If the growth rate of a population is positive and remains constant, the number of people added to the
population
a. remains constant.
b. fluctuates randomly.
c. decreases each year.
d. reaches carrying capacity.
e. increases each year.

E

The total fertility rate (TFR) is an estimate of
a. the average number of children in a population that will survive past infancy.
b. the average number of years an infant born in a population can be expected to live.
c. the average number of children each woman in a population will bear.
d. the number of births per 1000 people per year in a particular population.
e. the percentage of women in a population that have borne at least one child.

C

A country has a total fertility rate equal to replacement level fertility, and emigration equal to immigration.
Which of the following must be true?
a. The population is shrinking.
b. The population is stable.
c. The population is rising.
d. The country has population momentum.
e. The country has a low GDP.

B

Which factor is NOT likely to affect the size of a country’s population over time?
a. The amount of immigration and emigration
b. The crude death rate
c. The average age of females when they begin to bear children
d. The current carrying capacity
e. The crude birth rate

D

The region of the world with the highest incidence of HIV infections is
a. North America
b. Eastern Europe/ Central Asia
c. Western/Central Europe
d. Sub-Saharan Africa
e. Middle East/North Africa

D

To determine the number of individuals that will be added to a population in a specified time we multiply the
growth rate by the
a. biotic potential.
b. original population size.
c. environmental resistance.
d. final population size.
e. number of immigrants.

B

Under which of the following conditions would a population grow?
a. The birth rate and the death rate are equal
b. The birth rate exceeds the death rate and there is no immigration or emigration
c. Emigration exceeds immigration and the birth rate equals the death rate
d. The birth rate equals the death rate and immigration is equal to emigration
e. The carrying capacity is exceeded

B

Why might the population of a country with a TFR of 1.6 continue to grow over a longer time?
a. The country has population momentum.
b. The life expectancy has fallen.
c. The net immigration is high enough to overcome low TFR.
d. Child and infant mortality is very low.
e. The net emigration is increasing.

C

A country has a growth rate of 0.2 percent, a TFR of 2.6, and a net migration rate of -8. What will happen to
the population of this country?
a. The population will decrease over time.
b. The population will grow for a few generations before stabilizing.
c. The population will grow for a few generations before shrinking.
d. The population will increase at a steady rate.
e. There is not enough information to tell.

A

Which formula can be used to estimate population size?
a. CBR + Immigration + CDR + Emigration
b. CBR + Immigration – CDR – Emigration
c. CBR + Immigration + CDR – Emigration
d. CBR – Immigration – CDR – Emigration
e. CBR – Immigration + CDR – Emigration

B

Which factor is NOT considered when estimating world population?
a. CBR
b. CDR
c. Total fertility rates
d. Immigration
e. Existing population

D

Which is NOT a factor in a population’s growth rate?
a. The age at which females first reproduce
b. The average number of offspring produced
c. The reproductive lifespan
d. The post-reproductive lifespan
e. The number of male offspring

E

Which is most likely if a country’s death rate among the elderly increases?
a. Population growth will shift from exponential to linear.
b. The time required to reach a given population will increase.
c. The crude birth rate will decrease.
d. The population will continue to decrease.
e. Population momentum will maintain the population’s size.

B

What shape is the age structure diagram of a typical developing nation?
a. Column
b. Inverted triangle
c. Pyramid
d. Diamond
e. Circular

C

If a population’s age structure diagram looks like a pyramid, the population is
a. expanding.
b. shrinking.
c. stable.
d. experiencing cycles of overshoot and die-off.
e. experiencing population momentum.

A

Populations with a column-shaped age structure diagram have
a. high crude death rates.
b. a similar number of individuals in each age group.
c. a declining population.
d. a high growth rate.
e. low crude death rates.

B

Populations with an age structure diagram that is narrower at the bottom than at the top have
a. high crude death rates.
b. a similar number of individuals in each age group.
c. a declining population.
d. a high growth rate.
e. low crude death rates.

