front 1 Chapter 1 & 3 | back 1 Chapter 1 & 3 |
front 2 Microbes are NOT responsible for __________. | back 2 b. antibody production |
front 3 The cell theory states that __________ are made up of cells. | back 3 b. all living things |
front 4 In Pasteur's swan-neck flask experiment, the importance of the
S-shaped curves in the flasks was twofold. The curves allowed entry of
air but excluded __________. | back 4 d. airborne bacteria |
front 5 Pasteurization was first developed to kill __________ in
wine. | back 5 a. spoilage bacteria |
front 6 Robert Koch's studies on Bacillus anthracis established a sequence of
experimental steps to prove that microbes __________. | back 6 e. cause disease |
front 7 An exposure to __________ protects against infection with
smallpox. | back 7 a. cowpox |
front 8 Ehrlich searched for a/an __________ that would destroy a pathogen
without harming the infected host. | back 8 d. magic bullet |
front 9 How would you recognize an antibiotic-producing soil bacterium on a
plate crowded with other bacteria? The bacterial colony producing the
antibiotic would be __________. | back 9 b. surrounded by a clear area |
front 10 The usefulness of antibiotics is hampered by __________. | back 10 a. the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria |
front 11 All living organisms can be classified into three domains:
__________. | back 11 d. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya |
front 12 Which of the following is characteristic of bacteria? | back 12 b. Bacteria lack a membrane-bound nucleus. |
front 13 All of the following are eukaryotes EXCEPT __________. | back 13 a. bacteria |
front 14 A new microorganism has been isolated from hot springs in Yellowstone
National Park. It consists of single cells, which appear to lack a
nucleus. Chemical analysis shows the presence of both DNA and RNA in
the cytoplasm and pseudomurein in the cell wall. In which of the
following groups will this organism be classified? | back 14 a. Archaea |
front 15 Arsenic is a relatively common hazardous waste generated by smelting
processes and can contaminate soil and water surrounding smelting
facilities. A bioprocess using naturally occurring bacteria to remove
arsenic has been developed. This process is an example of
__________. | back 15 c. bioremediation |
front 16 Placing the DNA from an animal cell into the genome of a bacterium
will allow the bacterium to produce an animal product. This new piece
of DNA is referred to as __________. | back 16 d. recombinant DNA |
front 17 Which of the following properties are true of both bacteria and
viruses? | back 17 c. Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity. |
front 18 Which is NOT a characteristic of the normal microbiota? | back 18 a. regularly associated with disease symptoms |
front 19 Increased human exposure to new and unusual infectious agents in
areas that are undergoing ecologic changes accounts for the
__________. | back 19 a. emergence of new infectious diseases |
front 20 Mad cow disease is caused by a prion, which is an infectious
__________. | back 20 a. protein |
front 21 Overuse and misuse of antibiotics has __________. | back 21 d. selected for antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria and increased their frequency in both the hospital environment and the community |
front 22 Microbes are responsible for __________. | back 22 e. all of the listed tasks |
front 23 Which of the following is a scientific name? | back 23 a. Legionella pneumophila |
front 24 In the scientific name Escherichia coli, Escherichia is the
__________. | back 24 d. genus |
front 25 All life can be classified into three domains: __________. | back 25 b. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya |
front 26 Which of the following properties are true of bacteria but not
viruses? | back 26 c. Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity. |
front 27 Which of the following types of microorganism and its description are
NOT correctly matched? | back 27 b. protozoa—small animals |
front 28 An exposure to __________ protects against infection with
smallpox. | back 28 a. cowpox |
front 29 Which of the following fields of study and its example are NOT
correctly matched? | back 29 b. parasitology—study of HIV |
front 30 All of the following are examples of biotechnology EXCEPT
__________. | back 30 a. bread making with bacteria and fungi |
front 31 Mad cow disease is caused by a prion, which is an infectious
__________. | back 31 b. protein |
front 32 Which of the following is the most convenient and appropriate unit
for expressing the size of an average bacterial cell? | back 32 b. micrometer |
front 33 All of the following are visible through a compound light microscope
EXCEPT __________. | back 33 a. 0.02-μm ribosome |
front 34 Which of the following is NOT a type of a compound
microscope? | back 34 a. electron microscope |
front 35 Place these structures of the compound light microscope in the order
that light passes through them on the way to the observer's eyes: (1)
condenser, (2) ocular lens, (3) illuminator, (4) specimen, (5)
objective lens. | back 35 a. 3-1-4-5-2 |
front 36 Which of the following kinds of microscopy would be most appropriate
for viewing the shape and arrangement of pili or fimbriae on the
surface of a bacterial cell? | back 36 e. scanning electron microscopy |
front 37 Which of the following types of microscopy is most useful for viewing
the internal structures of unstained specimens? | back 37 c. phase-contrast |
front 38 In the Gram stain, if the decolorizing step is NOT performed,
gram-negative cells will appear __________ at the completion of the
staining procedure. | back 38 d. purple |
front 39 Acid-fast mycobacteria differ from non–acid-fast bacteria by the
presence of __________. In the decolorizing step of the acid-fast
stain, __________ is used. | back 39 a. waxy material in their cell walls; acid-alcohol |
front 40 The __________ charge of a basic dye adheres to the __________ charge
of bacterial cell surfaces. | back 40 b. positive; negative |
front 41 You are viewing a sputum smear that has been stained with an
acid-fast stain. On this smear you see 5-μm- long red cells. You can
conclude that __________. | back 41 e. there are acid-fast bacteria in the specimen |
front 42 Chapter 4,11, 12 | back 42 Chapter 4,11, 12 |
front 43 1. Spherical bacteria that divide and remain attached in chainlike
patterns are called __________. | back 43 d. streptococci |
front 44 Which of the following bacterial structures are necessary for
chemotaxis? | back 44 d. flagella |
front 45 Chemotaxis refers to the ability of microorganisms to
__________. | back 45 a. move toward or away from chemical stimuli |
front 46 All of the following are found in the cell walls of Gram-positive
bacteria EXCEPT __________. | back 46 b. lipid A |
front 47 Gram-negative cells contain a periplasmic space that is
__________. | back 47 e. rich in degradative enzymes |
front 48 Which of the following is NOT true of the Gram-negative outer
membrane? | back 48 b. It contains enzymes for energy synthesis |
front 49 Which of the following statements about a Gram-negative cell wall is
NOT true? | back 49 b. It has teichoic acids. |
front 50 A population of bacterial cells has been placed in a very
nutrient-poor environment with extremely low concentrations of sugars
and amino acids. Which kind of membrane transport becomes crucial in
this environment? | back 50 b. active transport |
front 51 Which of the following statements is true? | back 51 b. Endospores are extremely durable structures that can survive high temperatures. |
front 52 Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its motility? | back 52 d. Spirillum; axial filaments |
front 53 Some actinomycetes are similar to filamentous fungi because they
__________. | back 53 b. produce asexual reproductive spores |
front 54 Which answer is NOT true of bacterial photosynthesis and/or
photosynthetic bacteria? | back 54 e. Green nonsulfur bacteria use organic compounds as the source of electrons for reduction of carbon dioxide. |
front 55 A new microorganism has been discovered that resides in the mouths of
dogs. This microorganism lacks a nucleus, has a cell wall consisting
of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide, is
shaped like a corkscrew, and is motile by means of an axial filament.
