front 5 5) The lymphatic fluid
A) is a filtrate of the blood, as is
urine.
B) is completely separate from the circulatory system for
blood.
C) carries both red and white blood cells.
D)
functions in adaptive immunity but not in innate immunity.
E)
carries a toxic gas that kills cancerous cells. | |
front 6 6) An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site
of an infection is
A) an interferon.
B) lymphatic fluid.
C) histamine.
D) mucus.
E) sodium ions. | |
front 7 7) A systemic inflammatory response that is often life-threatening is
A) mild fever.
B) aches and dull pain.
C) septic
shock.
D) high blood pressure.
E) increased white blood
cell count. | |
front 8 8) The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against
infections by
A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface.
B) the secretion of complement proteins.
C) the release of
slightly alkaline secretions.
D) the secretion of lysozyme onto
their surfaces.
E) interferons produced by immune cells. | |
front 9 9) Salmonella bacterial poisoning can be initiated when
A) the
microbe survives the acidic environment of the stomach and resists
lysosomal degradation in macrophages.
B) the chemotactic
messengers released by the microbe do not attract sufficient
neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection.
C) there is a
delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and
fight these microbes.
D) the microbes release chemical
messengers that make them resistant to phagocytosis.
E) The
combination of foods eaten at the meal reduces the pH of the stomach
sufficiently so that ingested microbes are not destroyed. | |
front 10 10) The complement system is
A) a set of proteins involved in
innate but not acquired immunity.
B) a set of proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells.
C) a group of proteins
that includes interferons and interleukins.
D) a group of
antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascade fashion.
E) a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes. | |
front 11 11) Antihistamine treatment reduces
A) blood vessel dilation.
B) phagocytosis of antigens.
C) MHC presentation by
macrophages.
D) the secondary immune response.
E) clonal
selection by antigens. | |
front 12 12) Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major
signs of inflammation. The most inclusive set of symptoms of
inflammation that might appear in such early human art is
A)
heat, pain, and redness.
B) pain and whitening of the
surrounding tissue.
C) swelling and pain.
D)
antibody-producing cells.
E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain. | |
front 13 13) Ancient peoples sought to identify the indicators of inflammation
because
A) seeing such signs would be cause for their seeking
out a healer in their community.
B) the presence of the signs of
inflammation in a patient could be a condemnation of the healer.
C) the ancients probably knew of plant derivatives that could
reduce the pain of inflammation.
D) the presence of these signs
suggests that healing was taking place; otherwise, the patient would
likely die.
E) the signs of inflammation served as a caution to
keep people away from the patient. | |
front 14 14) The cells and signaling molecules that initiate inflammatory
responses are
A) the phagocytes and the lysozymes.
B) the
phagocytes and the chemokines.
C) the dendritic cells and the
interferons.
D) the mast cells and the histamines.
E) the
lymphocytes and the interferons. | |
front 15 15) Inflammatory responses typically include
A) clotting
proteins migrating away from the site of infection.
B) increased
activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
C) reduced
permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
D) release of
substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area.
E)
inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow. | |
front 16 16) Bacteria entering the body through a small cut in the skin
A) inactivate the erythrocytes.
B) stimulate apoptosis of
nearby body cells.
C) stimulate release of interferons.
D)
stimulate natural killer cell activity.
E) activate a group of
proteins called complement. | |
front 17 17) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity activity
in its intestine that likely includes
A) complement.
B)
lysozyme.
C) mucus.
D) neutrophils.
E) dendritic cells. | |
front 18 18) In some insects, such as Drosophila, fungal cell wall elements
can activate the protein Toll, which
A) acts as a receptor that,
when activated, signals synthesis of antimicrobial peptides.
B)
functions directly to attack the fungi presented to it.
C)
produces antimicrobial peptides by interaction with chitin.
D)
secretes special recognition signal molecules that identify specific
pathogens.
E) causes some hemocytes to phagocytize the pathogens. | |
front 19 19) Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that can recognize a kind
of macromolecule that is absent from vertebrates but present in/on
certain groups of pathogens, including viral
A)
lipopolysaccharides.