C

Population growth rates are high in developing countries because
a. infant mortality rates are low.
b. women tend to have children late in life.
c. family planning is common.
d. children are often an economic advantage.
e. net immigration is high.

D

If women in a country delay childbearing,
a. the population growth rate will increase.
b. the population growth rate will decrease.
c. the population growth rate will stay the same.
d. there will be an increase in the elderly population.
e. there will be an increase in the growth rate followed by a decrease.

B

If a country with a high population growth rate quickly reduced its growth rate to 0 percent, its population
would
a. immediately decline.
b. decline rapidly.
c. immediately become stable.
d. continue to grow for some years, then level off.
e. grow for a short time and then decline rapidly.

D

Which is NOT a reason that the population of the United States continues to grow?
a. Net migration
b. Advances in medical technology
c. The baby boom of the 1940s through 1960s
d. Population momentum
e. High emigration

E

Which developed country has the fastest population growth rate today?
a. France
b. Denmark
c. China
d. United States
e. Russia

D

At present, Earth’s human population is
a. stable.
b. declining.
c. increasing exponentially.
d. increasing at a constant rate.
e. increasing at about 10 percent per year.

C

Which is NOT a reason that the agricultural revolution led to increase in the human population?
a. It provided humans with a larger food supply.
b. It provided humans with a more dependable food supply.
c. It further increased the Earth’s carrying capacity for humans.
d. It resulted in a longer life span and more childbearing years.
e. It reduced the amount of pesticide used on crops.

E

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10 percent would double in
a. 7 years.
b. 10 years.
c. 15 years.
d. 17 years.
e. 70 years.

A

An age structure diagram in which the youngest people are the smallest percentage of the population probably
represents a country with
a. a population that is about to grow very rapidly.
b. a stable population.
c. a population that will begin to shrink when that age group reaches sexual maturity.
d. a population in which the replacement fertility rate has been exceeded.
e. a population in which the TFR has begun to increase.

C

Use Figure 7-1. Which population is larger?
a. Population A is larger than population B.
b. Population B is larger than population A.
c. Currently, the populations are roughly the same size, but population B will soon be
larger.
d. Currently, the populations are roughly the same size, but population A will soon be
larger.
e. The populations are the same size and should remain the same size.

A

Use Figure 7-1. Population A is most likely
a. growing rapidly.
b. growing slowly.
c. stable.
d. going to decline in the next 20 years.
e. going to remain stable for the next 20 years and then increase rapidly.

A

Use Figure 7-1. Population B is most likely
a. growing rapidly.
b. growing slowly.
c. stable.
d. going to decline in the next 20 years.
e. going to remain stable for the next 20 years and then increase rapidly.

C

Use Figure 7-1. Approximately how many males in population A are under the age of 10?
a. 130,000,000
b. 110,000,000
c. 20,000,000
d. 15,000,000
e. 450,000

A

Use Figure 7-1. Population B would most likely be in which phase of demographic transition?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. Between 3 and 4

C

Use Figure 7-1. Population A would most likely be in which phase of demographic transition?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. Between 3 and 4

B

Use Figure 7-1. Population A
I. is likely to have a higher level of education than population B.
II. is likely to have had a recent decline in infant mortality.
III. is likely to be poorer than population B.
a. I
b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III

D

A country’s impact on the environment is influenced by
I. population.
II. technology.
III. affluence.
a. I
b. II
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III

E

There are about 7.2 billion people in the world, and about 11.4 billion usable hectares of land. Currently, the
population of the United States has an ecological footprint of about 9.0 hectares per person. If all people in
the world were to live at the level of consumption found in the United States, the population of the world
would have to ____ in order to support them.
a. double
b. reduce by half
c. reduce to about a fifth of current levels
d. reduce to less than a tenth of the current population
e. decline by 99 percent

C

Country A has a higher crude death rate than country B, but country A has a higher standard of living. What
is one likely explanation for this deviation from the norm?
a. Country A has a higher rate of HIV/AIDS.
b. Country B has a better healthcare system.
c. Country A has a younger population.
d. Country A has an older population.
e. Country B has a higher immigration rate.

