5) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?

1. a) Albumin
2. b) Globulins
3. c) Fibrinogen
4. d) Myoglobin
5. e) Hemoglobin

b

6) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?

1. a) Albumin
2. b) Globulins
3. c) Fibrinogen
4. d) Prostaglandins

c

9) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called

1. a) hematospermia.
2. b) hemopoiesis.
3. c) thrombocytosis.
4. d) hemostasis.
5. e) polycythemia.

b

10) A megakaryoblast will develop into

1. a) a red blood cell.
2. b) a white blood cell.
3. c) a platelet.
4. d) either a white blood cell or a platelet.
5. e) none of these choices.

c

11) During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into

1. a) proerythroblasts.
2. b) T lymphoblasts.
3. c) B lymphoblasts.
4. d) NK lymphoblasts.
5. e) all of these choices.

a

12) Progressive liver failure may lead to serious bleeding problems due to

1. a) reduced production of thrombopoietin
2. b) a reduction in the production of platelets
3. c) a reduction in the cholesterol production
4. d) a reduction in the number of pluripotent stem cells

a,b

13) Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow?

1. a) erythropoietin (EPO)
2. b) thrombopoietin (TPO)
3. c) human growth hormone (hGH)
4. d) calcitonin (CT)
5. e) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

a

15) Ferritin is a protein used to

1. a) break down iron
2. b) store iron in the liver, muscle and spleen.
3. c) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes.
4. d) synthesize iron.
5. e) absorb iron across intestinal cells.

b

14) Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC?

1. a) 50 million
2. b) 100 million
3. c) 280 million
4. d) 320 million
5. e) 430 million

c

16) The major function of red blood cells is

1. a) nutrient transport.
2. b) cytokine stimulation.
3. c) blood cell proliferation.
4. d) gas transport.
5. e) disease resistance.

d

17) Jaundice, a yellowing of the skin, is a condition caused by the deposition of bilirubin in the skin. It may be associated with

1. a) excessive breakdown of red blood cells
2. b) cancer of the bowel or pancreas
3. c) blockage of bile drainage by gallstones
4. d) increased atmospheric oxygen

a,b,c

18) Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a

1. a) proerythroblast.
2. b) megakaryocyte.
3. c) progenitor cell.
4. d) mature erythrocyte.
5. e) reticulocyte.

e

19) Erythropoiesis may be stimulated by

1. a) pulmonary disease that decreases available oxygen
2. b) excessive bleeding
3. c) traveling to high altitudes
4. d) diving in deep water

a,b,c

20) Which of the following blood cells is a phagocyte?

1. a) Neutrophil
2. b) Platelet
3. c) Lymphocyte
4. d) Basophil
5. e) Erythrocyte

a

21) Which of the following blood components is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel?

1. a) Erythrocyte
2. b) Platelet
3. c) Lymphocyte
4. d) Basophil
5. e) Neutrophil

b

22) Which of the following blood cells releases granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions?

1. a) Eosinophil
2. b) Monocyte
3. c) Lymphocyte
4. d) Basophil
5. e) Neutrophil

d

23) Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and is effective against parasitic worms?

1. a) Eosinophil
2. b) Monocyte
3. c) Lymphocyte
4. d) Basophil
5. e) Neutrophil

a

24) Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders?

1. a) Eosinophil
2. b) Macrophage
3. c) Lymphocyte
4. d) Basophil
5. e) Platelet

c

25) Which of the following cells is NOT an agranular leukocyte?

1. a) Monocytes
2. b) Macrophage
3. c) Lymphocyte
4. d) Basophil
5. e) All of these choices

d

The number of circulating white blood cells may be affected by several factors. A pregnant woman will often exhibit a reduction in the number of

1. basophils
2. lymphocytes
3. monocytes
4. neutrophils

a

individual exposed to radiation will exhibit a reduction in the number of

1. basophils
2. eosinophils
3. monocytes
4. neutrophils

d

28) The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called

1. a) emigration.
2. b) diaphysis.
3. c) adhesion.
4. d) opsonization.
5. e) phagocytosis.

a

29) Which of the following chemical substances is NOT commonly released by mast cells?