This organism is most likely related to __________. | back 55 a. spirochaetes |
front 56 Which member of the gammaproteobacteria is a potential cause of
pneumonia and can be found in warm-water supply lines and air
conditioning cooling towers? | back 56 a. Legionella |
front 57 Which of the following bacteria are INCORRECTLY matched with gram
reaction and morphology? | back 57 b. Neisseria; gram-positive coccus |
front 58 Which of the following bacteria does NOT fix nitrogen? | back 58 e. Nitrobacter |
front 59 Which is NOT true of the rickettsias? | back 59 b. They reproduce by fragmentation. |
front 60 A bacterium isolated from the soil has the following characteristics:
it is a gram-negative straight rod, it is aerobic and motile, it
produces water-soluble pigment, and it readily grows on several common
laboratory media. Ribosomal RNA analysis places this bacterium with
the gammaproteobacteria. This organism is most likely in the genus
__________. | back 60 d. Pseudomonas |
front 61 Which of the following statements is NOT true of the genus Mycoplasma
? | back 61 c. They are obligate intracellular pathogens. |
front 62 Which of these bacteria is NOT associated with foodborne
illness? | back 62 a. Erwinia |
front 63 Enteric bacteria would most likely be found in which
environment? | back 63 c. intestinal tract of an animal |
front 64 Which of the following statements is true of members of the order
Lactobacillales? | back 64 c. They do not perform aerobic or anaerobic respiration. |
front 65 Which of the following is an example of a helical bacterium that does
NOT make a complete twist? | back 65 b. Helicobacter |
front 66 Which of the following is an endospore-forming bacterium? | back 66 a. Bacillus |
front 67 All of the following can form filaments EXCEPT __________. | back 67 d. Borrelia |
front 68 Enterics are __________. | back 68 d. facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative rods |
front 69 Which of the following genera contains organisms that are
psychrotrophic? | back 69 b. Listeria |
front 70 Which of these descriptive terms best fits organisms growing near
hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor? | back 70 b. hyperthermophilic |
front 71 In the 1990s a new parasitic helminth was described in a 3-year-old
boy. The only unusual part of his history was that he played in a shed
frequented by raccoons. To diagnose the child's behavioral changes and
loss of speech and motor skills, doctors did MRIs and CT scans. The
data collected from these scans suggested the presence of larval
helminths in his brain. Which of the following is the most likely
scenario? | back 71 c. Raccoons are the definitive hosts, and humans are accidental intermediate hosts. |
front 72 Which of the following is NOT true of the fungi? | back 72 a. They are strict aerobes. |
front 73 Fungi are __________. | back 73 c. chemoautotrophs |
front 74 Fungal spores __________. | back 74 d. are considered "reproductive" spores |
front 75 Algae differ from fungi in that algae __________. | back 75 a. are unicellular |
front 76 Which of these answers appropriately describes the symbiotic
relationship within lichens? | back 76 a. mutualism |
front 77 Cellular slime molds differ from plasmodial slime molds because
cellular slime molds ___________. A unicellular alga with cell walls
containing pectin and silica is isolated from coastal waters. It is
capable of photosynthesis and stores oil for energy. This alga is most
likely a __________. | back 77 b. have uninucleate cells; diatom |
front 78 Which of the following phyla does NOT contain members that cause
disease in humans? | back 78 d. All of the listed phyla include human pathogens. |
front 79 You are an epidemiologist studying an emerging disease reported over
the past 3 years in Wisconsin, Minnesota, and Michigan. You have
noticed a seasonal pattern of disease, with new cases appearing in
late April through September and peaking in July. No new cases appear
during late fall or the winter months. This pattern is suggestive of
__________. | back 79 d. Giardia disease transmission by an arthropod vector such as a mosquito or tick |
front 80 Chapter 5 | back 80 Chapter 5 |
front 81 Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? | back 81 b. oxidation; reaction in which electrons are gained |
front 82 Enzymes are important in living organisms because they
__________. | back 82 e. bring together reactants or properly orient a molecule for a reaction |
front 83 A coenzyme assists an enzyme by accepting or donating matter. What
does NAD+ transfer? | back 83 e. electron |
front 84 All of the following are required for the generation of ATP by
chemiosmosis EXCEPT __________. | back 84 c. conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid |
front 85 Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves __________. | back 85 c. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site |
front 86 In an enzymatic reaction involving oxidation of a substrate, which of
the following would be required? | back 86 c. NAD+ |
front 87 A Thiobacillus bacterium uses the Calvin-Benson cycle to reduce CO2
and the oxidation of sulfide ions for energy. This organism is a
__________. | back 87 a. chemoautotroph |
front 88 Heterotrophs use organic molecules as energy and carbon sources. To
produce five-carbon intermediates needed for synthesis of nucleic
acids, the cell utilizes the __________. | back 88 d. pentose phosphate pathway |
front 89 Streptococcus bacteria lack an electron transport chain. How many
molecules of ATP can a Streptococcus cell net from one molecule of
glucose? | back 89 b. 2 |
front 90 The proton motive force is __________. | back 90 d. the movement of water across a membrane |
front 91 Unlike chemiosmosis in eukaryotes, prokaryotes chemiosmosis
__________. | back 91 b. occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria |
front 92 Which of the following would you predict to be a feedback inhibitor
of the glycolytic enzyme phosphofructokinase? | back 92 c. ATP |
front 93 All of the following are potential end-products of fermentation
EXCEPT __________. | back 93 a. pyruvic acid |
front 94 Which one molecule could provide the carbon source, the energy
source, and the electron source for a chemoheterotroph? | back 94 e. glucose |
front 95 Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source? | back 95 e. photoautotroph; CO2 |
front 96 Organisms that use carbon dioxide as a carbon source and ammonia or
hydrogen sulfide as energy sources are called __________. | back 96 c. chemoautotrophs |
front 97 All of the following pairs are correctly matched EXCEPT
__________. | back 97 e. oxidation—reaction in which electrons are gained |
front 98 Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves __________. | back 98 e. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site |
front 99 Which of the following mechanisms does NOT generate ATP using an
electron transport chain? | back 99 a. substrate-level phosphorylation |
front 100 The complete oxidation of glucose in aerobic and anaerobic
respiration involves which three stages? | back 100 d. glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain |
front 101 Which of the following processes requires energy? | back 101 b. active transport |
front 102 Chapter 6 | back 102 Chapter 6 |
front 103 Bacteria growing in and on the human body, including normal
microbiota as well as pathogens, are classified as __________. | back 103 d. mesophilic and heterotrophic |
front 104 An organism displays some growth at 4°C and at 25°C. However, it
grows best at 20°C. This organism would be classified as a
__________. | back 104 c. psychrotroph |
front 105 Through metabolism, pathogens often produce acids that interfere with
their own growth. __________ are/is added to media to control pH
changes. | back 105 a. Buffers |
front 106 Which of the following terms are mismatched? | back 106 a. hyperthermophiles; 0 C |
front 107 When a bacterial cell reproduces by splitting into two daughter
cells, the process is called __________. | back 107 e. binary fission |
front 108 What do all of these bacteria have in common? | back 108 b. The bacteria are most likely growing in biofilms. |
front 109 Which of the following is NOT a chemical requirement of all
bacteria? | back 109 e. molecular oxygen |
front 110 An organism that grows both in the presence and the absence of oxygen
and uses oxygen when it is available is called a/an
__________. | back 110 e. facultative anaerobe |
front 111 A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef-heart extract
is a/an __________. | back 111 b. complex medium |
front 112 Members of the genus Clostridium display the following properties:
Gram-positive bacilli endospore formation anaerobic growth Which of
the following would be appropriate for the culture of members of this
genus? | back 112 e. both a blood agar plate in an anaerobe jar and sodium thioglycolate broth |
front 113 Chocolate blood agar is an enriched media (containing heated blood)
designed for the growth of Neisseria gonorrhea. Antibiotics are added
to suppress the growth of normal microbiota that may be found in
patient specimens, yet permit the growth of Neisseria gonorrhea. This
medium would best be described as __________. | back 113 c. selective media |
front 114 Niacin, when added to a medium, would be considered a/an
__________. | back 114 a. organic growth factor |
front 115 Which of the following is NOT a step in binary fission? | back 115 c. lysis of the existing cell wall |
front 116 If a single bacterium replicated every 30 minutes, how many bacteria
would be present in 2 hours? | back 116 c. 16 |
front 117 In which phase of the growth curve is the population-doubling time
fastest? | back 117 b. log phase |
front 118 During the lag phase, __________. | back 118 d. cells are engaged in intense enzymatic activity |
front 119 All of the following are true of the plate count method EXCEPT that
it __________. | back 119 a. takes less than 12 hours to complete |
front 120 Which of the following is NOT a method used for the direct
measurement of microbial growth? | back 120 c. turbidity |
front 121 Blood agar used to observe hemolysis or clearing around Streptococcus
pyogenes colonies is an example of a/an __________. | back 121 d. differential media |
front 122 Chapter 8 | back 122 Chapter 8 |
front 123 Which of the following statements is NOT true of base
substitutions? | back 123 c. Mutations rarely involve base substitutions. |
front 124 A frameshift mutation in a gene encoding a protein usually
__________. | back 124 d. results in the production of a nonfunctional peptide |
front 125 Which of these statements is NOT true of translation? | back 125 b. Each amino acid is coded for by a single codon. |
front 126 The chemical 5-bromouracil is a mutagen because it
__________. | back 126 b. is similar to thymine in structure but not base-pairing ability |
front 127 Assume a cell is grown in a culture medium containing radioactively
labeled thymidine. After three cell divisions, what percentage of the
cells would contain the radioactive label? | back 127 e. 100% |
front 128 Both transcription and DNA replication involve __________. | back 128 d. synthesis using a DNA template |
front 129 Which of these answers is NOT true for positive (direct)
selection? | back 129 e. The procedure detects altered genotypes regardless of the phenotype. |
front 130 Auxotrophs __________. | back 130 e. will not grow on a plate that lacks the growth factor, but will grow on a complete medium that contains the growth factor |
front 131 The Ames test is used __________. | back 131 d. to determine if a chemical is mutagenic and possibly carcinogenic |
front 132 Which of the following is NOT a step in translation? | back 132 d. joining of the Okazaki fragments |
front 133 Which of the following processes is involved in the production of
diphtheria toxin by C. diphtheria or erythrogenic toxin by
Streptococcus pyogenes? | back 133 a. transduction |
front 134 Your lab partner has mixed a dead tryptophan+ strain of Bacillus
subtilis with a live tryptophan– strain and observes that her B.