D

In general, what is the relationship between life expectancy, child mortality, and affluence?
a. Life expectancy and child mortality are inversely proportional to affluence.
b. Life expectancy is inversely proportional to affluence, while child mortality is directly
proportional to affluence.
c. Life expectancy is directly proportional to affluence, while child mortality is inversely
proportional to affluence.
d. Life expectancy and child mortality are generally directly proportional to affluence.
e. There is no relationship among these three factors.

C

According to the theory of demographic transition, rapid growth occurs during phase
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5.

B

According to the theory of demographic transition, the highest birth rates and death rates are likely to occur
during phase
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5.

A

According to the theory of demographic transition, birth rates decline during phase
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. Between 1 and 2.

C

According to the theory of demographic transition, birth rates may drop below death rates during phase
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. Between 2 and 3.

D

During phase 1 of a demographic transition there are
I. low birth rates.
II. high death rates.
III. low infant mortality rates.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III

B

In phase 2 of a demographic transition, there is _______ in the crude birth rate and _______ in the crude
death rate.
a. no change; an increase
b. no change; no change
c. no change; a decline
d. an increase; no change
e. a decline; a decline

C

Which country is NOT in phase 4 of a demographic transition?
a. Germany
b. India
c. Italy
d. Denmark
e. South Korea

B

In phase 3 of a demographic transition, _____________________ increases while _________________
decreases.
a. family income; education funding
b. the crude death rate; the crude birth rate
c. the crude birth rate; the crude death rate
d. affluence; the crude birth rate
e. the crude death rate; the population size

D

Haiti has an ecological footprint of 0.5 ha per capita. Haiti’s population is currently approximately 10 million
citizens, and an area of 2.7 million ha. What is the total ecological footprint of Haiti?
a. 1.35 million ha
b. 1.5 million ha
c. 2.7 million ha
d. 5 million ha
e. 10 million ha

D

The IPAT equation uses which three major factors to assess environmental impact?
a. invention, production, attainment
b. area, production, thinkers
c. population, area, terrestrial life
d. affluence, progressiveness, telecommunication
e. technology, population, affluence

E

In recent years, American families have drastically increased their consumption of quinoa. The United States
imports quinoa from Peru and Bolivia. Quinoa has
a. only a local U.S. impact since only American consumers are demanding quinoa.
b. only a global impact since many nations across the world consume quinoa.
c. a global and local U.S. impact since the entire supply chain affects the local and global
communities.
d. only a local U.S. impact since American families that eat quinoa are less likely to buy
bread.
e. only a local U.S. impact since quinoa has become an invasive species in America.

C

Sustainable development refers to
a. the improvement in the standard of living for individuals with a sustainable lifestyle.
b. an improvement in living conditions through use of resources without causing
environmental harm or depletion of resources.
c. the improvement of living conditions in nations such as Denmark and Sweden, which
have sustainable energy programs.
d. the development of urban slums into more affluent communities within a city.
e. the increase in green energy use within a nation.

B

Famine is a condition in which _____________is so extreme that large numbers of deaths occur in a given
area over a relatively ___________ period of time.
a. extinction; short
b. drought; long
c. malnourishment; long
d. food insecurity; short
e. food insecurity; long

D

Famine is defined as
a. a large hunger event brought on by natural disaster.
b. a large hunger event brought on by extreme poverty.
c. lack of available food for more than 25 percent of a population.
d. five deaths per day per 10,000 people due to a lack of food.
e. five deaths per day per 1,000,000 people due to lack of food.