1. a) Heparin
2. b) Histamine
3. c) Nitric oxide
4. d) Proteases
5. e) All of these choices

c

30) Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts?

1. a) Erythropoietin
2. b) Thrombopoietin
3. c) Nitric oxide
4. d) Human growth hormone
5. e) Heparin

b

31) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?

1. a) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia
2. b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
3. c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis
4. d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting
5. e) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation

d

32) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of

1. a) thromboplastin.
2. b) prothrombinase.
3. c) clotting factor XII.
4. d) fibrin.
5. e) tissue factor.

b

33) Which of the following clotting factors is involved in strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot?

1. a) Factor V
2. b) Factor VII
3. c) Factor XI
4. d) Factor XIII
5. e) Factor XIV

d

34) Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy?

1. a) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative
2. b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive
3. c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative
4. d) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive.

b

36) Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release?

1. a) Heparin
2. b) Fibrinogen
3. c) Plasmin
4. d) Antithrombin
5. e) Prostacyclin

e

37) Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils?

1. a) Heparin
2. b) Fibrinogen
3. c) Thromboxane A2
4. d) Prostacyclin

e) Plasmin

a

8) Which of the cells in the diagram will eventually develop into macrophages?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

e

39) Which of the cells in the diagram will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

a

40) Which of the cells in the diagram can be subdivided into categories of small and large versions of this cell type?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

d

42) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a pluripotent stem cell?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) G

a

43) Which letter in the diagram indicates the correct position of a myeloid stem cell?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) G

b

44) Which labeled cell in the diagram will develop into platelets?

1. a) H
2. b) J
3. c) K
4. d) L
5. e) E

a

47) Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood?

1. a) anti-A
2. b) anti-B
3. c) anti-A and anti-B
4. d) No antibodies to ABO blood group antigens
5. e) Not enough information to answer

c

48) What blood type is a person if their plasma contains ONLY anti-A agglutinin?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) O
4. d) AB
5. e) Not enough information is provided to answer question.

b

When blood from a normal adult is centrifuged, as shown in the figure, which of the following components occupies the greatest volume?

1. a) plasma
2. b) red blood cells
3. c) platelets
4. d) buffy coat
5. e) white blood cells

a

54) What is the normal concentration range of the formed element that comprises the blood component labeled III in the figure?

1. a) 400,000–1 million cells/μL
2. b) 150–200 cells/μL
3. c) 4.8–4 million cells/μL
4. d) 150,000–400,000 cells/μL
5. e) 5,000–10,000 cells/μL

c

55) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the highest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?

1. a) eosinophils
2. b) monocytes
3. c) lymphocytes
4. d) neutrophils
5. e) basophils

d

56) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the smallest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?

1. a) eosinophils
2. b) monocytes
3. c) lymphocytes
4. d) neutrophils
5. e) basophils

e

57) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the highest percentage in the blood component labeled I in the figure?

1. a) globulin
2. b) albumin
3. c) fibrinogen
4. d) thrombin
5. e) keratin

b

58) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the lowest percentage of the blood component labeled I in the figure?

1. a) globulin
2. b) albumin
3. c) fibrinogen
4. d) all of the proteins listed are found in equal percentages
5. e) none of proteins listed are found in component I

c

59) Which of the following precursor cells eventually gives rise to neutrophils?

1. a) Megakaryoblast
2. b) Proerythroblast
3. c) T lymphoblast
4. d) Monoblast
5. e) Myeloblast

e

60) Which of the following precursor cells eventually gives rise to the platelets?

1. a) Megakaryoblast
2. b) Proerythroblast
3. c) T lymphoblast
4. d) Monoblast
5. e) Myeloblast

a

62) Which of the following formed elements found in the blood are derived from reticulocytes?