B) double-stranded DNA.
C)
double-stranded RNA.
D) glycoproteins.
E) phospholipids. | |
front 20 20) Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels as well as an
increase in their permeability, producing
A) redness and heat
only.
B) swelling only.
C) pain.
D) redness, heat,
and swelling.
E) all of the signs of a major infection. | |
front 21 21) Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low
blood pressure, is a response to
A) certain bacterial
infections.
B) specific forms of viruses.
C) the presence
of natural killer cells.
D) a fever of >103°F in adults.
E) increased production of neutrophils. | |
front 22
22) Infection by a bacterium that has elements on its surface
that enhance its resistance to lysozyme will likely result in
A) destruction of the bacterium by NK cells.
B) successful reproduction of the bacterium and
continued progression of the disease.
C)
removal of the bacterium by dendritic cells and its concentration
in lymph nodes.
D) the infected individual's
humoral immunity becoming the only route of infection response.
E) lymphocytes migrating from the thymus to
attack the bacterium. | |
front 23 23) Adaptive immunity depends on
A) traits common to groups of
pathogens.
B) pathogen-specific recognition.
C) maternal
provision of antibodies to offspring.
D) plants being exposed to
new pathogens.
E) having exhausted all options for innate
immunity responses. | |
front 24 24) Bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would
most quickly activate its
A) Toll-like receptors that bind to
lipopolysaccharides.
B) memory cells to produce antibodies.
C) plasma cells to produce antigens.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) humoral immune responses. | |
front 25 25) A key part of the humoral immune response is
A) the attack
of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
B) the production
of antibodies by plasma cells.
C) perforation of infected host
cells by perforin.
D) the attack of phagocytes on living
pathogens.
E) the initiation of programmed cell death in
infected host cells. | |
front 26 26) The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to
A) antibodies.
B) antigens.
C) natural killer cells.
D)
double-stranded RNA.
E) immunoglobulins. | |
front 27 27) An epitope is
A) part of the interferons that penetrate
foreign cells.
B) a protein protruding from the surface of B
cells.
C) two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the
blood plasma.
D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to
an antigen receptor.
E) a mirror image of an antigen. | |
front 28 28) B cells have antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are
either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign
cells. T cells have antigen receptors that
A) are active only in
lymph nodes.
B) bind only to antigens present on the surface of
the invading/foreign cells.
C) bind only to freely dissolved
antigens in the plasma.
D) bind to antigens presented on major
histocompatability complexes by host cells.
E) bind to antigens
that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of
invading/foreign cells. | |
front 29 29) Within a differentiated B cell, the rearrangement of DNA
sequences between variable regions and joining regions is accomplished
by
A) polyadenylase.
B) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse
transcriptase.
D) epitopase.
E) recombinase. | |
front 30 30) Clonal selection of B cells activated by antigen exposure leads
to production of
A) large numbers of neutrophils.
B) large
quantities of the antigen initially recognized.
C) vast numbers
of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors.
D)
long-lived erythrocytes that can later secrete antibodies for the
antigen.
E) short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies for
the antigen. | |
front 31 31) Antigens are
A) proteins found in the blood that cause
foreign blood cells to clump.
B) proteins embedded in B cell
membranes.
C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy
polypeptide chains.
D) foreign molecules that trigger the
generation of antibodies.
E) proteins released during an
inflammatory response. | |
front 32 32) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the
thymus would most likely
A) lack class I MHC molecules on cell
surfaces.
B) lack humoral immunity.
C) be unable to
genetically rearrange antigen receptors.
D) be unable to
differentiate and mature T cells.
E) have a reduced number of B
cells and be unable to form antibodies. | |
front 33 33) Clonal selection implies that
A) brothers and sisters have
similar immune responses.
B) antigens increase mitosis in
specific lymphocytes.
C) only certain cells can produce
interferon.
D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors.
E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to. | |
front 34 34) Clonal selection is an explanation for how
A) a single type
of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged.
C) an antigen
can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies.
D)
HIV can disrupt the immune system.