subtilis culture is now tryptophan+. The most likely explanation for
this is __________. | back 134 b. transformation |
front 135 When the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S portion of the
ribosome, the effect is to __________. | back 135 b. prevent the ribosome from moving along the mRNA strand |
front 136 Which of the following statements in NOT true of plasmids? | back 136 b. They are essential for survival of the organism in most situations. |
front 137 Consider the polypeptide sequence encoded by the following DNA.
TACAAAGAAATT If base number 6 is changed to G, how will this affect
the polypeptide? | back 137 e. There will be no change in the polypeptide |
front 138 In E. coli, Hfr cells __________. | back 138 a. can pass main chromosome genes to a recipient cell |
front 139 Which of these statements is true about transduction? | back 139 d. A virus is required for transfer of genetic material. |
front 140 In the lac operon of E. coli, __________. | back 140 e. the repressor protein binds to the operator in the absence of lactose |
front 141 Which of these statements is NOT true about DNA replication? | back 141 a. Only one strand of the parent DNA serves as a template for a newly synthesized complementary strand. |
front 142 Which one of the following is a method of vertical gene
transmission? | back 142 d. cell division |
front 143 Which of the following requires cell-to-cell contact? | back 143 b. conjugation |
front 144 Which one of the following would be the most likely to yield a
recombinant cell after mating? | back 144 c. Hfr cell transfers to F– cell. |
front 145 24.The major source of the genetic diversity among microorganisms
upon which natural selection operates is __________. | back 145 b. mutation |
front 146 Chapter 9 | back 146 Chapter 9 |
front 147 Which of the following is an example of a cloning vector? | back 147 b. plasmid |
front 148 Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT
________. | back 148 d. culturing unknown organisms |
front 149 The process of making multiple copies of a DNA molecule is referred
to as __________. | back 149 d. amplification |
front 150 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of obtaining the protein
product called human growth hormone by recombinant DNA technology
rather than extraction from cadavers? | back 150 e. production of endotoxins |
front 151 Which of these statements is true for restriction enzymes? | back 151 b. Restriction enzymes are useful in genetic engineering when they make staggered cuts in DNA. |
front 152 When two DNA pieces cut with the same restriction enzyme are
combined, sticky ends will __________. | back 152 d. associate by complementary base pairing and hydrogen bonds |
front 153 If DNA ligase were NOT used in the creation of a recombinant plasmid,
__________. | back 153 b. base-pairing would occur but the sugar phosphate backbone would not be connected |
front 154 A good cloning vector __________. | back 154 e. should have a gene or genes that allows for selection of transformed host cells |
front 155 Which of the following is NOT true of the polymerase chain reaction
(PCR)? | back 155 d. Large amounts of DNA must be isolated from the source organism. |
front 156 Which of the following is NOT a purpose of genetic
modification? | back 156 a. to remove antibiotic resistant plasmids from bacteria |
front 157 Recombinant DNA can be introduced into a host cell by any of the
following methods EXCEPT __________. | back 157 d. polymerase chain reaction |
front 158 For the introduction of a genetically modified plasmid into E. coli,
__________. | back 158 b. calcium chloride and heat shock can be used |
front 159 Which of the following statements correctly differentiates a genomic
library from a cDNA library? | back 159 b. A genomic library contains fragments of the entire DNA in an organism's genome. A cDNA library contains the coding sequences of eukaryotic genes (minus the introns). |
front 160 During the Southern blotting technique, what is the purpose of
transferring the DNA fragments from the gel to a nitrocellulose
filter? | back 160 e. This step attaches the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate, which then can be probed. |
front 161 An ampicillin-sensitive culture of E. coli is transformed with a
plasmid that contains the gene of interest plus an
ampicillin-resistant gene. If it is then plated on an
ampicillin-containing growth medium, __________. | back 161 c. only the bacteria with the plasmid will grow |
front 162 Which of the following might specifically be used as part of a
reverse-genetics approach to studying a gene? | back 162 b. RNA interference |
front 163 In the blue-white screening procedure, bacteria that are transformed
with recombinant plasmid and cultured in media containing ampicillin
and X-gal will __________. | back 163 c. produce white colonies |
front 164 Which of the following is NOT a step in Southern blotting? | back 164 d. addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase |
front 165 Genetic technology has enabled screening for a variety of genetic
conditions, and use of this technology is becoming more widely
available. Which of the following is likely to become an important
issue that will need to be addressed? | back 165 a. the need for legislation to protect the privacy of individuals' genetic information |
front 166 For Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be used to introduce foreign DNA
into a plant cell, that DNA must first be __________. | back 166 c. inserted into the T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid of A. tumefaciens |
front 167 Which of the following statements correctly differentiates
biotechnology and rDNA technology? | back 167 c. Biotechnology involves any use of microorganisms or cells to make products, regardless of the means used. rDNA technology involves the specific use of molecular |
front 168 The process of making multiple copies of a DNA molecule is referred
to as __________. | back 168 b. amplification |
front 169 In genetic engineering, antibiotic resistance genes are often cloned
into a vector to __________. | back 169 a. make direct selection of a clone possible |
front 170 Which of the following is NOT a purpose of genetic
modification? | back 170 e. removal of antibiotic-resistant plasmids from bacteria |
front 171 The following steps are necessary to clone eukaryotic genes in
bacteria. What is the third step? | back 171 d. splice exons together |
front 172 E. coli may pick up a recombinant plasmid from a solution by
__________. | back 172 d. transformation |
front 173 Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 173 e. culturing unknown organisms |
front 174 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of obtaining the protein
product human growth hormone by recombinant DNA technology rather than
extraction from cadavers? | back 174 a. production of endotoxins |
front 175 If you insert the gene for Bt toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis into
a tomato plant, the resulting plants will __________. | back 175 d. be toxic to insects that eat them |
front 176 Chapter 13 | back 176 Chapter 13 |
front 177 Viruses possess genetic material comprised of DNA or
__________. | back 177 a. RNA |
front 178 Which type of microscope is needed to view a virus in the
laboratory? | back 178 d. electron |
front 179 Which of the following are possible strategies for treating viral
infections? | back 179 d. blocking viral attachment to host cell receptors |
front 180 A double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus that contains reverse
transcriptase belongs to which family? | back 180 b. Hepadnaviridae |
front 181 Members of the Adenoviridae cause __________. | back 181 b. the common cold |
front 182 Which method cannot be used to culture viruses in a
laboratory? | back 182 a. nutrient agar culture media |
front 183 Cell lines derived from transformed (cancerous) cells are called
__________. | back 183 c. continuous cell lines |
front 184 During the bacteriophage lysogenic cycle, __________. | back 184 b. phage DNA is inserted into the host chromosome |
front 185 After the attachment and entry of a virus into a host cell, what is
the next step in the multiplication of | back 185 e. uncoating |
front 186 An example of a latent virus infection is __________. | back 186 a. shingles |
front 187 A virus may contain any of the following EXCEPT (a) __________. a. ribosomes | back 187 a. ribosomes |
front 188 Viruses that use RNA as a template for transcribing DNA include
__________. | back 188 a. Retroviridae |
front 189 All of the following are prion diseases EXCEPT __________. | back 189 e. Wiles-Davidoff syndrome |
front 190 Which of the following terms are NOT correctly matched? | back 190 e. Poxviridae; chickenpox |
front 191 In polio virus replication, the function of the antisense (– strand)
RNA is to __________. | back 191 e. serve as a template for the production of sense (+ strand) RNA |
front 192 How might a virus pick up a human oncogene? | back 192 a. specialized transduction |
front 193 Influenza viruses are classified according to their hemagglutin and
__________ proteins. | back 193 d. neuraminidase |
front 194 To what does the term viral species refer? | back 194 d. a group of viruses sharing the same genetic information and structure |
front 195 Which of these enzymes is necessary for the replication of a + strand
RNA virus? | back 195 a. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase |
front 196 Which of these statements is NOT true? | back 196 b. Attachment of animal viruses to host cells is random and nonspecific. |
front 197 Which of these processes of viral multiplication is most likely to
damage the host cell? | back 197 b. release of nonenveloped viruses |
front 198 Which of the following are possible strategies for treating viral
infections? | back 198 b. blocking viral attachment to host cell receptors |