1. a) Platelets
2. b) Erythrocytes
3. c) T lymphocytes
4. d) Monocytes
5. e) Basophils

b

63) Umbilical cord stem cells

1. a) are easier to collect than bone marrow stem cells
2. b) are more likely to cause a graft-versus-host reaction
3. c) are more abundant than bone marrow stem cells
4. d) are less likely to transmit infections

a,c,d

64) Which of the following precursor cells gives rise to agranular leukocytes?

1. a) Proerythroblast
2. b) Megakaryoblast
3. c) Lymphoblast
4. d) Myeloblast
5. e) None of the selections are correct.

c

65) Which of the following precursor cells gives rise to granular leukocytes?

1. a) Proerythroblast
2. b) Megakaryoblast
3. c) Lymphoblast
4. d) Myeloblast
5. e) None of the selections are correct.

d

66) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate bacterial infection, stress, or inflammation?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

a

67) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate viral infections?

1. a) A & B
2. b) B & C
3. c) C & D
4. d) D & E
5. e) E & C

d

68) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate parasitic infection or autoimmune disease?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

b

69) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate cancer or hypothyroidism?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

c

70) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate fungal infection?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

e

71) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate pregnancy, ovulation, or hyperthyroidism?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

c

72) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate radiation exposure, or systemic lupus erythematosus?

1. a) A
2. b) B
3. c) C
4. d) D
5. e) E

a

73) Low counts of which two cell types shown in the figure may result from treatment with cortisol?

1. a) A & B
2. b) B & C
3. c) C & D
4. d) D & E
5. e) E & C

d

74) Serum is

1. a) the same as plasma.
2. b) plasma without the clotting factors.
3. c) the same as lymph.
4. d) formed during the first step in blood clotting.
5. e) pulmonary interstitial fluid.

b

75) Reduced vitamin B₁₂ absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called

1. a) hemorrhagic anemia.
2. b) aplastic anemia.
3. c) megaloblastic anemia.
4. d) pernicious anemia.
5. e) iron deficiency anemia.

d

76) Destruction of red bone marrow due to radiation results in

1. a) hemorrhagic anemia.
2. b) aplastic anemia.
3. c) megaloblastic anemia.
4. d) pernicious anemia.

b

77) A condition in which inadequate intake of vitamin B₁₂ or folic acid causes production of large abnormal red blood cells is called

1. a) hemorrhagic anemia.
2. b) aplastic anemia.
3. c) megaloblastic anemia.
4. d) pernicious anemia.
5. e) iron deficiency anemia.

c

78) Anemia is defined as

1. a) a condition where blood does not clot properly.
2. b) a condition where blood cells are lysed by the immune response.
3. c) a condition where there is excessive bleeding.
4. d) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.
5. e) none of these choices.

d

80) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is

1. a) 4 to 5 years.
2. b) 4 to 5 hours.
3. c) 5 to 9 days.
4. d) 120 days.
5. e) 120 weeks.

d

81) Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and platelets?

1. a) no nucleus
2. b) large segmented nucleus
3. c) cytoplasmic granules
4. d) lifespan of 5 to 9 days
5. e) develop from myeloblasts

a

82) Which of the following formed elements in blood is removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation?

1. a) erythrocytes
2. b) platelets
3. c) monocytes
4. d) basophils
5. e) eosinophils

b

83) A cord-blood transplant involves obtaining the stem cells to transplant into the diseased patient from

1. a) the spermatic cord of a donor’s testes.
2. b) the spinal cord of the patient.
3. c) the umbilical cord of a donor shortly after birth.
4. d) the irradiated bone marrow of the patient.
5. e) the spinal cord of an aborted fetus.

c

84) If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood, which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient?

1. a) Agglutination (clumping) of the transfused blood cells.
2. b) Complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells.
3. c) Released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys.
4. d) There would be no adverse reactions as these blood types are compatible.

a,b,c

85) Which of the following blood types is a person whose blood cells were agglutinated by both anti-A serum and anti-B serum, but not by anti-Rh serum?

1. a) AB negative
2. b) AB positive
3. c) O negative
4. d) O positive
5. e) None of the selections are correct

a