals that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms but do not necessarily kill them

back 40

B) chemicals that are used to remove or kill pathogenic microorganisms

front 41

Prior to performing a venipuncture, why is it important to get information about whether or not the patient has eaten recently?

A) Laboratory tests can be affected by the ingestion of food and drink.
B) Meals tend to calm a patient down.
C) After eating, patients usually have enlarged veins.
D) To help evaluate on which side to perform the venipuncture.

back 41

A) Laboratory tests can be affected by the ingestion of food and drink.

front 42

Name one step that should not be in the handwashing procedure:

A) lathering with soap and water
B) scrubbing between the fingers
C) washing around the wrist area
D) turning off the water faucet with hands

back 42

D) turning off the water faucet with hands

front 43

Arteries differ from veins in which of the following ways?

A) thicker vessel walls with a pulsating feel
B) bluer in color
C) smaller in diameter
D) tend to be lipemica

back 43

A) thicker vessel walls with a pulsating feel

front 44

If arm veins cannot be used for a venipuncture, the preferred alternative veins lie in the:

A) ankles or feet
B) anterior surface of the hand or wrist
C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist
D) earlobe

back 44

C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist

front 45

During a typical venipuncture, the needle should be inserted at what angle to the skin?

A) 30 degrees or less
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 90 degrees

back 45

A) 30 degrees or less

front 46

During the venipuncture procedure, what should the phlebotomist do after the needle is inserted and blood begins to flow?

A) release the tourniquet
B) withdraw the needle
C) release the adapter
D) adjust the hub of the needle

back 46

A) release the tourniquet

front 47

Which of the following information is essential for labeling a patient's specimen?

A) the patient's name and identification number, date of collection, room number, and the phlebotomist's initials
B) the patient's name and identification number, date of collection, time of collection
C) the patient's name and identification number, date and time of collection, the phlebotomist's
initials
D) the patient's name and identification number, date of collection, the physician's name

back 47

B) the patient's name and identification number, date of collection, time of collection

front 48

Steps in the identification process should include:

A) checking the verbal identification with a room number
B) a three-way match with verbal, ID bracelet, and requisition information
C) a two-way match with the ID bracelet and the verbal confirmation
D) a four-way match with the doctor, verbal ID, ID bracelet, and bed number

back 48

B) a three-way match with verbal, ID bracelet, and requisition information

front 49

If a venipuncture procedure is almost completed and suddenly you see hints of a hematoma beginning to form, what should you do?

A) finish collecting the tubes as quickly as possible
B) reinflate the blood pressure cuff to slow bleeding
C) remove the tube and try another one
D) discontinue the procedure and apply pressure with gauze

back 49

D) discontinue the procedure and apply pressure with gauze

front 50

Which specimen collection tube is commonly used for hematology tests?

A) EDTA
B) heparin
C) sodium citrat
D) serum tube with clot activator

back 50

C) sodium citrat

front 51

Adding too much blood to a sodium citrate tube can cause:

A) shorter clotting time
B) elevated hemoglobin
C) elevated glucose value
D) WBCs to clumpa

back 51

A) shorter clotting time

front 52

When collecting a blood specimen with the butterfly method and PT and PTT tests are the only tests ordered, what is the correct procedure?

A) use a single serum tube with clot activator
B) collect a sodium citrate tube first, then EDTA
C) use a discard tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube
D) collect a single blue-topped tube

back 52

C) use a discard tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube

front 53

Specimens may be rejected for a variety of reasons, most of which can be prevented by experienced, professional phlebotomists. Identify one reason for specimen rejection that relates to unnecessary, but excessive, mixing of the specimen.

A) Specimen is lipemic.
B) Specimen is hemolyzed.
C) Specimen is arterialized.
D) Specimen is icteric.

back 53

B) Specimen is hemolyzed.

front 54

If the tourniquet is applied to the arm for longer than 2 minutes, which of the following analytes will most likely become falsely elevated?