front 199 The protein coat of a virus is called the __________. | back 199 c. capsid |
front 200 How would you know that viruses were multiplying in a confluent lawn
of E. coli on a solid culture | back 200 b. There would be small zones of clearing in the bacterial culture. |
front 201 What is the name given to the viral DNA incorporated into a lysogenic
cell? | back 201 a. prophage |
front 202 Chapter 14 | back 202 Chapter 14 |
front 203 Germ-free (gnotobiotic) animals often are more susceptible to
infections and serious disease than are animals with a typical
complement of normal microbiota. Based on this observation, which of
the following would be an appropriate conclusion? | back 203 e. Normal microbiota stimulate the development of the immune system. |
front 204 In a healthy human, resident microorganisms would be found in all of
the following areas EXCEPT the __________. | back 204 d. bloodstream |
front 205 Health care professionals who fail to use aseptic techniques can
cause __________. | back 205 a. nosocomial infections |
front 206 In the human intestinal tract, E. coli produces vitamins beneficial
to the host and can inhibit pathogen growth. In turn, the bacterium is
supplied with nutrients and an environment for growth. This symbiotic
relationship between E. coli and its host is an example of
________. | back 206 E. mutualism |
front 207 Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism
(also known as competitive exclusion)? | back 207 b. microbes producing vitamins and growth factors that can be utilized by the host |
front 208 An infection transmitted by a handkerchief or tissue is transmitted
by __________. | back 208 e. indirect contact |
front 209 Which of the following is NOT necessary to satisfy Koch's
postulates? | back 209 a. The organism must cause disease through toxin production. |
front 210 Following coronary artery bypass surgery, seven patients develop
Rhodococcus bronchialis infections. Cultures of the operating rooms,
Nurse A, and Nurse B are taken. R. bronchialis grows from the hand and
nasal swabs of Nurse A. The patients' infections are an example of
a/an __________. | back 210 d. nosocomial infection |
front 211 Women who have a healthy population of Lactobacillus spp. as part of
the normal vaginal microbiota are less likely to get yeast infections.
Which of the following terms is used to explain this
observation? | back 211 a. competitive exclusion |
front 212 The occurrence of streptococcal bronchopneumonia in an individual
recovering from influenza is an example of a __________. | back 212 b. secondary infection |
front 213 Infections in which the pathogen is distributed throughout the body
are referred to as generalized infections or __________. | back 213 b. systemic infections |
front 214 The presence of bacteria in the bloodstream is referred to as
__________. | back 214 a. bacteremia |
front 215 Which of these diseases does not have a human reservoir? | back 215 e. tetanus |
front 216 Which of these events is an example of contact transmission? | back 216 c. A person drinks from a cup used by another individual. |
front 217 Which of these disease stages is most likely to be altered in length
if the number of infecting organisms at the start of the infection is
very high? | back 217 a. incubation period |
front 218 Which of the following events does NOT occur in diseases transmitted
by vectors? | back 218 a. In biological transmission, the vector multiplies in the human host. |
front 219 Which of the following is the third stage of a disease? | back 219 b. period of illness |
front 220 The morbidity rate is best defined as __________. | back 220 e. the percentage of infectious diseases that are nationally notifiable |
front 221 19. Ingesting lactic acid bacteria to prevent colonization by
intestinal pathogens such as Salmonella enterica during antibiotic
therapy is an example of __________. | back 221 b. probiotics |
front 222 An example of descriptive epidemiology is __________. | back 222 John Snow's study of the London cholera outbreak from 1848 to 1849 |
front 223 The fungus Coccidioides immitis is found in the soil. Humans contract
coccidioidomycosis by inhaling fungal spores. Which of these terms
applies to the role of soil in transmission of
coccidioidomycosis? | back 223 b. Soil is the reservoir. |
front 224 Which of the following diseases does NOT share a commonality with the
others? | back 224 e. All of the listed diseases share a commonality; they are all zoonoses |
front 225 Which one of these diseases is noncommunicable? | back 225 d. botulism |
front 226 In order to understand the full scope of a disease, we take its
occurrence into account. The __________ of a disease is the number of
people in a population who develop a disease at a specified
time. | back 226 a. prevalence and b. incidence |
front 227 Chapter 15 | back 227 Chapter 15 |
front 228 1. Which disease is correctly matched with the common portal of
entry? | back 228 b. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract |
front 229 If a patient has a deep tissue infection as the result of an animal
bite on the arm, the portal of entry is described as the
__________. | back 229 e. parenteral route |
front 230 The ID50 for cutaneous anthrax due to Bacillus anthracis is 10 to 50
endospores, while the ID50 for inhalation anthrax is 10,000 to 20,000
endospores. This means that __________. | back 230 a. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax |
front 231 Which would be the most UNLIKELY location to find adhesin molecules
on a newly discovered bacterium? | back 231 c. ribosomes |
front 232 What cell structures does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and
enter host epithelial cells? | back 232 b. fimbriae |
front 233 Which of these conditions would NOT affect the ability of
Streptococcus mutans to attach to teeth? | back 233 c. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque |
front 234 Which of these statements is NOT true for bacterial capsules? | back 234 e. Immune system antibodies are not produced against a capsule |
front 235 Capsules play a role in the virulence of all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 235 a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
front 236 Which of these substances are most important in the establishment of
biofilms? | back 236 b. adhesins |
front 237 Which one of these pairs is NOT correctly matched? | back 237 d. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots |
front 238 Which of these eukaryotic molecules/structures can be responsible for
movement of bacteria within host cells? | back 238 e. actin molecules |
front 239 Which of the following statements is NOT true of A-B
exotoxins? | back 239 c. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria. |
front 240 The LD50 of Vibrio cholerae is 108 cells through the oral route. If
the bacterial cells are ingested with bicarbonate, the LD50 drops to
104. Which of these explanations is the most likely? | back 240 c. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. |
front 241 Which statement is true of endotoxins? | back 241 c. They are released upon cell lysis. |
front 242 A newly identified bacterial pathogen has been shown to cause disease
in humans, disrupting the production of some proteins by interfering
with the function of the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells. Under
specific growth conditions, this bacterial strain secretes a protein
that appears to be responsible for the pathology of the disease. This
protein is composed of two polypeptide chains, one of which binds to a
receptor on the surface of liver cells, stimulating the uptake of the
protein by endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the other polypeptide
component interferes with the activity of ribosomes bound to the
endoplasmic reticulum. This bacterial protein will most likely be
classified as a/an __________. | back 242 a. A-B toxin |
front 243 Which statement is NOT true of endotoxins? | back 243 c. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production. |
front 244 Which of these viral cytopathic effects is most likely to be
associated with the development of cancer? | back 244 a. loss of contact inhibition |
front 245 Which of these events leads to all of the others in a pyrogenic
(fever) response? | back 245 a. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. |
front 246 The pathogenicity of which of the following is NOT the result of
lysogeny? | back 246 d. Clostridium tetani |
front 247 Which of the following would be the most UNLIKELY location to find
adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium? | back 247 a. ribosomes |
front 248 Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? | back 248 e. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots |
front 249 Which of these effects is most likely to occur if a pathogen enters
the body by a portal of entry other than the preferred one? | back 249 b. A milder disease will result. |
front 250 Which one of the following virulence factors contributes most to the
spread of disease in the body? | back 250 a. hyaluronidase |
front 251 Based on the following LD50 values, which microbe is the most
virulent? Assume each bacterium enters through the appropriate portal
of entry. | back 251 a. Shigella: 10 cells |
front 252 Which of these is a cell wall component that contributes to
invasiveness? | back 252 a. M protein |
front 253 Which of the following diseases CANNOT be prevented by
toxoids? | back 253 a. Gram-negative septic shock |
front 254 Chapter 16 | back 254 Chapter 16 |
front 255 Which of these molecules or structures is/are NOT associated with
innate immunity? | back 255 c. antibodies |
front 256 The epidermis __________. | back 256 e. contains the protein keratin |
front 257 The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing
with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota.