D

To achieve food security a nation must have
I. economic security.
II. political security.
III. physical access to food.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II only
d. II and III
e. I,II, and III

E

What is the general relationship between meat consumption and affluence?
a. More affluent nations tend to consume more meat products.
b. More affluent nations tend to be net exporters of meat products.
c. Less affluent nations tend to consume more meat because poultry is easy to raise.
d. Less affluent nations tend to consume less meat because meat is a trading commodity.
e. There is no apparent relationship between meat consumption and affluence.

A

Worldwide, which is the largest component of the human diet?
a. Grain products
b. Meat products
c. Dairy products
d. Raw and processed sugars
e. Fruits and vegetables

A

A steady diet of high calorie, low nutrition fast food may lead to
I. overnutrition.
II. malnutrition.
III. undernutrition.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II
e. I, II, and III

D

Which is NOT a consequence of overnutrition?
a. Type II diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Heart disease
d. Stroke
e. HIV/AIDS

E

People who often consume __________ will likely use a higher energy subsidy than people who often
consume ______________.
a. poultry; grass-fed beef
b. grass-fed beef; corn
c. vegetables; grass-fed beef
d. vegetables; pork
e. bread; chicken

B

Use Figure 11-1. If you input a total of 3,000,000 calories of energy into small-scale corn farming,
approximately how many calories of food will you produce?
a. 300,000
b. 600,000
c. 3,000,000
d. 6,000,000
e. 15,000,000

E

Use Figure 11-1. If you input a total of 3,000,000 calories of energy into far-offshore fishing, approximately
how many calories of food will you produce?
a. 150,000
b. 1,500,000
c. 3,000,000
d. 15,000,000
e. 60,000,000

A

Use Figure 11-1. If you eat 2000 calories of a typical 2010 U.S. diet in a day, how many calories of energy
were needed to produce the food?
a. 200
b. 400
c. 2,000
d. 10,000
e. 20,000

E

Use Figure 11-1. For which type of food production are the calories of energy inputs about equal to the
calories of food produced?
a. Grass-fed beef
b. Large-scale corn
c. Hunting and gathering
d. Far-offshore fishing
e. Coastal fishing

E

Use Figure 11-1. If you decide to have 400 calories of grass-fed beef instead of 500 calories of feedlot beef,
about how many calories of energy inputs are you saving?
a. 100
b. 500
c. 1,500
d. 4,500
e. 8,000

D

Place the following in order of increasing energy subsidy.
I. Hunting & gathering
II. Corn
III. Eggs
IV. Beef
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, II, IV
c. II, I, III, IV
d. IV, I, III, II
e. IV, III, II, I

A

Which is NOT an associated affect of raising animals for food?
a. More people are fed using less energy than when raising crops for food.
b. Consumers of animal products are secondary ecological consumers.
c. A smaller portion of energy passes to the next level than is the case with crop food.
d. More land is required per meat calorie consumed.
e. Cost of food rises from an increase in farmer input, fuel input, and competition for grain.

A

Typically, most of the energy subsidies in modern agriculture are in the form of
a. solar power.
b. hydroelectric power.
c. nuclear power.
d. fossil fuels.
e. manual labor.

D

Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with industrial agriculture?
a. There is a low ratio of energy input to calorie output.
b. There is more food produced per hectare.
c. Monoculture can be more efficient.
d. Economy of scale can make the food less expensive.
e. It is less expensive where labor costs are high.

A

Which is NOT true regarding of the mechanization of agriculture?
a. The use of machines encourages farmers to grow several types of plants on a single farm.
b. There is an economic advantage to using machines when fuel prices are low.
c. There is an economic advantage to using machines when cost of labor is high.
d. Staple crops such as beans and corn are more economically harvestable using machines.
e. Mechanization allows farms to take advantage of economies of scale.