A) potassium
B) blood urea nitrogen
C) uric acid
D) bilirubin

back 54

A) potassium

front 55

When blood is to be collected for a glucose tolerance test, the patient should fast for:

A) 3-5 hours
B) 6-8 hours
C) 8-12 hours
D) 12-14 hours

back 55

C) 8-12 hours

front 56

Which of the following analytes is significantly increased in the blood with changes in position?

A) cortisol
B) calcium
C) glucose
D) testosterone

back 56

C) glucose

front 57

An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the intercellular spaces of the body that is localized or diffused is referred to as:

A) hemoconcentration
B) atherosclerosis
C) hemolysis
D) edema

back 57

A) hemoconcentration

front 58

Upon entering Ms. Newhouse's hospital room, the phlebotomist introduced herself and explained she was going to collect blood for laboratory tests requested by the physician. The patient became very anxious and said she was frightened of needles; then she started sweating from being frightened of the procedure. This patient's emotional stress could lead to a decrease in which of the following?

A) white blood cell count
B) serum iron level
C) albumin
D) glucose

back 58

B) serum iron level

front 59

Which of the following would most likely not be an explanation for turbid serum?

A) elevated glucose
B) elevated triglyceride levels
C) elevated cholesterol levels
D) bacterial contamination

back 59

A) elevated glucose

front 60

When hemoglobin is released from RBCs and serum becomes tinged as pink or red, this condition is referred to as:

A) hyperlipidemia
B) hemolysis
C) hemoconcentration
D) hemophilia

back 60

B) hemolysis

front 61

If a patient begins to have a seizure during venipuncture, the phlebotomist should immediately:

A) place the patient on the floor
B) run for a physician
C) release the tourniquet
D) hold pressure on the blood collection site

back 61

C) release the tourniquet

front 62

Hemolysis in collected blood can cause a falsely decreased value for:

A) hemoglobin
B) phosphorus
C) ammonia
D) total protein

back 62

A) hemoglobin

front 63

The EDTA blood collection tube must not be underfilled, since it has been shown to lead to:

A) high lithium levels
B) low hematocrit levels
C) low sodium levels
D) high blood cell counts

back 63

B) low hematocrit levels

front 64

What additive destroys the enzymes in the blood when the gray-topped tube is used to collect blood?

A) sodium citrate
B) sodium fluoride
C) sodium heparin
D) lithium heparin

back 64

B) sodium fluoride

front 65

Which of the following laboratory test results are affected most if the patient is not fasting?

A) cortisol
B) prothrombin time
C) glucose
D) AST

back 65

C) glucose

front 66

SPS tubes are used in the collection of:

A) clinical chemistry specimens
B) microbiology specimens
C) microscopy specimens
D) clinical immunology specimens

back 66

B) microbiology specimens

front 67

which of the following additives found in a royal blue topped blood collection tube

A) sodium citrate

B) ammonium heparin

C) lithium heparin

D)clot activator

back 67

D)clot activator

front 68

The yellow-topped blood collection tube has which of the following additives?

A) EDTA
B) sodium polyanethol sulfonate
C) trisodium citrate
D) lithium heparin

back 68

B) sodium polyanethol sulfonate

front 69

The safety butterfly blood collection system is frequently used with a needle gauge size of:

A) 21
B) 19
C) 18
D) 16

back 69

A) 21

front 70

For newborns, the penetration depth of safety lancets for blood collection must be:

A) 3.0 mm or less
B) 2.6 mm or less
C) 2.2 mm or less
D) 2.0 mm or less

back 70

D) 2.0 mm or less

front 71

Which of the following needle gauges has the smallest diameter?

A) 19
B) 20
C) 21
D) 23

back 71

D) 23

front 72

A blood cell count requires whole blood to be collected in a:

A) lavender-topped tube
B) gray-topped tube
C) green-topped tube
D) yellow-topped tube

back 72

A) lavender-topped tube

front 73

Which of the following tests usually requires blood collected in a tan-topped blood collection tube?

A) cortisol
B) CBC
C) lead
D) CK

back 73

C) lead

front 74

Which of the following is a commonly used intravenous device that is sometimes used in the collection of blood from patients who are difficult to collect blood by conventional methods?

