front 1 What type of evidence does criminalistics NOT include? A) Glass B) Blood C) Fibers D) Explosives E) Bones | back 1 E |
front 2 There are approximately ___________ forensic science laboratories in the United States. A) 100 B) 400 C) 1000 D) 50 | back 2 B |
front 3 A preliminary survey of the crime scene includes: A) A specialist, such as a bloodstain pattern analyst, examining the scene B) Notation of problem areas C) Detailed measurements of objects, persons, bodies, entrances, and exits at the crime scene D) Investigators obtaining a search warrant E) Photographs taken with and without a scale | back 3 B |
front 4 Which of the following does not affect transfer of evidence? A) Contamination of evidence B) The number of contacts C) How easily the item transfers D) How much of the item is involved in contact E) Form of evidence | back 4 A |
front 5 Evidence that is “irrelevant”— A) May be inadmissible B) Makes the existence of some fact, of consequence to the case, more probable than without the evidence C) Always contains the “forbidden inference” D) Is inadmissible | back 5 D |
front 6 Forensic entomology analysis in most likely found at a _________________. A) State Forensic Laboratory B) County Forensic Laboratory C) Local Forensic Laboratory D) University Forensic Laboratory | back 6 D |
front 7 What type of silica-based casting material is now more commonly used for impressions due to the quick drying time and ability to show more detail? A) Dental stone B) Hair Spray C) Plaster of Paris D) Clay E) Silly putty | back 7 A |
front 8 If a person tracks through wet paint, a ____________ impression is left in the paint and a ____________ impression is deposited further away on a clean surface. A) positive, negative B) negative, negative C) positive, positive D) negative, positive | back 8 D |
front 9 What is used to compare bullets to identify a firearm shot a particular bullet? A) Twist B) Striations C) Lands and grooves D) Extractor marks | back 9 B |
front 10 The ____________________ of metal atoms is disrupted when the surface is stamped with an alphanumeric die. A) Oxidation rate B) Atomic radius C) Stability constant D) Crystal structure E) Electrostatic charge | back 10 D |
front 11 In firearms analysis, "rifling" is: A) Present only on cartridges B) Microscopic striations on bullets C) Lands and grooves D) Present only on revolvers E) Present in all weapons | back 11 C |
front 12 What is used to do distance determination? A) Size of the bullet hole alone B) Quantity of bullet holes alone C) Bullet trajectory D) Gunshot residue pattern on the target E) Type of bullet used | back 12 D |
front 13 Which would be done first during an examination of forensic document? A) Handwriting analysis B) Ink analysis C) Paper analysis D) Document dating E) Fingerprinting analysis | back 13 A |
front 14 Which of the following examinations would be LEAST likely to be done by a firearms/toolmarks examiner? A) A determination of the distance of firing of a weapon B) Determination of whether a person recently fired a weapon C) Whether a pair of wire cutters was used to cut a particular wire D) Determination of whether a gun is capable of firing E) Comparison of bullets from a known source to an unknown source | back 14 B |
front 15 Which of the following is a public forensic lab in IN? B) Wolfe Technical Services C) AIT Labs D) University of Indianapolis Archeology and Forensics Lab | back 15 A |
front 16 What is the most important duty of the first responder to the crime
scene? | back 16 B |
front 17 The chain of custody: B) Applies only to trace evidence. C) Is both a document and a process that protects evidence against misuse and tampering. D) Stops when the evidence reaches the crime lab. E) Is a document that contains signatures of all the people that work in the lab. | back 17 C |
front 18 Which is an example of an ethical which a forensic scientist may be
confronted with while working in the crime lab? A) 1 and 3 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 2 D) 3 | back 18 B |
front 19 Quality assurance of forensic laboratories A) ASCLD B) ABC C) OSAC | back 19 A |
front 20 Quality assurance of individual forensic scientists A) ASCLD B) ABC C) OSAC | back 20 B |
front 21 Develops standard procedures in all forensic disciplines A) ASCLD B) ABC C) OSAC | back 21 C |
front 22 True or False: Forensic toxicology is the chemical analysis of blood types found in humans A) True B) False | back 22 A |
front 23 True or False: The chain of custody begins when evidence is collected at a crime scene A) True B) False | back 23 A |
front 24 True or False: Demonstrative evidence is not directly generated at a crime scene, but is created later to aid the trier of facts to understand the significance of real evidence A) True B) False | back 24 A |
front 25 True or False: the primary task of the first officer at the crime scene is to secure the scene and prevent destruction or altercation of the scene A) True B) False | back 25 B |
front 26 True or False: Locard's Exchange Principle is defined when two things come into contact and information is exchanged. A) True B) False | back 26 A |