A

Which is directly associated with irrigation?
I. Fishery collapse
II. Waterlogging
III. Salinization
a. I
b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III

D

Which is NOT an advantage of synthetic fertilizers?
a. Ease of application
b. Highly adjustable nutrient content
c. Bioavailability of nutrients
d. Fewer nutrient runoff problems
e. Highly concentrated when produced

D

Which is NOT a disadvantage of monocropping?
a. Erosion due to exposure of large areas of soil during planting
b. Nutrition and pesticide needs do not change
c. More vulnerable to pests that prefer a high concentration of food
d. Loss of habitat for natural pest predators
e. Reduction of productivity due to loss of nutrient-rich topsoil

B

After many years of applying a selective pesticide, a farmer notices that the applications seem less effective.
What is the most likely explanation for this change?
a. The pesticide is fat soluble and has been bioaccumulating.
b. New pest species are taking the place of those that have been exterminated.
c. The farmer is not applying enough pesticide.
d. The target species has begun to evolve resistance.
e. The pesticide needs to be fine-tuned for the target species.

D

Which pesticide breaks down relatively rapidly?
a. Persistent herbicide
b. Nonpersistent herbicide
c. Persistent insecticide
d. Nonpersistent insecticide
e. Synthetic pesticides

D

Atrazine is chemical sprayed onto a golf course in order to prevent the spread of broadleaf weeds from
emerging in the grass. Atrazine is
a. a synthetic fertilizer.
b. an herbicide.
c. an insecticide.
d. an organic fertilizer.
e. a genetically modified crop.

B

An orange grower sprays a pesticide over the orchard to eradicate a worm eating the oranges. The next day,
many dead honeybees are found throughout the orchard. The pesticide was probably
a. a genetically modified pesticide.
b. a selective pesticide.
c. a broad-spectrum pesticide.
d. a nonpersistent pesticide.
e. an organic pesticide.

C

The pesticide treadmill is
I. a negative feedback loop.
II. a cycle of pesticide development following pesticide resistance.
III. an improvement in pesticide efficiency.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II
e. I, II, and III

D

Changing the genetic structure of an organism to improve desirable traits is known as
a. genetic engineering.
b. modification.
c. selective breeding.
d. natural selection.
e. animal husbandry.

A

Research indicates that genetically modified crops can influence an environment’s ________ by competing
with or reproducing with native crops.
a. biodiversity
b. waterlogging
c. salinization
d. natural herbicides
e. synthetic fertilizer

A

Which is NOT a negative impact of concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs)?
a. High concentrations of animal waste
b. Increase in nutrients in stormwater runoff
c. Increase in sediments in stormwater runoff
d. More land used than in other types of animal farming
e. Increase in strains of antibiotic resistant microorganisms

D

Why are marine fisheries particularly susceptible to the tragedy of the commons?
a. Fish populations experience a lot of overshoot and die-off events.
b. Fish are migratory and move through international waters.
c. Pollution is highest in areas with high fish populations.
d. International waters are governed by antiquated nautical law.
e. Fisheries are subject to eminent domain.

B

Many scientists argue that worldwide fisheries are declining, yet the worldwide number of fish harvested
continues to increase. What best explains this discrepancy?
a. Scientists are being cautious in their estimates.
b. Fisheries are collapsing only in select areas.
c. More people are reporting the fish that they catch.
d. Only apex predator populations are collapsing.
e. Improvements in technology are increasing the catch despite declining populations.

E

Turtle excluder devices allow sea turtles to pass safely through nets used to catch shrimp. These special nets
are
a. a bycatch reduction device.
b. required by the Endangered Species Act.
c. required by the Farm Bill of 1990.
d. a way to manage fisheries for collapse.
e. required by the Sustainable Fisheries Act.