A) BMP LeukoChek
B) BD Microtainer
C) butterfly needle
D) Seraket

back 74

C) butterfly needle

front 75

The color coding for needles indicates the:

A) length
B) gauge
C) manufacturer
D) anticoagulant

back 75

B) gauge

front 76

Which of the following anticoagulants is found in a green-topped blood collection tube?

A) EDTA
B) sodium heparin
C) sodium citrate
D) potassium oxalate

back 76

B) sodium heparin

front 77

Which of the following is an anticoagulant used in blood donations?

A) sodium citrate
B) citrate-phosphate-dextrose
C) ethylene-diamine tetra-acetic acid
D) lithium iodoacetate

back 77

B) citrate-phosphate-dextrose

front 78

The gold-topped blood collection tube should be gently inverted how many times after blood is collected?

A) 5 times
B) 8 times
C) 10 times
D) 12 times

back 78

A) 5 times

front 79

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for the sterile blood collection of trace elements and nutritional studies?

A) gold-topped tube
B) royal blue-topped tube
C) purple-topped tube
D) yellow-topped tube

back 79

B) royal blue-topped tube

front 80

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for the collection of blood for a DIFF?

A) royal blue-topped tube
B) purple-topped tube
C) gold-topped tube
D) light blue-topped tube

back 80

B) purple-topped tube

front 81

How many times should the lavender-topped blood collection tube be inverted after blood collection?

A) 5 times
B) 8 times
C) 10 times
D) 12 times

back 81

B) 8 times

front 82

Which of the following additives is not in a gray-topped blood collection tube?

A) sodium fluoride
B) sodium citrate
C) potassium oxalate
D) EDTA

back 82

B) sodium citrate

front 83

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for blood bank collections?

A) pink-topped tube
B) gold-topped tube
C) light blue-topped tube
D) royal blue-topped tube

back 83

A) pink-topped tube

front 84

Failure to act or perform duties according to the standard of care for phlebotomy is:

A) a battery
B) negligence
C) criminal action
D) slander

back 84

B) negligence

front 85

In legal cases, "what a reasonably prudent person would do under similar circumstances" refers to:

A) informed consent
B) implied consent
C) standard of care
D) bioethics

back 85

C) standard of care

front 86

When a phlebotomist gives aid during an emergency, he or she is usually protected through:

A) rightful action consent
B) CLIA
C) FDA
D) implied consent

back 86

D) implied consent

front 87

The federal law enacted that regulates the quality and accuracy of laboratory testing (including phlebotomy procedures) by creating a uniform set of provisions governing all clinical laboratories is referred to as:

A) HCFA
B) CLIA
C) FDA
D) The Joint Commission

back 87

B) CLIA

front 88

Which of the following agencies administers CLIA?

A) FDA
B) CMS
C) CPS
D) EPA

back 88

B) CMS

front 89

Which of the following branches of government writes laws that are called statutes?

A) judicial branch
B) U.S. Supreme Court
C) executive branch
D) legislative branch

back 89

D) legislative branch

front 90

CLIA is enforced by the:

A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
B) Centers for Disease and Prevention Control
C) Health Care Financing Administration
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

back 90

A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

front 91

Which federal law states that a laboratory with moderately complex or highly complex testing must have written policies and procedures for specimen collection and labeling?

A) FDA
B) CLIA
C) EPA
D) OSHA

back 91

B) CLIA

front 92

Which of the following has recognized rights for patients in health care organizations through "The Patient Care Partnership"?

A) CLIA
B) AHA
C) CDC
D) OSHA

back 92

B) AHA

front 93

Under which of the following concepts are the supervisors and directors of laboratories held liable for the negligent actions of their employees?

A) misrepresentation
B) res ipsa loquitur
C) respondeat superior
D) malice

back 93

C) respondeat superior

front 94

Which of the following is the best example of setting the standard of care for blood collection?