This is likely because of __________. | back 257 c. microbial antagonism |
front 258 The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all
of the following EXCEPT __________. | back 258 e. the lacrimal apparatus |
front 259 Which of the following statements about sebum is NOT true? | back 259 d. It raises the pH of skin. |
front 260 One remarkable finding on a patient's laboratory workup is a marked
eosinophilia. This might be suggestive of __________. | back 260 d. an allergic (hypersensitivity) reaction |
front 261 Which of these structures are NOT part of the mononuclear phagocytic
system? | back 261 c. lymphocytes |
front 262 Which answer is NOT true for adherence of a phagocyte to a
microbe? | back 262 b. Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence. |
front 263 Which answer is true for bacterial destruction by
phagocytosis? | back 263 c. Myeloperoxidase in lysosomes is involved in the formation of HOCl. |
front 264 The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane
attaches to the surface of the microbe is called __________. | back 264 d. adherence |
front 265 Which answer is NOT true of the inflammatory process? | back 265 a. The area becomes red because of a decrease in capillary diameter. |
front 266 Which of the following statements is NOT true of
inflammation? | back 266 b. Many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation. |
front 267 Activation of the complement cascade __________. | back 267 b. can cause the infecting microbe to be killed by lysis |
front 268 Complement can be activated by all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 268 d. the presence of host tissue |
front 269 Which of the following statements is NOT true of nitric oxide
(NO)? | back 269 a. It is of little value in killing microbes or tumor cells. |
front 270 Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against the red blood
cells, and complement in a test tube. What would you expect to
see? | back 270 b. lysis of the red blood cells |
front 271 Which of the following statements is NOT true of the classical
pathway of complement activation? | back 271 d. C3 is the first component to be activated. |
front 272 Which of the following occurs first, setting in motion the remaining
events? | back 272 e. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages and dendritic cells attach to pathogen-associated microbial patterns (PAMPS) on invading microorganisms. |
front 273 Interferons ___________. | back 273 c. are host-specific but not virus-specific |
front 274 Which of these structures are NOT part of the mononuclear phagocytic
system? | back 274 e. lymphocytes |
front 275 All of the following cells demonstrate phagocytic activity EXCEPT
__________. | back 275 a. lymphocytes |
front 276 Which of these answers best describes the relationship between humans
and most of their skin and intestinal normal microbiota? | back 276 a. mutualism |
front 277 Histamine causes all of the following reactions. Which occurs
first? | back 277 b. vasodilation |
front 278 The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the
hypothalamus responding to __________. | back 278 a. interleukin-1 |
front 279 Propionibacterium acnes is norma True l flora of sebaceous glands of the skin. True or False | back 279 True |
front 280 Acne can be prevented with antibiotics. | back 280 False |
front 281 Chapter 17 | back 281 Chapter 17 |
front 282 1. Which of the following results in comparatively long-lasting
immunity? | back 282 a. A person survives an infectious disease. |
front 283 2. The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following
recovery from measles infection is called __________. | back 283 c. adaptive immunity |
front 284 HIV selectively destroys CD4 cells and as a result, a person with
AIDS is susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing
this, you can conclude that __________. | back 284 a. these viruses have T-independent antigens |
front 285 Cyclosporine is a drug sometimes used to prevent transplant rejection
after organ transplant surgery. This drug specifically disrupts
cell-mediated immunity by cytotoxic T cells. Which of these events can
be predicted based on this information? | back 285 b. Antibody production will NOT be disrupted in the recipient. |
front 286 Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against __________. | back 286 e. intracellular bacteria and viruses |
front 287 Which of these cell types is NOT involved in cell-mediated
immunity? | back 287 a. plasma cells |
front 288 Which of the following statements is NOT true of antigens? | back 288 b. They often have a molecular weight of less than 10,000. |
front 289 The most abundant Ig in the blood serum is __________. | back 289 d. G |
front 290 Which of the following statements is NOT of the IgA antibody
class? | back 290 b. It can trigger the complement cascade. |
front 291 Which of the following would be a possible consequence of a disorder
that selectively destroys the T regulatory cells in a patient? | back 291 e. autoimmune diseases |
front 292 Which of the following are NOT antigen-presenting cells ? | back 292 b. All of the listed choices are antigen-presenting cells. |
front 293 Which of these processes is in the proper sequence? | back 293 a. IgE is formed; antigen binds IgE; IgE binds to mast cells; mast cells bind to |
front 294 Which of these lists is in the correct order of
differentiation? | back 294 d. stem cells to B cells to plasma cells |
front 295 Which of these statements is NOT true of antibody molecules? | back 295 a. Antibody molecules can directly destroy antigens. |
front 296 A property of T cells, but not B cells, is their __________. | back 296 b. ability to form cells that directly kill virus-infected host cells |
front 297 Which of the following statements is NOT true for T helper
cells? | back 297 a. They lyse target cells. |
front 298 T cytotoxic cells __________. | back 298 b. recognize antigen presented by class II MHC molecules |
front 299 Which of these answers is a potential concern of using T-independent
antigens as vaccines? | back 299 c. These antigens will be ineffective in producing an immune response in infants. |
front 300 Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity __________. | back 300 d. is particularly important for killing microbes that are too large be destroyed by phagocytosis |
front 301 Which answer is true of the anamnestic response? | back 301 c. IgG predominates. |
front 302 Chapter 19 | back 302 Chapter 19 |
front 303 Which of the following statements is NOT true for type I
(anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions? | back 303 d. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved. |
front 304 What type of immunoglobulin binds to mast cells during an allergic
reaction? | back 304 d. IgE |
front 305 Which of the following is NOT a case of localized
anaphylaxis? | back 305 a. poison ivy rash |
front 306 Blood transfusion hypersensitivity reactions are examples of
__________. | back 306 b. type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity |
front 307 Although maternal–fetal incompatibilities are possible in the ABO
blood group, the incidence of adverse reactions in the fetus or
newborn is far less common than in the case of Rh incompatibilities.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation? | back 307 a. Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta. |
front 308 Which of the following diseases is a type III autoimmune
disease? | back 308 a. rheumatoid arthritis |
front 309 A patient with severe burns on her hands and arms has a skin graft
with skin taken from her upper thigh. This type of tissue transplant
is a/an __________. | back 309 a. autograft |
front 310 Following an organ transplant, therapeutic immunosuppression to
prevent organ rejection may be accomplished by any of the following
EXCEPT __________. | back 310 a. cyclosporine |
front 311 9. Which of the following is NOT an example of immunotherapy for
cancer treatment or prevention? | back 311 a. HAART for HIV infection |
front 312 10. Which type of graft will most likely cause hyperacute
rejection? | back 312 d. xenotransplant |
front 313 11. Which of the following is/are NOT a component of the HIV
virion? | back 313 e. DNA strands |
front 314 12. HIV can remain latent in the host cell by integrating its
reverse-transcriptase-produced DNA into the host chromosome, becoming
a/an __________. | back 314 a. provirus |
front 315 13. All of the following concerning the clinical phases of HIV
infection are correct EXCEPT__________. | back 315 c. phase 1: Kaposi’s sarcoma |
front 316 14. Which of the following could be predicted for an individual with
a mutation in the gene encoding CCR5? | back 316 a. resistance to HIV infection |
front 317 15. Which of the following predictions can be made regarding the
immune responses of individuals with AIDS? | back 317 c. They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens. |
front 318 16. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be similar to
AIDS in terms of the specific immunodeficiency? | back 318 b. DiGeorge syndrome |
front 319 Which is NOT a mechanism used in anti-HIV drugs? | back 319 d. inhibition of cell-wall synthesis |
front 320 Which of the following is NOT a common disease associated with
AIDS? | back 320 c. influenza |
front 321 19. The desensitization injections for allergy treatments are aimed
at producing __________. | back 321 d. IgG |
front 322 20. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, fetal red blood cells are
targeted for destruction by __________. | back 322 a. maternal IgG antibodies |
front 323 21. When will someone infected with HIV have the most viral particles
in his or her blood? | back 323 a. 1 to 2 months after the initial infection |
front 324 22. What causes the rapid decline in the HIV population in the blood
3 to 6 months after the initial infection? | back 324 b. The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV. |
front 325 23. Which of the following statements is NOT true for type I
hypersensitivity reactions? | back 325 c. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved. |
front 326 24. Immune complexes cause tissue damage by __________. | back 326 b. causing T cells to destroy self |
front 327 25. Which of the following promotes the development of self-tolerance
and prevents the eventual development of autoimmune diseases? | back 327 c. clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells |
front 328 26.All of the following are causes of immune deficiencies. Which one
is NOT a natural cause? | back 328 c. transplant drugs |
front 329 27. Incidence of which of the following cancers is now reduced by a