A

Use Figure 11-2. Approximately how much did aquaculture increase from 1980 to 2000?
a. 10 million metric tons
b. 15 million metric tons
c. 30 million metric tons
d. 50 million metric tons
e. 80 million metric tons

C

Use Figure 11-2. Between which years did global fish production increase the most?
a. 1950-1960
b. 1960-1970
c. 1970-1980
d. 1980-1990
e. 1990-2000

B

Use Figure 11-2. The global fish production line includes both wild-caught fish and aquaculture-raised fish.
Which statement about fish production is true?
a. In 1950, about half of all fish production was from aquaculture.
b. More fish have been wild-caught than raised through aquaculture during each decade
shown.
c. Around 1970, the number of fish raised through aquaculture briefly decreased.
d. Between 1960 and 1970, the number of wild-caught fish decreased.
e. Between 1990 and 2000, the number of wild-caught fish decreased.

E

Use Figure 11-2. In the figure, the global fish production line includes both wild-caught fish and
aquaculture-raised fish. About how many metric tons of fish were wild-caught in 1990?
a. 105 million metric tons
b. 80 million metric tons
c. 65 million metric tons
d. 15 million metric tons
e. 5 million metric tons

C

A fishery collapse occurs when a fish population declines by
a. 50 percent or more.
b. 66 percent or more.
c. 75 percent or more.
d. 90 percent or more.
e. 100 percent.

D

Which areas of the world are most susceptible to desertification?
a. Existing deserts
b. Humid equatorial regions
c. Temporal chaparral
d. Areas adjacent to the poles
e. Areas adjacent to existing deserts

E

Which is the best sustainable agriculture technique for soil types with low productivity?
a. No-till planting
b. Shifting agriculture
c. Nomadic grazing
d. Conventional agriculture
e. Traditional agriculture

C

Which statement about sustainable agriculture is NOT true?
a. Sustainable agriculture is often based on traditional agriculture techniques.
b. Sustainable agriculture emphasizes long-term use of the land.
c. Because sustainable agriculture is labor intensive, it is expensive in areas with high labor
costs.
d. Sustainable agriculture does not take into account the economic viability of the farmer.
e. Sustainable agriculture uses techniques to protect soil substrate and nutrients.

D

No-till farming will most likely to lead to all of the following except a
a. decrease in the use of herbicides.
b. decrease in wind erosion.
c. decrease in water erosion.
d. regeneration of natural soil horizons.
e. reduction in CO2 emissions from the soil.

A

Which is NOT a technique of integrated pest management (IPM)?
a. Crop rotation
b. Intercropping
c. Planting herbicide resistant crops
d. Habitat creation for pest predators
e. Increased use of traditional pesticides

E

Why is integrated pest management (IPM) especially successful in developing countries?
a. High quality pesticides are not available in developing countries.
b. High-input industrial farming is not feasible because farmers lack financial resources.
c. IPM closely resembles traditional farming techniques.
d. The U.N. offers subsidies to farmers using IPM techniques in developing nations.
e. Developing countries usually ban the use of pesticides.

B

Which is a strategy to practice intercropping?
a. Planting carrots and lettuce in the same field to promote synergistic interaction
b. Planting carrots every odd calendar year and planting lettuce every even calendar year
c. Planting carrots on an even interval throughout the entire field
d. Planting carrots on one half of a field, while the remaining portion remains fallow
e. Clearing land for carrot production for a few years and then moving to a new location

A

Which does NOT describe organic agriculture?
a. A way to reduce the environmental impacts of agriculture
b. Production of crops without the use of synthetic pesticides
c. A method of farming that does not use fossil fuels
d. Production of crops without the use of synthetic fertilizers
e. An effort to work with natural systems rather than dominating them

C

For organic farmers to make a profit
a. manure must be found in abundance in close proximity to the farm.
b. the government must continue to provide subsidies to organic farmers.
c. conventional farmers must pay a tax to subsidize the organic farmers.
d. consumers must be willing to pay higher costs associated with organic produce.
e. they must use monocropping.

D

Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of free-range meat stock?
a. Decreased use of antibiotics due to lower animal concentrations
b. Decrease fossil fuel input
c. Less land used than traditional methods
d. Less supplemental feeding of the stock
e. Waste more easily handled by detritivores

C