A) Southwest Regional Phlebotomists' Association
B) Texas Association for Clinical Laboratory Sciences
C) California Clinical Laboratory Association
D) The Joint Commission

back 94

D) The Joint Commission

front 95

Professional negligence in blood collection is the same as:

A) malice
B) malpractice
C) informed consent

back 95

B) malpractice

front 96

A patient's medical record can best be described as:

A) a legal document that provides a chronological log of care
B) a legal document that is available only to the patient's physician
C) the procedure for a selected care plan
D) public information that may be disclosed during a financial inquiry

back 96

A) a legal document that provides a chronological log of care

front 97

The Joint Commission is a(n):

A) proficiency testing agency
B) accrediting agency for health care facilities
C) agency that administers certifications
D) governmental agency that administers Medicare

back 97

C) agency that administers certifications

front 98

Which of the following terms refers to the speed and urgency of one's voice?

A) STAT
B) tone
C) pace
D) volume

back 98

C) pace

front 99

Which of the following terms refers to the intonation or pitch of one's voice?

A) STAT
B) tone
C) pace
D) volume

back 99

B) tone

front 100

What does the abbreviation ADA stand for?

A) American Diabetic Association
B) Association for Drug Assays
C) Association for Diagnostic Antibiotics
D) Americans with Disabilities Act

back 100

D) Americans with Disabilities Act

front 101

The space or distance between people during an interaction is called:

A) range of motion
B) area of definition
C) zone of comfort
D) safety zone

back 101

C) zone of comfort

front 102

What are "delta checks"?

A) competency checklists
B) manual recording system for laboratory results
C) QC that allows for detection of significant changes in laboratory results
D) QA methodology that allows for the monitoring of mislabeled specimens

back 102

C) QC that allows for detection of significant changes in laboratory results

front 103

The term Phlebotomy is derived fom Greek words that mean

a. droplet, vein
b. vein, cut
c. blood, droplet
d. red, blood

back 103

b. vein, cut

front 104

The terms venesection/venisection are synonymous with which of the following?

a. topside of vein
b. blood vein
c. phlebotomy
d. venous circulation

back 104

c. phlebotomy

front 105

Acute care refers to which type of hospital care?

a. nursing home
b. long-term
c. hospice
d. short-term

back 105

d. short-term

front 106

which agency oversees the categorization of laboratory tests according to the level of complexity and the risk involved for the patient if errors are made

A) the joint commission

B) CLIA

C) CDC

D) ISO

back 106

B) CLIA

front 107

which of the following is the medical specialty that pertains to the diagnosis and treatment of skin disoders?

a. dermatology
b. pathology
c. immunology
d. otolaryngology

back 107

a. dermatology

front 108

Which of the following specialties would relate to diagnosis and treatment of cancer?

a. dermatology
b. oncology
c. orthopedics
d. infectious diseases

back 108

b. oncology

front 109

Assessing a patient for a suitable vein to perform a venipuncture procedure is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

a. preexamination/preanalytical
b. examination/analytical
c. postexamination/postanalytical
d. notification/reporting

back 109

a. preexamination/preanalytical

front 110

Centrifugation of a blood specimen is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

a. preexamination/preanalytical
b. examination/analytical
c. postexamination/postanalytical
d. notification/reporting

back 110

a. preexamination/preanalytical

front 111

Performing a laboratory assay on a patient's blood specimen is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

a. preexamination/preanalytical
b. examination/analytical
c. postexamination/postanalytical
d. notification/reporting

back 111

b. examination/analytical

front 112

In which of the circumstances below is the phlebotomist likely to collaborate with the pharmacy?

a. when the patient is overly angry or agitated
b. when a patient requests a painkiller
c. when asked to collect specimens for drug monitoring
d. when looking for a suitable vein for the venipuncture procedure

back 112

c. when asked to collect specimens for drug monitoring

front 113

Which of the following aspects would do the most to promote a professional appearance in a patient care setting?

a. good posture and personal hygiene
b. quality control monitors
c. documentation procedures
d. use of a strong assertive voicea

back 113

a. good posture and personal hygiene

front 114

Which of the following is a test of moderate complexity

A) mononucleosis test

B) occult blood detection

C) urine pregnancy test

D) blood chemistries

back 114

D) blood chemistries

front 115

Among health care organizations, which of the following is a typical long-term facility?