E) macrophages can recognize
specific T cells and B cells. | |
front 35
35) Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a
pathogen are due to the activation of
A)
memory cells.
B) macrophages.
C) stem cells.
D) B cells.
E) T cells. | |
front 36 36) The MHC is important in a T cell's ability to
A)
distinguish self from nonself.
B) recognize specific parasitic
pathogens.
C) identify specific bacterial pathogens.
D)
identify specific viruses.
E) recognize differences among types
of cancer. | |
front 37 37) A patient who can produce antibodies against some bacterial
pathogens, but not against viral infections, probably has a disorder
in his
A) B cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) natural
killer cells.
D) T cells.
E) macrophages. | |
front 38 38) The activation of helper T cells is likely
A) when an
antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell.
B) when a cytotoxic T
cell releases cytokines.
C) when natural killer (NK) cells come
in contact with a tumor cell.
D) in the bone marrow during the
self-tolerance test.
E) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens. | |
front 39 39) An immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule, of whatever class, with regions
symbolized as C or V, H or L, has a light chain made up of
A)
one C region and one V region.
B) three C regions and one V
region.
C) one H region and one L region.
D) three H
regions and one L region.
E) two C regions and two V regions. | |
front 40 40) The ability of one person to produce over a million different
antibody molecules does not require over a million different genes;
rather, this wide range of antibody production is due to
A)
alternative splicing of exons after transcription.
B) increased
rate of mutation in the RNA molecules.
C) DNA rearrangements.
D) rearrangements of cytosolic proteins in the thymus cells.
E) crossing over between the light and heavy chains of each
antibody molecule during meiosis I. | |
front 41
41) Immunological memory accounts for
A)
the human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself.
B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen
that causes dengue fever cause worse disease than others.
C) the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via
cytokines.
D) the ancient observation that
someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for
those newly diseased.
E) the ability of the
immune system to present antigen fragments in association with MHC antigens. | |
front 42 42) The function of antibodies is to
A) inject toxins into
living pathogens.
B) secrete cytokines that attract macrophages
to infection sites.
C) release perforins to disrupt infected
cells.
D) act as Toll-like receptors.
E) mark pathogenic
cells for destruction. | |
front 43 43) This type of immunity is present only when a newborn infant is
being fed by actively nursing on its mother and ends when nursing
ends.
A) innate immunity
B) active immunity
C)
passive immunity
D) cell-mediated immunity
E) adaptive immunity | |
front 44 44) Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary
because
A) of an increase in immunodeficiency diseases.
B)
flu can generate anaphylactic shock.
C) surviving the flu one
year exhausts the immune system to nonresponsiveness the second year.
D) rapid mutation in flu viruses alters the surface proteins in
infected host cells.
E) flu leads to autoimmune disorders. | |
front 45 45) The cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells
involves
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells. | |
front 46 46) Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated
immunity and also respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C)
helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) B cells | |
front 47 47) The cells involved in innate immunity, whose absence increases
the chances of developing malignant tumors, are
A) cytotoxic T
cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells. | |
front 48 48) Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic
T cells.
A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated
→ clonal selection occurs
B) body cell becomes infected with a
virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-antigen
complex displayed on cell surface
C) self-tolerance of immune
cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released
D)
complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell
activated → cytokines released
E) cytotoxic T cells → class II
MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis | |
front 49 49) Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an
extracellular pathogen is
A) lysozyme production.
B)
phagocytosis by neutrophils.
C) antibody production by plasma
cells.
D) histamine release by basophils.
E) lysis by
natural killer cells. | |
front 50 50) Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it
first responds to a pathogen in the correct sequence.
I.
Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen
receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic
determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory
cells remain.
A) I → III → II → IV → V
B) III → II
→ I → V → IV
C) II → I → IV → III → V
D) IV → II → III →
I → V
E) III → IV → II → I → V | |
front 51 51) A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and
cell-mediated immune pathways is a
A) plasma cell.
B)
cytotoxic T cell.
C) natural killer cell.
D) CD8 cell.
E) helper T cell. | |
front 52 52) A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in
the helper T cell being unable to
A) respond to T-independent
antigens.