vaccine? | back 329 b. cervical cancer |
front 330 The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test
in people with prior sensitization due | back 330 False |
front 331 Chapter 20 | back 331 Chapter 20 |
front 332 1. You have a 200 mg/ml antibiotic solution. You prepare serial
dilutions (1:2, 1:4, etc.) of the antibiotic; the first tube contains
100 mg/ml. You then inoculate each tube with Salmonella. Bacteria grow
in tubes 4, 5, and 6. You subculture bacteria from tubes 1 through 3
to nutrient broth. Growth occurs in the tube 3 subculture. You can
conclude that the MIC is __________. | back 332 e. none of the listed choices |
front 333 An antimicrobial drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is most
likely to be effective against __________. | back 333 d. gram-positive bacteria |
front 334 Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein
synthesis? | back 334 d. streptomycin |
front 335 You are reviewing the following results of a disk- diffusion
antibiotic susceptibility test on an isolate of Staphylococcus
aureus: | back 335 e. The correct answer cannot be determined from the information provided |
front 336 Which antimicrobial works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic
acid? | back 336 c. isoniazid |
front 337 Which of the following antibiotics is a common choice to treat
streptococcal infections in children? | back 337 a. erythromycin |
front 338 Which of the following antibiotics inhibits folic acid
synthesis? | back 338 d. sulfanilamide |
front 339 Which of the following drugs inhibits the synthesis of mRNA in
bacteria? | back 339 b. rifampin |
front 340 Which of the following antibiotics is frequently used as an
alternative for those who are allergic to penicillin? | back 340 b. erythromycin |
front 341 Which of the following types of antibiotics is most likely to be
associated with the development of a superinfection? | back 341 b. broad-spectrum antibiotics |
front 342 Which drug would be used to treat athlete's foot? | back 342 b. clotrimazole |
front 343 Which antifungal drug was recently introduced to treat systemic
fungal infections? | back 343 c. posaconazole |
front 344 Tetracyclines are effective against all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 344 e. fungi |
front 345 A nucleoside analog used to treat HIV infection is
__________. | back 345 a. zidovudine |
front 346 All of the following are antiprotozoan drugs EXCEPT
__________. | back 346 e. mebendazole |
front 347 Which drug is NOT a nucleoside analog? | back 347 a. nevirapine |
front 348 Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of
malaria? | back 348 b. chloroquine |
front 349 The drug Flagyl is commonly used to treat an STD caused by
__________. | back 349 d. Trichomonas vaginalis |
front 350 Which of the following mechanisms is antifungal? | back 350 d. inhibit ergosterol synthesis |
front 351 Which of the following is used for treating influenza
infections? | back 351 b. oseltamivi |
front 352 Clindamycin binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit
translocation. This antibiotic stops __________. | back 352 d. translation in prokaryotes |
front 353 Which of the following statements about antibiotics is true? | back 353 d. Most of our antibiotics are produced by Streptomyces, a genus of filamentous soil bacteria. |
front 354 A drug that binds with sterols would injure __________. | back 354 b. eukaryotic plasma membranes |
front 355 The method of action of nucleoside analogs is __________. | back 355 a. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis |
front 356 The mode of action for erythromycin is __________. | back 356 b. inhibition of protein synthesis |
front 357 What is the mechanism of the resistance of MRSA to
methicillin? | back 357 c. alteration of the target molecule |
front 358 Chapter 21 | back 358 Chapter 21 |
front 359 Which of the following is NOT normal skin microbiota? | back 359 a. Streptococcus |
front 360 What do the following diseases have in common? | back 360 c. They are all caused by exotoxins produced by strains of Staphylococcus aureus. |
front 361 Which microorganism is responsible for otitis externa? | back 361 e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
front 362 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
Streptococcus? | back 362 b. coagulase-positive |
front 363 Place the following infections in order of increasing tissue
involvement and
severity: | back 363 a. 2, 4, 3, 1 |
front 364 Which of the following may produce infections of the skin with
blue-green pus? | back 364 c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
front 365 Warts are generally caused by __________. | back 365 c. papillomavirus |
front 366 All of the following are characteristics of the varicella-zoster
virus EXCEPT __________. | back 366 a. benign skin growths |
front 367 Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1? | back 367 a. canker sores |
front 368 Which of the following is NOT a possible result of rubeola? | back 368 d. shingles |
front 369 All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT __________. | back 369 b. Propionibacterium |
front 370 Sporotrichosis is the most common type of __________. | back 370 d. subcutaneous mycoses |
front 371 Which of the following is NOT associated with Candida
albicans? | back 371 d. susceptibility to penicillin |
front 372 Which of the following would be the most appropriate way of testing
whether a skin lesion is caused by a dermatophyte? | back 372 a. culture scrapings of the lesion periphery on Sabouraud’s agar |
front 373 Ringworm is caused by a/an __________. | back 373 a. fungus |
front 374 Which of the following statements is true regarding chickenpox and
shingles? | back 374 b. A child who is not immune to chickenpox may get it following exposure to a patient with shingles. |
front 375 Which of the following is NOT a treatment for papillomas? | back 375 b. acyclovir treatment |
front 376 Which enzyme is NOT produced by deep-tissue streptococcal
infections? | back 376 b. coagulase |
front 377 Measles can potentially be eradicated because __________. | back 377 d. humans are the only reservoir, and vaccination is effective |
front 378 Which of the following is a eukaryotic pathogen that infects the
eye? | back 378 c. Acanthamoeba |
front 379 Chapter 22 | back 379 Chapter 22 |
front 380 Consider the following three common agents of bacterial meningitis:
Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus
influenzae type B. Which of the following would be most helpful in
differentiating these three agents? | back 380 a. Gram-stain morphology |
front 381 The current first choice of antibiotic for bacterial meningitis is
__________. | back 381 b. cephalosporin |
front 382 Vaccination is recommended to prevent epidemic meningitis among
college students and military recruits resulting from infection with
__________. | back 382 c. Neisseria meningitidis |
front 383 The most important element in the pathogenicity of S. pneumoniae is
__________. | back 383 c. the capsule |
front 384 The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis requires a sample of
__________. | back 384 e. cerebrospinal fluid |
front 385 Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a prion? | back 385 a. African sleeping sickness |
front 386 Treatment for rabies exposure requires __________. | back 386 a. injections of antirabies vaccine and immune globulin |
front 387 Which disease may be transmitted by contaminated dairy
products? | back 387 d. listeriosis |
front 388 Which of the following statements is NOT true about botulism? | back 388 a. Antibiotics are the first choice of treatment. |
front 389 Which of the following is used to diagnose West Nile
encephalitis? | back 389 a. ELISA test for IgM antibodies |
front 390 Reservoirs for rabies include all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 390 c. mosquitoes |
front 391 Which of these vaccines has actually been implicated in causing the
disease it is designed to prevent? | back 391 d. Sabin oral polio vaccine |
front 392 A migrant farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing
early symptoms of tetanus. He indicates that he had received a
puncture wound in his hand a week before the onset of symptoms. When
asked about vaccination or booster, he did not know whether he had
ever been vaccinated. Which of the following should be administered to
the patient as soon as possible? | back 392 a. tetanus immune globulin |
front 393 A 10-month-old infant has become constipated and demonstrates
muscular weakness by her inability to sit up or crawl. Her muscle tone
is continuing to deteriorate, and she is beginning to have difficulty
holding her head up. While questioning her mother to get more
information, the doctor noted that the infant's cereal had been
sweetened with honey for the last 10 days. What is a likely
diagnosis? | back 393 a. infant botulism |
front 394 What is the best way to control West Nile encephalitis? | back 394 b. Eliminate the vector. |
front 395 Which method is best for controlling African trypanosomiasis? | back 395 a. Control the vector. |
front 396 An otherwise healthy 19-year-old college student was admitted to the
emergency room with a fever, bad headache, and a stiff neck, symptoms
suggestive of meningitis. A spinal tap was done. The CSF was cloudy,
and the cell count on the fluid was 500 WBC/ml. The differential WBC
count of the CSF showed predominantly neutrophils. The CSF glucose was
decreased, and the CSF protein was elevated. The Gram stain showed
gram-negative diplococci. The most likely etiologic agent is
__________. | back 396 a. Neisseria meningitidis |
front 397 Naegleria encephalitis is commonly acquired by __________. | back 397 a. children swimming in ponds and streams |
front 398 Which of these statements is true concerning foodborne botulism in
older children and adults? | back 398 a. Disease results from consuming botulism toxin in improperly preserved foods. |
front 399 Which of the following begins as a lung infection but may cause
meningitis in immunosuppressed individuals? | back 399 a. cryptococcosis |
front 400 Drugs used to treat encephalitis must __________. | back 400 c. be lipid soluble |
front 401 Which of the following microorganisms is NOT a bacterial cause of
meningitis? | back 401 a. Cryptococcus neoformans |
front 402 Which if the following diseases is caused by the toxin released by a
bacterium? | back 402 c. botulism |
front 403 Which one of the following diseases is transmitted by a
vector? | back 403 a. African trypanosomiasis |
front 404 A postmortem examination of a brain shows spongelike degeneration.