a. nursing home
b. emergency care center
c. health and fitness club
d. county hospital

back 115

a. nursing home

front 116

Licensure typically refers to

a. providing up-to-date income tax records
b. maintaining all immunizations up to date
c. passing a state-required examination and/or continuing education
d. joining a professional organization

back 116

c. passing a state-required examination and/or continuing education

front 117

The term "right to know" refers to

a. keeping the patient's condition confidential while outside the health care organization
b. the patient's right to information about his procedures and who is performing them
c. accountability of the phlebotomist to know details of every clinical test
d. allowing employers to know personal details of each employee

back 117

b. the patient's right to information about his procedures and who is performing them

front 118

Which of the following is an important work-related characteristic that is helpful for phlebotomists?

a. a keen sense of direction
b. enjoying working with small objects
c. being very athletic
d. involvement in community activities

back 118

b. enjoying working with small objects

front 119

Which of the following is acceptable attire for a phlebotomist?

a. dangling earrings
b. necklace tucked inside a collar
c. fragrances and perfumes
d. long, polished fingernails

back 119

b. necklace tucked inside a collar

front 120

An XY pair of chromosomes means that the fetus will be a:

A) baby boy
B) baby girl
C) brown-haired child
D) fraternal twin

back 120

A) baby boy

front 121

The ________ hand should be used for a fingerstick, if possible.

back 121

nondominant

front 122

When performing a fingerstick, the puncture should be oriented ________ to or across the fingerprint ridges.

back 122

perpendicular

front 123

The most reliable labeling method for avoiding transcription errors in specimen collection is:

A) handwritten labels at the patient's bedside
B) bar-coded computerized labels
C) addressograph labels
D) none of the above

back 123

B) bar-coded computerized labels

front 124

The TAT refers to:

A) the time it takes for laboratory test results to be completed
B) the patient's temperature at 10:00 A.M.
C) transfusion-associated testing
D) delays due to transportation of a specimen

back 124

A) the time it takes for laboratory test results to be completed

front 125

Which of the following is a possible occurrence if a blood specimen tube for hematology tests is filled correctly but mixed too long or too vigorously?

A) Hemolysis will occur.
B) Hemoconcentration will occur.
C) Tiny clots will form in the specimen.
D) The specimen will be lipemic.

back 125

A) Hemolysis will occur.

front 126

Glycolytic action refers to:

A) hemolysis
B) hemostasis
C) breakdown of glucose
D) breakdown of hemoglobin

back 126

C) breakdown of glucose

front 127

Cooling a blood specimen causes:

A) slowing of metabolic processes
B) hemolysis
C) hemoconcentration
D) hemostasis

back 127

A) slowing of metabolic processes

front 128

Assays that require a chilled specimen include:

A) glucose, cholesterol, and prostatic-specific antigen
B) gastrin, ammonia, catecholamine, and lactic acid
C) tests for electrolytes
D) all hematology tests

back 128

B) gastrin, ammonia, catecholamine, and lactic acid

front 129

To chill a blood specimen as it is transported, the health care worker should use:

A) tepid water
B) a small freezer unit
C) icy water or commercial ice pack
D) blocks of ice

back 129

C) icy water or commercial ice pack

front 130

Specimens that require protection from light include those for:

A) CBC, diff, and platelet counts
B) PT and PTTs
C) bilirubin and vitamin B12
D) hormone analyses

back 130

C) bilirubin and vitamin B12

front 131

When designing a report form for laboratory results, what key elements would not be included?

A) patient and physician identification
B) date and time of collection
C) reference ranges
D) physician's home address and phone number

back 131

D) physician's home address and phone number

front 132

For specimens that require centrifugation, serum or plasma should be removed from the cells within what period of time?

A) 5 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 2 hours

back 132

D) 2 hours

front 133

How long does it usually take for a serum specimen (without additives) to form a clot?