front 27 True or False: the trier of facts is a person or persons who determine guilt or innocence in a trial A) True B) False | back 27 A |
front 28 T/F: Impression evidence is always patent or visible? A) True B) False | back 28 B |
front 29 T/F: a restored firearm (serial number) can be returned to its original owner. A) True B) False | back 29 B |
front 30 T/F: Document Examiners CANNOT determine the writers physical or emotional state. A) True B) False | back 30 A |
front 31 When must an autopsy be performed? A) Sudden, unexpected death B) Violent death C) Unattended/ suspicious death D) All of the above | back 31 D |
front 32 Anthropological Biological Profile components A) Ancestry B) Stature C) Age D) Sex E) All of the above | back 32 E |
front 33 Evidence of tampering with the position of a body after death can be obtained by evaluating the: a) rigor mortis. b) algor mortis. c) livor mortis. d) both B and C e) none of the above | back 33 C |
front 34 Rigor mortis refers to the: | back 34 B |
front 35 Settling of blood in the body after death A) Livor mortis B) Rigor mortis C) Algor mortis D) Pallor mortis | back 35 A |
front 36 Stiffening of the body after death A) Livor mortis B) Rigor mortis C) Algor mortis D) Pallor mortis | back 36 B |
front 37 Postmortem cooling of the body A) Livor mortis B) Rigor mortis C) Algor mortis D) Pallor mortis | back 37 C |
front 38 pinpoint hemorrhages found around the eyes, the lining of the mouth and throat, as well as other areas A) Pallor mortis B) Livor mortis C) Petechiae D) Rigor mortis | back 38 C |
front 39 The ____________ is the most difficult question to answer as a forensic anthropologist. A) Cause of death B) Manner of death | back 39 B |
front 40 Putrefaction and autolysis are two types of _____ processes. | back 40 B |
front 41 T/F: Putrefaction and autolysis are two grouped stages of decomp A) True B) False | back 41 A |
front 42 Which stage of decomp contains fresh, bloat, and active decay? A) Autolysis B) Putrefaction | back 42 A |
front 43 Which stage of decomp contains advanced decay and dry remains A) Autolysis B) Putrefaction | back 43 B |
front 44 Which of the following does not slow down the decomposition process?
| back 44 A |
front 45 T/F: Temperature is the most influential factor in determining PMI A) True B) False | back 45 A |
front 46 What is necessary to determine PMI? E) All of the above | back 46 E |
front 47 Stages of death: A) Pallor mortis, Algor mortis, Rigor mortis, Livor mortis, Putrefaction, decomp, skeletonization B) Pallor mortis, rigor mortis, Algor mortis, livor mortis, putrefaction, decomp, skeletonization C) Pallor mortis, Algor mortis, Rigor mortis, Livor mortis, decomp, Putrefaction, skeletonization D) Pallor mortis, Algor mortis, Livor mortis, Rigor mortis, decomp, putrefaction, skeletonization | back 47 A |
front 48 cause of death is the immediate cause of death A) Primary B) Secondary | back 48 A |
front 49 cause of death includes conditions that are not related to the primary cause of death but contribute substantially to the individual’s demise A) Primary | back 49 B |
front 50 How many instar (maggot) stages does a blow fly have? A) 4 B) 5 C) 2 D) 3 | back 50 D |
front 51 The stage of fusion of various bones within a skeleton can be used to estimate the _____________ of the decedent.a) occupation b) age c) race d) gender e) height | back 51 B |
front 52 What part of a decedent's body resists rapid decomposition and is used by forensic anthropologists to provide information about the decedent? a) bones b) cartilage c) soft tissue d) hair fragments e) teeth | back 52 A |
front 53 Characteristic markings on the skin caused from the discharge of a
firearm is known as: | back 53 D |
front 54 Used to determine age A) Long bones B) Pubic symphysis C) Pelvis D) Skull | back 54 D |
front 55 Used to determine ethnicity A) Long bones B) Pubic symphysis C) Pelvis D) Skull | back 55 B |
front 56 Used to determine height A) Long bones B) Pubic symphysis C) Pelvis D) Skull | back 56 A |
front 57 Used to determine sex A) Long bones B) Pubic symphysis C) Pelvis D) Skull | back 57 C |
front 58 What is not included in the taphonomic profile? A) perimortem injury B) original position of the body C) location of death D) manner of death | back 58 D |
front 59 What can a forensic entomologist determine in the event of a crime in which there are insects present?
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 4 C) 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 | back 59 D |
front 60 How is facial reconstruction used on unidentified skeletal remains? A) Location of the eye sockets B) As a major form of positive identification C) For media to show images of the remains D) To determine the ancestry of the remains | back 60 C |
front 61 Which of the following are all stages of death? A) Algor mortis, bloat, dry decay B) Autolysis, putrefaction, and skeletonization C) Putrefaction, decomposition and skeletonization D) Rigor and livor mortis and active and advanced decay | back 61 C |