B) lyse tumor cells.
C) stimulate a cytotoxic T
cell.
D) interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
E)
interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex. | |
front 53 53) CD4 and CD8 are
A) proteins secreted by antigen-presenting
cells.
B) receptors present on the surface of natural killer
(NK) cells.
C) T-independent antigens.
D) molecules
present on the surface of T cells where they interact with MHC
molecules.
E) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting
cells where they enhance B cell activity. | |
front 54 54) T cells of the immune system include
A) CD4, CD8, and
plasma cells.
B) cytotoxic and helper cells.
C) plasma,
antigen-presenting, and memory cells.
D) lymphocytes,
macrophages, and dendritic cells.
E) class I MHC, class II MHC,
and memory cells. | |
front 55
55) B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to
differentiate when
A) B cells produce IgE
antibodies.
B) B cells release cytokines.
C) helper T cells present the class II MHC
molecule-antigen complex on their surface.
D)
helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
E) helper T cells release cytokines. | |
front 56 56) Normal immune responses can be described as polyclonal because
A) blood contains many different antibodies and antigens.
B) construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells.
C) multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a
single B cell.
D) diverse antibodies are produced for different
epitopes of a specific antigen.
E) macrophages, T cells, and B
cells all are involved in a normal immune response. | |
front 57 57) Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE
differ from each other
A) in the way they are produced.
B)
in their heavy-chain structure.
C) in the type of cell that
produces them.
D) by the antigenic determinants that they
recognize.
E) by the number of carbohydrate subunits they have. | |
front 58 58) When antibodies bind antigens, the clumping of antigens results
from
A) the multivalence of the antibody having at least two
binding regions.
B) disulfide bridges between the antigens.
C) complement that makes the affected cells sticky.
D)
bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules.
E)
denaturation of the antibodies. | |
front 59 59) Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by
A)
the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes.
B)
antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes.
C) the release of
cytokines by activated B cells.
D) the binding of antibodies to
the surface of microbes and antibody-mediated agglutination of
microbes only.
E) the binding of antibodies to the surface of
microbes, antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes, and the release
of cytokines by activated B cells. | |
front 60 60) The primary function of humoral immunity is
A) to defend
against fungi and protozoa.
B) to reject transplanted tissues.
C) to protect the body against cells that become cancerous.
D) to protect the body against extracellular pathogens.
E)
to defend against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells. | |
front 61
61) Naturally acquired passive immunity results from the
A) injection of vaccine.
B)
ingestion of interferon.
C) placental transfer
of antibodies.
D) absorption of pathogens
through mucous membranes.
E) injection of antibodies. | |
front 62 62) In active immunity, but not passive immunity, there is
A)
acquisition and activation of antibodies.
B) proliferation of
lymphocytes in bone marrow.
C) the transfer of antibodies from
the mother across the placenta.
D) the requirement for direct
exposure to a living or simulated pathogen.
E) the requirement
of secretion of interleukins from macrophages. | |
front 63 63) Jenner's successful use of cowpox virus as a vaccine against the
smallpox virus is due to the fact that
A) the immune system
responds nonspecifically to antigens.
B) the cowpox virus made
antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
C) cowpox
and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
D) there are some antigenic determinants common to both pox
viruses.
E) cowpox and smallpox are caused by the same virus. | |
front 64 64) An individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a
fast-acting toxin would likely benefit from
A) vaccination with
a weakened form of the toxin.
B) injection of antibodies to the
toxin.
C) injection of interleukin-1.
D) injection of
interleukin-2.
E) injection of interferon. | |
front 65 65) For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a
pathogen, it is necessary that
A) the surface antigens of the
pathogen not change.
B) a rearrangement of the B cell receptor
antibodies takes place.
C) all of the surface antigens on the
pathogen be identified.
D) the pathogen has only one epitope.
E) the MHC molecules are heterozygous. | |
front 66 66) A diseased patient is exposed to an unknown agent while out of
the country. The patient's blood is found to have a high proportion of
lymphocytes with CD8 surface proteins in her blood, a likely result of
A) the patient having encountered a bacterial infection which
elicited CD8+ T cells.