A) 5-10 minutes
B) 15-20 minutes
C) 20-25 minutes
D) 30-60 minutes

back 133

D) 30-60 minutes

front 134

For children older than ________ year, a fingerstick is appropriate for blood collection.

back 134

1

front 135

If an incision for a heelstick goes deeper than ________ mm in a newborn, it can lead to osteomyelitis.

back 135

2.0 mm

front 136

________ blood is the specimen of choice for blood gas testing.

back 136

arterial

front 137

In the hospital, it is best to perform a blood collection procedure on a child in a ________ room.

back 137

treatment

front 138

Bedside testing is also referred to as ________, or point-of-care testing.

back 138

POCT

front 139

Diabetes mellitus is a disease in which the ________ cannot produce enough insulin.

back 139

pancreas

front 140

The abbreviation Na+ stands for ________.

back 140

sodium

front 141

PT stands for ________.

back 141

prothrombin time

front 142

Blood cultures are often collected from patients who have fevers of __________________ origin.

back 142

Unkown

front 143

The purpose of the ____________ is to test the efficiency of the body's insulin - releasing mechanism and glucose - disposing system.

back 143

GTT

front 144

ABG'S stands for

back 144

Arterial blood gases

front 145

A __________ is a artificial shunt in which the vein and artery have been fused through surgery.

back 145

Fistula

front 146

The _____ test is used as the gold standard in the diagnostic of cystic fibrosis

back 146

Sweat chloride

front 147

The term used for intoxicated driving is _______

back 147

DWI

front 148

A term used to mean after death is ________.

back 148

postmortem

front 149

________ is the same in all cells of the body.

back 149

DNA

front 150

________ should not be used to cleanse a venipuncture site if collecting blood for BAC.

back 150

isopropanol

front 151

5) A device used to test the breath of a suspected drunk driver is a ________.

back 151

breathalyzer

front 152

9) A decedent is a person who is ________, expired, or dead.

back 152

deceased

front 153

All hospitalized patients should have a ________ identification number.

back 153

unique

front 154

Every blood specimen should be treated as if it were hazardous or ________

back 154

infectious

front 155

The lavender-topped blood collection tube contains the additive ________.

back 155

EDTA

front 156

The brown- topped blood collection tube is used for ________ determinations

back 156

Lead

front 157

Sodium ________ is contained in green-topped blood collection tubes.

back 157

heparin

front 158

The ________ number indicates the diameter of the needle.

back 158

gauge

front 159

The most common butterfly needle sizes are 21- and ________ gauge.

back 159

23

front 160

The ________ provides a barrier to slow down venous flow for use in venipuncture.

back 160

tourniquet

front 161

Disposable, sterile ________ that are retractable are used to avoid bloodborne pathogen exposure.

back 161

lancets

front 162

For infants, a depth of less than ________ mm on heelsticks is recommended to avoid penetrating bone

back 162

2

front 163

Venous blood flow in the arm is from the wrist to the shoulder or __________.

back 163

Elbow

front 164

Arteries have (thicker or thinner) vessel walls than veins.

back 164

Thicker

front 165

What substance in RBCs is responsible for oxygen transport?

back 165

Hemoglobin

front 166

Lactic acid is produced in the _________.

back 166

Muscles

front 167

The "master gland" is the ________ gland

back 167

Pituitary

front 168

GTT stands for

back 168

Glucose tolerance test

front 169

Blood cell formation is called

back 169

Hematopoesis

front 170

a patient with an active TB infection is placed in a hospital room with _______ air pressure

back 170

negative

front 171

The ________ of transmission for the pathogen to pass directly from the source to the host is part of the chain of infection.

back 171

mode

front 172

For the chain of infection to occur, a ________ must be present.

back 172

pathogen

front 173

________ infections occur when the chain of infection is complete.

back 173

nosocomial

front 174

a computer keyboard is considered a _______ in health care facilities

back 174

fomite

front 175

standard precautions have been designed through the ______ to decrease the risk of transmission to microorganisms

back 175

CDC

front 176

_______ precautions reduce the spread of infections from agents such as rubeola

back 176

Airborne

front 177

Chemical compounds that are used to remove or kill pathogenic microorganisms are called ________.

back 177

disinfectants

front 178

Syncope is another term for

back 178

Fainting

front 179

When RBCs are lysed, hemoglobin is released and this results in ________.

back 179

hemolysis

front 180

Plasma cholesterol will be falsely ________ if the tourniquet pressure is too tight or prolonged

back 180

elevated

front 181

Veins ________ when blood is withdrawn too quickly or forcefully during venipuncture.

back 181

collapse

front 182

When a patient has "difficult" veins, what strategies, if any, can be used to improve the likelihood of a successful puncture?