This is most likely a case of __________. | back 404 c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease |
front 405 Chapter 23 | back 405 Chapter 23 |
front 406 Which disease is NOT caused by an obligatory intracellular
bacterium? | back 406 a. Lyme disease |
front 407 A hyperbaric chamber is sometimes used to treat wounds infected with
__________. | back 407 e. Clostridium perfringens |
front 408 The CDC recommends that pregnant women be tested and offered
antibiotic therapy before delivery if they are vaginal carriers of
__________. | back 408 b. Streptococcus agalactiae |
front 409 Why do antibiotics sometimes aggravate septic shock? | back 409 d. Antibiotics may cause the lysis of more bacteria and the release of more endotoxin. |
front 410 A 24-year-old woman in Minnesota complained of a flu like illness
accompanied by a high fever and headache a week after being bitten by
a tick. During examination of a blood smear, it was noted that some of
her monocytes contained clumps of tiny bacteria (morulae). What is the
most likely diagnosis? | back 410 b. human granulocytic anaplasmosis |
front 411 Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched to its
vector? | back 411 d. Babesia microti; flea |
front 412 Tularemia can be contracted by humans by all of the following methods
EXCEPT __________. | back 412 a. infection with Epstein-Barr virus |
front 413 Which of the following statements is NOT true of brucellosis? | back 413 b. Transmission occurs via mosquitoes. |
front 414 Most cases of Burkitt’s lymphoma occur in individuals who are
infected with EB virus and __________. | back 414 b. Plasmodium species |
front 415 Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match? | back 415 e. Leishmania spp.; water |
front 416 Which of the following is frequently the cause of infection following
animal bites? | back 416 e. Pasteurella multocida |
front 417 Most naturally occurring anthrax infections are __________. | back 417 b. cutaneous infections from endospore entry at a skin lesion |
front 418 A man found living in a rat-infested building develops a high fever
and swollen lymph nodes, called buboes, in the armpit and groin. A
gram-negative bacillus is isolated from the patient, and the rats are
found to be infested with Xenopsylla cheopis. What is the
disease? | back 418 a. bubonic plague |
front 419 A patient has flulike symptoms and a bull's-eye rash on his leg.
Investigation reveals that he had been hiking in Connecticut and was
bitten by two ticks. What is the diagnosis? | back 419 e. Lyme disease |
front 420 Which of the following statements is NOT true of yellow
fever? | back 420 b. Burkitt's lymphoma may develop. |
front 421 A Nigerian tourist is hospitalized with a fever and chills that occur
in 48-hour cycles. A blood smear reveals circular rings within the
erythrocytes. What is the treatment of choice for this
patient? | back 421 d. chloroquine |
front 422 Swimmer's itch is caused by __________. | back 422 c. larvae of schistosomes |
front 423 The symptoms of schistosomiasis are due primarily to
__________. | back 423 c. eggs deposited by adult worms in host tissue |
front 424 A 34-year-old Caucasian male is being examined in the emergency room
of a Boston hospital, complaining of a high fever and severe muscle
pain and joint pain. He returned to Boston two days ago, after
spending 10 days traveling throughout Brazil on business. He indicated
that he was bitten by mosquitoes several times while on the trip.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | back 424 e. dengue fever |
front 425 Toxoplasmosis is most commonly contracted by __________. | back 425 d. contact with cat feces |
front 426 All of the following are defensive cells associated with the lymph
nodes | back 426 c. T lymphocytes |
front 427 A slaughterhouse worker develops fever and chills, with the fever
reaching a high of 40°C each evening. Oxidase-positive, gram-negative
coccobacilli are isolated from a lesion on his arm. What is your
diagnosis? | back 427 d. brucellosis |
front 428 A patient is hospitalized with fever, headache, jaundice, and rash.
Spirochetes are observed in her blood. What is your diagnosis? | back 428 a. relapsing fever |
front 429 Which one of these diseases has the highest incidence in the United
States? | back 429 a. CMV (cytomegalovirus) infection |
front 430 A microorganism has just been introduced to a point below the dermis
of the foot via the parenteral route. It is in the interstitial fluid
and will eventually become engulfed by a fixed macrophage in an
inguinal lymph node. What is the next location it will travel to after
leaving the interstitial fluid? | back 430 d. lymph capillary |
front 431 Chapter 24 | back 431 Chapter 24 |
front 432 One of the most serious infections of the upper respiratory system is
__________. | back 432 d. epiglottitis |
front 433 One of the most important reasons to diagnose and treat strep throat
is that __________. | back 433 d. untreated strep throat may contribute to the development of rheumatic fever |
front 434 Which of the following statements is NOT true of diphtheria? | back 434 d. It is readily treated with antibiotics. |
front 435 Haemophilus influenzae can cause all of the following respiratory
infections EXCEPT __________. | back 435 c. influenza |
front 436 All of the following cause lower respiratory tract infections EXCEPT
__________. | back 436 a. rhinovirus |
front 437 Pertussis is characterized by __________. | back 437 d. a whooping type cough |
front 438 An effective vaccine does NOT exist for the common cold, because
__________. | back 438 d. there are likely over 200 agents that cause the common cold |
front 439 Which of the following best describes why antibiotic administration
is inappropriate for most of the common upper respiratory tract
infections? | back 439 e. Most are caused by viruses |
front 440 A physician receives a lab report indicating that acid-fast bacilli
were found in sputum from a patient with a lower respiratory tract
infection. The physician suspects __________. | back 440 e. tuberculosis |
front 441 An 8-week-old infant has been brought to the ER because of difficulty
breathing. Chest sounds and a chest X-ray indicate an acute
bronchiolitis. Oxygen saturation is poor. What is the most likely
diagnosis? | back 441 b. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) |
front 442 Which of the following statements is NOT true of
tuberculosis? | back 442 b. Infection has been greatly reduced because of mass immunization. |
front 443 If a patient has a positive tuberculin skin test, it means that
__________. | back 443 e. All of the listed choices are possible regarding a patient with a positive tuberculin skin test. |
front 444 An outbreak of pneumonia occurs in a wing of a hospital housing
kidney-transplant patients. The source of infection is traced to the
water supply of the air conditioner. This case describes transmission
of which of the following? | back 444 c. Legionella pneumophila |
front 445 The frequency of influenza epidemics is associated with the
__________. | back 445 c. frequency of mutations in viral genes for envelope spikes |
front 446 A 90-year-old patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. Microscopic
examination shows a bacterial agent that lacks cell walls. What is the
etiological cause of the patient’s pneumonia? | back 446 b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
front 447 The DTaP immunization is for __________. | back 447 b. diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis |
front 448 Which of the following descriptions does NOT pertain to mycoplasmal
pneumonia? | back 448 c. usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence |
front 449 An 85-year-old man has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats,
and a dry cough for several months; recently, he has begun coughing up
sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing
some white spots on his lungs, an AFB stain and culture were ordered,
and both were positive for the presence of AFB. He has been PPD
positive since his twenties. Which of the following most accurately
describes his current situation? | back 449 a. reactivation tuberculosis |
front 450 A patient has a rapid onset of fever, chills, labored breathing, and
sore throat. He recently returned from Mexico, where he drank local
water and stayed in an air-conditioned room. Several weeks ago, he
purchased a parrot. After a physical exam, his physician prescribes
tetracycline. What is the cause of the patient's illness? | back 450 a. Chlamydia psittaci |
front 451 Some respiratory diseases are best diagnosed by a gram-stained smear
and/or culture, while others are best diagnosed by specific antigen
testing or by detecting IgM antibodies. Which of the following
respiratory diseases is best diagnosed by doing a specific IgM
titer? | back 451 a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
front 452 All of these statements are true of tuberculosis EXCEPT: | back 452 a. infection has been greatly reduced due to mass immunization. |
front 453 All of these descriptions pertain to Mycoplasmal pneumonia EXCEPT
that __________. | back 453 a. it is usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence |
front 454 All of these statements are true of diphtheria EXCEPT: | back 454 b. it is prevented by immunization with diphtheria toxoid. |
front 455 An 81-year-old female has a mass in her lower-left lung. Her
tuberculin skin test is negative. Microscopic examination of her lung
biopsy reveals large, ovoid cells. The patient has __________. | back 455 a. histoplasmosis |
front 456 Which of these answers describes normal microbiota of the respiratory
system? | back 456 a. The normal microbiota does not include potentially pathogenic microorganisms. |
front 457 A 35-year-old male is hospitalized for cough, fever, and shortness of
breath. He is HIV-positive. Bronchial washings reveal cysts. What is
the etiology? | back 457 a. Pneumocystis |
front 458 The following sequence occurs during the initiation of tuberculosis.
What is the first step? | back 458 d. Mycobacteria reproduce in macrophages. |
front 459 Chapter 25 | back 459 Chapter 25 |
front 460 Which of the following does NOT pertain to dental caries? | back 460 d. Normal mouth microbiota act as first-line nonspecific defenses. |
front 461 Which of the following does NOT pertain to Streptococcus
mutans? | back 461 c. Cells lyse on contact with fluoride. |
front 462 You see flagellated cells in a microscopic examination of feces from
a patient with diarrhea. You conclude that the etiology
is__________. | back 462 b. Giardia |
front 463 Which of the following does NOT pertain to Staphylococcus aureus,
which causes food poisoning? | back 463 d. It is transmitted by contaminated drinking water. |
front 464 Bacillary dysentery __________. | back 464 e. is caused by members of the Shigella genus |
front 465 Beef is checked for cysticerci to prevent transmission of
__________. | back 465 b. Taenia saginata |
front 466 Staphylococcal food poisoning is most likely to result from
__________. | back 466 a. consumption of staphylococcal enterotoxin in potato salad that has been |
front 467 Which of the following is NOT characteristic of mumps? | back 467 d. It is spread via the fecal-oral route. |
front 468 Which of the following is NOT true of salmonellosis? | back 468 c. Antibiotic therapy is required for all patients. |
front 469 All of the following cause diarrhea EXCEPT __________. | back 469 e. Enterobius vermicularis |
front 470 Which of the following can be prevented by cooking food? | back 470 e. All of the listed choices can be prevented by cooking food. |
front 471 Which of the following is NOT true of typhoid fever? | back 471 c. Fluid and electrolyte replacement are the primary treatments. |
front 472 The majority of traveler's diarrhea cases are caused by
__________. | back 472 b. Escherichia coli |
front 473 Which of the following does NOT pertain to E. coli? | back 473 a. All pathogenic strains invade mucosal cells and cause lesions. |
front 474 Which answer is true of hepatitis A but NOT hepatitis B? | back 474 c. fecal-oral; spread via water and food |
front 475 Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match? | back 475 a. hepatitis A; chronic form of hepatitis |
front 476 An epidemiologist is involved in a hepatitis outbreak in a community.
She traces the source of all cases to food served in a local
restaurant. What health recommendations should be made to customers
who ate at the restaurant? | back 476 a. Customers should be offered passive immunization with immune globulin. |
front 477 An open cut on a dental hygienist's hand is exposed to blood from a
patient's mouth. All of the following are potentially bloodborne
pathogens to which she may have been exposed EXCEPT
__________. | back 477 a. hepatitis A |
front 478 Some gastrointestinal diseases are diagnosed using a culture, others
by direct antigen detection methods, and still others by measuring a
specific IgM titer. Which of the following diseases is detected by
doing an IgM titer? | back 478 a. hepatitis A |
front 479 Diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile __________. | back 479 d. can result in life-threatening inflammation of the colon |
front 480 Chapter 26 | back 480 Chapter 26 |
front 481 Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match? | back 481 b. cystitis; inflammation of urethra |
front 482 Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to urinary tract
infections (UTIs)? | back 482 b. They typically begin in kidneys and descend to the bladder and urethra. |
front 483 Which microorganism is responsible for approximately 75% of all UTIs
and half of the nosocomial infections of the urinary tract? | back 483 a. Escherichia coli |
front 484 A 22-year-old female college student visits the campus health center,
complaining of low pelvic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. A clean-catch
urine specimen is collected and upon culture, it grows more than
100,000 colony-forming units per millimeter of a catalase-positive,
coagulase-negative, gram-positive cocci. What is the most likely
identification of this etiologic agent? | back 484 a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus |
front 485 Non-gonococcal urethritis is commonly caused by __________. | back 485 a. Chlamydia trachomatis |
front 486 Which of the following does NOT pertain to leptospirosis? | back 486 c. Penicillin A is the preferred drug for treatment. |
front 487 Which of the following does NOT pertain to vaginitis? | back 487 c. always sexually transmitted |
front 488 All of the following are potentially predisposing conditions for
vaginitis EXCEPT __________. | back 488 b. a vaginal pH of 4.5 or lower |
front 489 A clinical microbiologist detects clue cells from a vaginal swab of a
patient. These cells are diagnostic of infection associated with
__________. | back 489 c. Gardnerella vaginalis |
front 490 A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency room complaining of low
abdominal pain and a fever. As she walks into the examination room,
she is slightly stooped over and says that even walking is painful.
She indicates that intercourse has been painful for the past week and
evidence of purulent vaginal discharge is noted during a pelvic exam.
What is the most likely diagnosis? | back 490 e. pelvic inflammatory disease |
front 491 Which of the following does NOT correctly represent a stage of
syphilis? | back 491 b. incubation: 3- to 5-day incubation period |
front 492 Which of these statements about gonorrhea is true? | back 492 e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae can disseminate from the genital area to the joints, causing arthritis. |
front 493 A patient has an STI characterized by sporadically recurring,
painful, fluid-filled blisters in the genital area. A Gram stain and
bacterial culture indicate the presence of normal bacterial
microbiota. What is the most likely etiologic agent? | back 493 d. herpes simplex (HSV) |
front 494 Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to genital
warts? | back 494 . They are caused by a disease of the tropics that is uncommon in the United States. |
front 495 All of the following methods are used for diagnosis of syphilis
EXCEPT __________. | back 495 d. Gram staining |
front 496 Which of the following is NOT a disease of the reproductive
system? | back 496 e. candidiasis |
front 497 A mother infected with gonorrhea has transmitted the disease to her
infant as he passed through the birth canal. This infection in the
infant is called __________. | back 497 e. ophthalmia neonatorum |
front 498 Which of the following statements is NOT true of pelvic inflammatory
disease? | back 498 e. Most infections are resolved without treatment. |
front 499 A 20-year-old male reports to an STI clinic with symptoms of painful
urination. A Gram stain of urethral exudate reveals gram-negative
diplococci inside leukocytes. What is the causative agent of the
patient's symptoms? | back 499 a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
front 500 All of the following are exclusively sexually transmitted infections
(STIs) EXCEPT __________. | back 500 b. leptospirosis |