B) the disease having been caused by a
multicellular parasite, such as can be encountered in polluted water
sources.
C) the CD8 proteins having been discharged from these
lymphocytes to lyse the infected cells.
D) a viral infection
eliciting proliferation of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
E) the CD8
proteins having "marked" the surface of cells that
accumulate after the infection is over and signal patient recovery. | |
front 67
67) The switch of one B cell from producing one class of
antibody to another antibody class that is responsive to the same
antigen is due to
A) mutation in the genes of
that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen.
B) the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of
responsive B cells.
C) a switch in the kind of
antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response.
D) a patient's reaction to the first kind of
antibody made by the plasma cells.
E) the
rearrangement of immunoglobulin heavy-chain C region DNA. | |
front 68
68) The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given
population is enormous. However, an individual in that diverse
population has a far more limited array of MHC molecules because
A) the MHC proteins are made from several
different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number
of ways.
B) MHC proteins from one individual
can only be of class I or class II.
C) each of
the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual
only inherits two for each gene.
D) once a B
cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC
response categories.
E) once a T cell has
matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories. | |
front 69
69) A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given
donor (Jane) to a given recipient (Jane's cousin Bob), even though
Jane has previously given blood for one of Bob's needed
transfusions, because
A) even though Jane's
blood type is a match to Bob's, her MHC proteins may not be a
match.
B) a blood type match is less stringent
than a match required for transplant because blood is more tolerant
of change.
C) for each gene, there is only one
blood allele but many tissue alleles.
D)
Jane's class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow.
E) Bob's immune response has been made inadequate before
he receives the transplant. | |
front 70
70) Infection with HIV typically
A)
increases the level of helper T cells for the first year after
infection.
B) eliminates all T cells
immediately.
C) leads to an immediate decrease
in the number of HIV in the blood.
D) alters
mitochondrial but not genomic DNA sequences.
E) is found in B cells but not in T cells. | |
front 71 71) The transfusion of type A blood to a person who has type O blood
would result in
A) the recipient's B antigens reacting with the
donated anti-B antibodies.
B) the recipient's anti-A antibodies
clumping the donated red blood cells.
C) the recipient's anti-A
and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the
donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type.
D) no reaction
because type O is a universal donor.
E) no reaction because the
O-type individual does not have antibodies. | |
front 72 72) An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune
response to a bacterium because
A) MHC molecules of the donor
may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue, but bacteria lack MHC
molecules.
B) the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is
isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune
response.
C) a response to the graft will involve B cells and a
response to the bacterium will not.
D) a bacterium cannot escape
the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells.
E)
the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient. | |
front 73 73) In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction
against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells, which
categorizes lupus as
A) an allergy.
B) an
immunodeficiency.
C) an autoimmune disease.
D) an
antigenic variation.
E) a cancer. | |
front 74 74) A patient who undergoes a high level of mast cell degranulation,
dilation of blood vessels, and acute drop in blood pressure is likely
suffering from
A) an autoimmune disease.
B) a typical
allergy that can be treated by antihistamines.
C) an organ
transplant, such as a skin graft.
D) the effect of exhaustion on
the immune system.
E) anaphylactic shock immediately following
exposure to an allergen. | |
front 75 75) An example of a pathogen that undergoes rapid changes resulting
in antigenic variation is
A) the influenza virus, which
expresses alternative envelope proteins.
B) the strep bacteria,
which can be communicated from patient to patient with high
efficiency.
C) human papilloma virus, which can remain latent
for several years.
D) the causative agent of the autoimmune
disease known as rheumatoid arthritis.
E) multiple sclerosis,
which attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system. | |
front 76 76) The ability of some viruses to remain inactive (latent) for a
period of time is exemplified by
A) influenza, a particular
strain of which returns every 10-20 years.
B) herpes simplex
viruses (oral or genital) whose reproduction is triggered by
physiological or emotional stress in the host.
C) Kaposi's
sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS, but rarely in
those not infected by HIV.
D) the virus that causes a form of
the common cold, which recurs in patients many times in their lives.
E) myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease that blocks muscle
contraction from time to time. | |
front 77 77) Most newly emerging diseases result in
A) greater severity
as there are more and more occurrences of the infection.
B)
major pandemics, spreading the infection far and wide in the
population.
C) the waning of the disease, due to evolutionary
selection for resistant hosts and milder pathogens.
D) a
destruction of the host's immune system and eventual cancer.
E)
no discoverable relationship with other pathogens in the same or
related species. | |
front 78
78) Preventing the appearance of the symptoms of an allergy
attack would be the likely result of
A)
blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells.
B) blocking the antigenic determinants of the
IgM antibodies.
C) reducing the number of
helper T cells in the body.
D) reducing the
number of cytotoxic cells.
E) reducing the
number of natural killer cells. | |
front 79 79) A patient complaining of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after
being given a flower bouquet as a birthday gift should first be
treated with
A) a vaccine.
B) complement.
C) sterile
pollen.
D) antihistamines.
E) monoclonal antibodies. | |
front 80 80) A patient who has a parasitic worm infection and another patient
responding to an allergen such as ragweed pollen have which of the
following in common?
A) an increase in cytotoxic T cell number
B) suffering from anaphylactic shock
C) risking
development of an autoimmune disease
D) suffering from a
decreased level of innate immunity
E) an increase in the levels
of IgE | |
front 81 Mutant fruit flies that make only one antimicrobial peptide were
tested for survival after infection with Neurospora crassa fungi or
with Micrococcus luteus bacteria.
81) The results shown
in the graphs support the hypothesis that
A) adding the defensin
gene to such mutants protects them from fungal infection.
B)
adding the drosomycin gene to such mutants protects them from fungal
infection.
C) wild-type flies with the full set of genes for
antimicrobial peptides are highly susceptible to these infective
agents.
D) the presence of any single antimicrobial peptide
protects against both infective agents.
E) even the wild-type
flies rarely, if ever, survive for five days. | |
front 82 82) According to the graph, naive B cells will produce effector cells
A) between 0 and 7 days.
B) between 7 and 14 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 0 and 7 days and
between 7 and 14 days.
E) between 0 and 7 days and between 28
and 35 days. | |
front 83 83) According to the graph, naive memory cells will be produced
A) between 0 and 7 days.
B) between 7 and 14 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 35 and 42 days.
E) both between 0 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days. | |
front 84 84) According to the graph, antibodies will be produced
A)
between 3 and 7 days.
B) between 14 and 21 days.
C)
between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 14 and 21 days and between 42
and 56 days.
E) both between 3 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days. | |
front 85 85) Study the table. The mother could exhibit an anti-Rh-factor
reaction to the developing fetus in
A) Case 1 only.
B)
Case 3 only.
C) Cases 1 and 2 only.
D) Cases 1, 2, and
3.
E) It cannot be determined from the data given. | |
front 86 86) In Cases 1 and 2 in the table, the mothers would be able, if
needed, to supply blood to the newborn even seven to nine months after
birth; the same would not be true for Case 3. This is because
A) the fetus in Case 3 would provoke an immune response in the mother
that would carry over after the birth.
B) the newborn in Case 3
would soon be able to make antibodies to the B antigen of the mother.
C) newborn children, until about age 2, do not make appreciable
antibodies, except against Rh+ antigen.
D) passive immunity
would have worn off for the third newborn, but not for the other two.
E) this difference is based on which of the mothers has been
nursing her children, not on blood antigens. | |
front 87 87) Study the table. Giving the mother anti-Rh antibodies before
delivering her baby would be a wise precaution in
A) Case 1
only.
B) Case 3 only.
C) Cases 1 and 2 only.
D)
Cases 1, 2, and 3.
E) It cannot be determined from the data given. | |
front 88 88) After a long and cold winter, Jim was excited to start exploring
the woods behind his new home. His first adventure included exposure
to poison ivy without any reaction. A month later, though, a second
walk through the woods was not so great, since two days later Jim had
a terrible rash that lasted for weeks. The fact that the rash took two
days to develop indicates that this immune response was an example of
A) humoral immunity.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C)
innate immunity.
D) the activation of Toll-like receptors.
E) the activation of the complement system. | |
front 89
An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV,
the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had
already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had
merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her
neck. This time, though infected, she does not get sick.
89) Her immune system's recognition of the second
infection involves the
A) helper T cells.
B) memory B cells.
C)
plasma cells.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) natural killer cells. | |
front 90 An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the
virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had
already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had
merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her
neck. This time, though infected, she does not get sick.
90) The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the
virus-infected cells along with
A) complement.
B)
antibodies.
C) class I MHC molecules.
D) class II MHC
molecules.
E) dendritic cells. | |
front 91 Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge
syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder
results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results
in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.
91)
Select the description that likely indicates a child with Bruton's
disease.
A) baby girl Denise, with low level of antibody
response to streptococcal infection
B) baby boy John, with
immature T cells, missing CD4 receptors
C) baby boy Jeff, with
no plasma cells following infection by bacterial pneumonia
D)
baby girl Susan, with no evidence of a thymus gland
E) baby boy
Matt, with very low circulating antigens | |
front 92 Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge
syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder
results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results
in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.
92)
Bruton's disorder will likely include
A) the failure of
heavy-chain gene rearrangement in B cells.
B) the failure to
incorporate CD4 receptors into cell membranes.
C) an
underexpression of the gene for the β chain of the T cell receptor.
D) an underexpression of the gene for the CD8 receptor molecule.
E) the inability of the bone marrow cells to interact with MHC molecules. | |
front 93 Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge
syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder
results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results
in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.
93)
Assume that a DGS-like phenotype was produced in a specific
"gene-knockout" mouse, one lacking expression of HA3, a Hox
gene known to be involved in developmental regulation in the mouse.
The phenotype of the HA3 knockout can be ascertained by
A)
a bone marrow biopsy.
B) an assay for environmental agents known
to cause birth defects.
C) a chest X-ray.
D) the
measurement of the proportion of CD4 cells to total lymphocytes.
E) an autopsy examination of the adrenal glands. | |
front 94 94) Which of these is not part of insect immunity?
A) enzyme
activation of microbe-killing chemicals
B) activation of natural
killer cells
C) phagocytosis by hemocytes
D) production of
antimicrobial peptides
E) a protective exoskeleton | |
front 95 95) An epitope associates with which part of an antigen receptor or
antibody?
A) the disulfide bridge
B) the heavy-chain
constant regions only
C) variable regions of a heavy chain and
light chain combined
D) the light-chain constant regions only
E) the tail | |
front 96 96) Which statement best describes the difference in responses of
effector B cells (plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells?
A) B
cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive
immunity.
B) B cells kill pathogens directly; cytotoxic T cells
kill host cells.
C) B cells secrete antibodies against a
pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells.
D) B cells carry out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T
cells carry out the humoral response.
E) B cells respond the
first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times. | |
front 97 97) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) An
antibody has more than one antigen-binding site.
B) An antigen
can have different epitopes.
C) A pathogen makes more than one
antigen.
D) A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different
antigens.
E) A liver cell makes one class of MHC molecule. | |
front 98 98) Which of the following should be the same in identical twins?
A) the set of antibodies produced
B) the set of MHC
molecules produced
C) the set of T cell antigen receptors
produced
D) the susceptibility to a particular virus
E)
the set of immune cells eliminated as self-reactive | |
front 99 99) Vaccination increases the number of
A) different receptors
that recognize a pathogen.
B) lymphocytes with receptors that
can bind to the pathogen.
C) epitopes that the immune system can
recognize.
D) macrophages specific for a pathogen.
E) MHC
molecules that can present an antigen. | |
front 100 100) Which of the following would not help a virus avoid triggering
an adaptive immune response?
A) having frequent mutations in
genes for surface proteins
B) infecting cells that produce very
few MHC molecules
C) producing proteins very similar to those of
other viruses
D) infecting and killing helper T cells
E)
building the viral shell from host proteins | |