A) slight rotation of the patient's arm to a different position
B) palpating the entire antecubital area to trace vein path
C) warming the site
D) all of the above

back 182

D) all of the above

front 183

If arm veins cannot be used for a venipuncture, the preferred alternative veins lie in the:

A) ankles or feet
B) anterior surface of the hand or wrist
C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist
D) earlobe

back 183

C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist

front 184

Where should the tourniquet be placed on the patient during the venipuncture procedure?

A) 1 inch above the venipuncture site
B) over the venipuncture site
C) 3 inches above the venipuncture site
D) 3 inches below the venipuncture site

back 184

C) 3 inches above the venipuncture site

front 185

During a typical venipuncture, the needle should be inserted at what angle to the skin?

A) 30 degrees or less
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 90 degrees

back 185

A) 30 degrees or less

front 186

During the venipuncture procedure, what should the phlebotomist do after the needle is inserted and blood begins to flow?

A) release the tourniquet
B) withdraw the needle
C) release the adapter
D) adjust the hub of the needle

back 186

A) release the tourniquet

front 187

When the evacuated tube method is used for venipuncture, select the correct order of collection for the following tubes: blood culture tubes, coagulation tube, and hematology tube. Choose the order of tubes by their color of closures.

A) light blue, lavender, yellow blood culture tubes
B) lavender, light blue, yellow blood culture tubes
C) yellow, blue, lavender blood culture tubes
D) light blue, yellow, lavender blood culture tubes

back 187

C) yellow, blue, lavender blood culture tubes

front 188

The term STAT refers to:

A) abstaining from food over a period of time
B) using timed blood collections for specific specimens
C) using the early-morning specimens for laboratory testing
D) immediate and urgent specimen collection

back 188

D) immediate and urgent specimen collection

front 189

Steps in the identification process should include:

A) checking the verbal identification with a room number
B) a three-way match with verbal, ID bracelet, and requisition information
C) a two-way match with the ID bracelet and the verbal confirmation
D) a four-way match with the doctor, verbal ID, ID bracelet, and bed number

back 189

C) a two-way match with the ID bracelet and the verbal confirmation

front 190

) If a patient is frail and has a tendency to faint, what equipment, if any, would be helpful in the specimen collection process?

A) a glass of juice
B) an oxygen mask
C) a recliner
D) a commercial warming device

back 190

C) a recliner

front 191

) If a patient has a bruise in the antecubital area of his right arm (his nondominant arm), what alternate site should be considered?

A) slight rotation of the patient's right arm to a different position
B) the edge of the antecubital area of the right arm
C) the antecubital area of the left arm
D) forget alternate sites and do a fingerstick on the right hand

back 191

C) the antecubital area of the left arm

front 192

One reason for hematoma formation during venipuncture is that the:

A) medial cubital vein is used
B) needle is parallel to the vein
C) needle is partially inserted in the vein
D) needle is too smal

back 192

D) needle is too small

front 193

How many more times should a phlebotomist try to perform a venipuncture on a patient if he has failed once already?

A) once
B) twice
C) three times
D) four times

back 193

A) once

front 194

Which specimen collection tube is commonly used for hematology tests?

A) EDTA
B) heparin
C) sodium citrate

back 194

A) EDTA

front 195

Which specimen collection tube is commonly used for hemostasis tests?

A) EDTA
B) heparin
C) sodium citrate

back 195

C) sodium citrate

front 196

Adding too much blood to a sodium citrate tube can cause:

A) shorter clotting time
B) elevated hemoglobin
C) elevated glucose value
D) WBCs to clump

back 196

A) shorter clotting time

front 197

When collecting a blood specimen with the butterfly method and PT and PTT tests are the only tests ordered, what is the correct procedure?

A) use a single serum tube with clot activator
B) collect a sodium citrate tube first, then EDTA
C) use a discard tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube
D) collect a single blue-topped tube

back 197

C) use a discard tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube