front 1 1) Which of the following groups of people are NOT involved in the development of an advertiser's media plan? A) agency's media department B) agency's account and creative teams C) marketer's brand management group D) media buying companies E) advertiser's operations staff | back 1 E |
front 2 2) Which of the following refers to information such as demographic profiles of current customers, response to previous promotions, product sales and distribution patterns, and the budget of how much can be spent on media? A) client information B) market research C) competitive advertising D) consumer information E) media information | back 2 A |
front 3 3) A valuable tool for media planners, ________ is provided by companies such as MRI and is usually organized by product category and cross-tabulated by audience groups and their consumption patterns. A) client information B) market research C) competitive advertising D) media usage profiles E) media coverage area | back 3 B |
front 4 4) Which of the following is a standard research display format that allows multiple variables of related data to be grouped together? A) CrossTab B) CrossRelate C) Multivariate D) Univariate E) CrossIndex | back 4 A |
front 5 5) Which concept refers to marketers tracking how much competing brands spend on media compared to how much they are spending on their particular brand? A) share of market B) share of voice C) share of media D) share of spending E) share of category | back 5 B |
front 6 6) One type of media-related information about markets is the broadcast coverage area for television, which is called a(n) ________ and is referred to by the name of the largest city in the area. A) metropolitan statistical area (MSA) B) area of influence (AOI) C) designated marketing area (DMA) D) metropolitan marketing area (MMA) E) designated commerce area (DCA) | back 6 C |
front 7 7) A designated marketing area (DMA) assignment is based on ________. A) the population of the surrounding area B) the number of television stations in the area C) the number of broadcast media outlets available D) how many households have cable or satellite television E) which city provides the majority of the households' TV programming | back 7 E |
front 8 8) Which of the following is a written document that summarizes the objectives and strategies that guide how media dollars will be spent? A) corporate plan B) marketing plan C) advertising plan D) media plan E) message plan | back 8 D |
front 9 9) When developing a media plan, a planner considers ________, which include exposure to traditional mass media, word of mouth, place-based media, in-store brand exposures, and interactive media. A) contact points B) gross rating points C) aperture points D) impression points E) rating points | back 9 A |
front 10 10) ________ media are chosen based on metrics such as GRPs and CPMs, while new media depends more on factors like brand experience, involvement, and personal impact. A) Independent B) Social C) Measured D) Analog E) Digital | back 10 C |
front 11 11) What is the first of the four basic steps in media planning? A) developing a media strategy B) setting media objectives C) analyzing metrics D) identifying the target audience E) purchasing media | back 11 D |
front 12 12) ________ describe what a company wants to accomplish regarding the delivery of its brand messages and their impact on the target audience. A) Reach objectives B) Media objectives C) Frequency objectives D) Measured media E) Average frequencies | back 12 B |
front 13 13) Which concept describes the percent of people exposed to a brand message one or more times within a specified period of time? A) reach B) frequency C) continuity D) impression E) target | back 13 A |
front 14 14) If a company wants to increase the percent of people exposed to its message during its media campaign, then the company is trying to increase its ________. A) frequency B) target C) reach D) objectives E) aperture | back 14 C |
front 15 15) Which of the following is typically the place to start when setting objectives for a media plan? A) frequency B) continuity C) lead time D) distribution E) reach | back 15 E |
front 16 16) The ________ of a specific media vehicle is the percentage of that vehicle's audience that matches the brand's target market. A) frequency distribution B) targeted reach C) effective frequency D) targeted frequency E) reach distribution | back 16 B |
front 17 17) The number of people in the vehicle's audience who are neither customers nor prospects is called ________. A) reach distribution B) carryover C) wasted reach D) average frequency E) aperture | back 17 C |
front 18 18) Which concept refers to the repetition of message exposure? A) reach B) frequency C) continuity D) impression E) carryover | back 18 B |
front 19 19) Which two methods do media planners use to estimate the frequency of a schedule? A) pulsing and flighting B) weighted frequency and weighted reach C) average frequency and gross frequency D) average frequency and frequency distribution E) gross frequency and frequency distribution | back 19 D |
front 20 20) Which of the following statements is false regarding average frequency and/or frequency distribution? A) Most planners prefer to use average frequency instead of frequency distribution. B) Average frequency can give the planner a distorted idea of the plan's performance. C) The frequency distribution method is more revealing than the average frequency method of reporting repetition. D) The frequency distribution shows the percentage of audience reached at each level of repetition. E) The range of frequency is often large; some in the target audience can see a brand message once while others may see it 10 times within a given period. | back 20 A |
front 21 21) What is a general rule of thumb regarding the number of exposures needed for a message to sink in? A) one to two B) two to three C) three to ten D) four to five E) ten to fifteen | back 21 C |
front 22 22) Which concept refers to adding frequency to reach until reaching a level where people respond? A) aperture reach B) carryover C) average frequency D) frequency distribution E) effective frequency | back 22 E |
front 23 23) Media planners determine the most cost-effective media mix that will reach the target audience and satisfy the media objectives through the ________. A) marketing strategy B) advertising strategy C) media strategy D) media tactics E) media evaluation | back 23 C |
front 24 24) A media strategy that involves high ________ would involve creating broad exposure using many media vehicles, while a strategy involving high ________ would be narrower in focus with a more limited list of media vehicles. A) continuity, aperture B) aperture, continuity C) frequency, reach D) reach, frequency E) distribution, reach | back 24 D |
front 25 25) Most brands use a variety of targeted media vehicles known as a ________. A) media mix B) media strategy C) heavy-up schedule D) continuous strategy E) flighting strategy | back 25 A |
front 26 26) Which of the following is NOT a reason most organizations need a variety of ways to get their messages out to their customers? A) A media plan would not be able to attain the desired level of reach and frequency if it relied on just one medium. B) Using a number of media distributes the message more widely because different media tend to have different audience profiles. C) Some people reject certain media. D) Different media have different strengths in terms of reach and frequency. E) It could add exposure in less expensive media and have attractive characteristics that enhance the creative message. | back 26 A |
front 27 27) What type of schedule is used when proportionately more of the marketing budget is spent in special regions or DMAs? A) continuous schedule B) flighting schedule C) heavy-up schedule D) pulsing schedule E) frequency schedule | back 27 C |
front 28 28) Which of the following is an index of the relative consumption rate of a particular product category in a particular market? A) product development index (PDI) B) category development index (CDI) C) brand development index (BDI) D) buying power index (BPI) E) market share index (MSI) | back 28 B |
front 29 29) Which of the following is an index which estimates the strength of a brand in various geographical areas? A) product development index (PDI) B) category development index (CDI) C) brand development index (BDI) D) buying power index (BPI) E) brand share index (BSI) | back 29 C |
front 30 30) When is it advisable to use newspapers in the media plan? A) The product has a news element, such as new features or formulation. B) There is a need to demonstrate the product. C) The product requires little information. D) The quality of image is an important factor. E) There is a need to reach a geographically diverse audience. | back 30 A |
front 31 31) When is it NOT advisable to use magazines in the media plan? A) The target market is defined by some special interest. B) The product needs to be shown accurately and beautifully. C) A high quality image is important. D) There is a need to explain how something works. E) There is a need to demonstrate the product. | back 31 E |
front 32 32) When is it advisable to use out-of-home media in the media plan?
E) The brand can benefit from being associated with celebrities | back 32 D |
front 33 33) When is NOT advisable to use radio in the media plan?
E) The target audience aligns with certain types of music | back 33 B |
front 34 34) When is it advisable to use the Internet in the media plan? A) The product is not distributed nationally. B) There is a need for a situational, place-based message. C) The target audience is difficult to reach with traditional media. D) The quality of image is not a factor. E) The plan calls to "heavy up" in certain cities or regions where sales are higher. | back 34 C |
front 35 35) Prospective customers for a product or service have one or more ideal times and places at which they can be reached with an advertising message. This ideal point is called a(n) ________. A) aperture B) contact point C) touch point D) impression E) pulse | back 35 A |
front 36 36) Which media scheduling decision relates to factors such as seasonality, holidays, and days of the week? A) duration B) continuity C) timing D) carryover E) reach | back 36 C |
front 37 37) What concept refers to the amount of time allowed before the beginning of the sales period to reach people when they are just beginning to think about seasonal buying? A) continuity B) lead time C) duration D) flow E) just-in-time | back 37 B |
front 38 38) What concept refers to the production time needed to get the advertisement in to the medium? A) continuity B) lead time C) duration D) flow E) just-in-time | back 38 B |
front 39 39) Which of the following is NOT a media scheduling strategy media planners must consider?
E) when to advertise | back 39 D |
front 40 Objective: 14-2 40) Other than timing, what are two other important scheduling strategies?
| back 40 A |
front 41 41) If an advertising period is too long, ads may suffer from ________, which means the audience gets tired of them and stops paying attention. A) carryover B) pulsing C) weighting D) wearout E) aperture | back 41 D |
front 42 42) ________ refers to the way the advertising is spread over the length of a campaign. A) Continuity B) Lead time C) Duration D) Flow E) Just-in-time | back 42 A |
front 43 43) Which schedule spreads the advertising evenly over the campaign? A) pulsing B) flighting C) continuous D) carryover E) lead-in | back 43 C |
front 44 44) Which type of schedule is designed to intensify advertising before a buying aperture and then to reduce advertising to lower levels until the aperture opens again? A) pulsing B) flighting C) continuous D) carryover E) lead-in | back 44 A |
front 45 45) After the schedule has been worked out in terms of what media run when and for how long, these decisions are ________. A) written in a report to the client B) given rating points C) plotted on a scatter plot D) plotted on a media flow chart E) plotted on a scree plot | back 45 D |
front 46 46) Which of the following is characterized by alternating periods of intense advertising activity and periods of no advertising? A) pulsing B) flighting C) continuous scheduling D) flow scheduling E) lead-in | back 46 B |
front 47 47) The period of time during which there is no advertising during a flighting schedule is called a ________. A) flight B) pulse C) down time D) carryover E) hiatus | back 47 E |
front 48 48) If a flighting strategy works, there will be a ________, which means that consumers will remember the product across the gap until the next advertising period begins. A) carryover effect B) hiatus C) lead time effect D) push E) pull | back 48 A |
front 49 49) What decision criterion do media planners use to help decide how much to budget in each DMA or region and for each target audience? A) image transfer B) average frequency C) effective frequency D) weighting E) optimum frequency | back 49 D |
front 50 50) In the case of designated marketing areas (DMAs), weak markets may be given more than their share of media weight in the hopes of strengthening the brands in these markets, a practice known as ________. A) investment spending B) pull spending C) push spending D) flighting E) weighting | back 50 A |
front 51 51) ________ indicate the weight, or efficiency, of a media plan by estimating the reach and frequency. A) Targeted costs per thousand (TCPMs) B) Costs per point (CPPs) C) Targeted rating points (TRPs) D) Gross rating points (GRPs) E) Designated marketing areas (DMAs) | back 51 D |
front 52 52) The estimate of ________ adjusts the calculation of an audience to exclude waste coverage so it more accurately reflects the percentage of the target audience watching a program. A) insertions B) gross rating points (GRPs) C) targeted rating points (TRPs) D) efficient frequency E) targeted reach | back 52 C |
front 53 53) Which calculation of efficiency is an estimate of the cost of getting 1,000 impressions? A) cost per point B) cost per thousand C) cost per impression D) brand development index E) category development index | back 53 B |
front 54 54) What does CPM stand for? A) cost per million B) cost per impression C) cost per thousand D) cost per point E) cost per medium | back 54 C |
front 55 55) To be more precise and determine the efficiency of a potential media buy, planners often look at the ________.
E) brand development index (CDI | back 55 A |
front 56 56) What two figures are needed to calculate CPM? A) cost of an ad and program or issue rating B) cost of an ad and frequency of exposure C) average frequency and estimated target audience reached by media vehicle D) cost of an ad and estimated audience reached by media vehicle E) gross rating points and reach | back 56 D |
front 57 57) Which is a method of comparing media vehicles by estimating the cost of reaching 1 million households based on a program's rating points? A) cost per point (CPP) B) cost per thousand (CPM) C) cost per prospect (CPP) D) brand development index (BDI) E) category development index (CDI) | back 57 A |
front 58 58) ________ techniques enable marketers to determine the relative impact of a media mix on product sales by using computer models that calculate the weight of a media schedule and optimize the schedule for the greatest impact. A) Aperture B) Frequency C) Weighting D) Reach E) Optimization | back 58 E |
front 59 59) Media planners may strive to create ________ in a media plan, which means the various media work together to create coherent brand communication. A) cross-media integration B) consumer interactivity C) footprints D) media complexities E) multichannel communication | back 59 A |
front 60 60) Which of the following refers to the way radio reinforces and re-creates in a listener's mind a message that was originally delivered by other media? A) image transfer B) aperture C) lead-in D) bleed-through E) pre-emption | back 60 A |
front 61 61) Which of the following is the most important function of media buying? A) providing information to media planners B) matching the media vehicle to the strategic needs of the message C) negotiating cost and making the media buy D) handling all billing and payment E) monitoring the media plan performance | back 61 B |
front 62 62) Which of the following is a function of a media buyer? A) design and create ads B) personally create in-depth market research C) find and connect agencies to handle billing and payment D) promote certain types of media E) negotiate cost and make the media buy | back 62 E |
front 63 63) Which of the following is NOT a function of a media buyer? A) provide information to media planners B) evaluate media choice after campaign C) negotiate cost and make the media buy D) handle all billing and payment E) design and promote advertising campaigns | back 63 E |
front 64 64) With the current trend toward using other forms of marketing communication in addition to advertising, buyers often demand additional promotional support; these activities are sometimes called ________. A) add-ons B) make-goods C) value-added media services D) preferred placements E) incentives | back 64 C |
front 65 65) Media buyers must bargain for ________, the locations in magazines and other print media that offer readership advantage. A) consolidated services B) bleed-throughs C) program preemptions D) closings E) preferred positions | back 65 E |
front 66 66) Policies of compensating advertisers for errors, such as missed positions or errors in handling the message presentation, are known as ________. A) preemptions B) make goods C) up-fronts D) preferred positions E) remuneration | back 66 B |
front 67 67) Magazines and newspapers have clearly set production deadlines called ________. A) closings B) make goods C) lead times D) preemptions E) drop-deads | back 67 A |
front 68 68) The growth of media buying services as separate companies that specialize in media buying has shifted the way the media industry is organized. This is referred to as ________. A) consolidating media services B) acquiring media services C) spinning media services D) unbundling media services E) detaching media services | back 68 D |
front 69 69) Why have several advertising agencies unbundled their media buying function? A) Agencies were required to unbundle their media buying function by the FTC. B) An agency could become more of an expert in media buying if it was removed from the overall agency structure. C) This allows media groups to work for clients who may be competitors to some of those handled by the agency. D) Agencies want to focus on single clients. E) Agencies could better consolidate it with the media planning function. | back 69 C |
front 70 70) Media companies that have brought the planning and buying functions back together offer ________. A) value-added services B) consolidated services C) make goods D) bundled media services E) lead-in services | back 70 B |
front 71 71) Media planners examine client information, market research, competitive advertising expenditures, media kits, media coverage area, and consumer behavior reports before media decision-making begins. T F | back 71 T |
front 72 72) The broadcast coverage area for television is called a designated marketing area (DMA) and is referred to by the name of the largest city in the area. T F | back 72 T |
front 73 73) The four basic steps in media planning are targeting, setting media objectives, developing media strategies, and analyzing the metrics of a media plan. T F | back 73 T |
front 74 74) Media objectives refer to the repetition of message exposure. T F | back 74 F |
front 75 75) The two basic media objectives are reach and frequency. T F | back 75 T |
front 76 76) Reach is the percentage of people exposed to a brand message one or more times within a specific period of time. T F | back 76 T |
front 77 77) The number of people in the vehicle's audience who are neither customers nor prospects is called wasted reach. T F | back 77 T |
front 78 78) In terms of frequency, a general rule of thumb is that it takes more than 10 exposures for a message to sink in. T F | back 78 F |
front 79 79) The idea behind the concept of effective frequency is that you add frequency to reach until you get to the level where people respond T F | back 79 T |
front 80 80) Developing a media strategy is the fourth and final step in developing a media plan. T F | back 80 F |
front 81 81) One reason that organizations use a variety of ways to get their messages out to consumers is the fact that some people reject certain media. T F | back 81 T |
front 82 82) In most cases, the media plan will identify special regions or cities to be emphasized with a heavy-up schedule, which means proportionately more of the budget is spent in those areas. T F | back 82 T |
front 83 83) It's best to use radio for advertising if you want to reach an upscale, well-educated audience and the product has a news element, such as new features or formulation. T F | back 83 F |
front 84 84) National television is an effective advertising outlet to reach a wide, mass audience T F | back 84 T |
front 85 85) Aperture is the point where a consumer has an opportunity to connect with a brand and respond in some way to a brand message. T F | back 85 F |
front 86 86) When considering scheduling strategies, the most important questions are when to advertise, how long, and how often (timing, duration, and continuity). T F | back 86 T |
front 87 87) A pulsing strategy is the most severe type of continuity adjustment and is characterized by alternating periods of intense advertising activity and periods of no advertising. T F | back 87 F |
front 88 88) Media planners often use a decision criterion called weighting to help them decide how much to budget. T F | back 88 T |
front 89 89) Gross rating points (GRPs) indicate an approximate measure of the reach and frequency of a media plan, as well as the plan's efficiency. T F | back 89 T |
front 90 90) The measure of gross rating points (GRPs) doesn't include any waste coverage or audience members outside the target audience. T F | back 90 F |
front 91 91) Cost per thousand (CPM) is a measure used to determine the effectiveness of a media vehicle. T F | back 91 F |
front 92 92) The cost per point (CPP) is calculated by multiplying the cost of the ad by 1,000 and dividing that number by the readers in the target audience. T F | back 92 F |
front 93 93) Media selection has little to do with the brand message. T F | back 93 F |
front 94 94) A true global medium does not currently exist. T F | back 94 T |
front 95 95) Media buyers should be consulted early in planning, as they are a good source of information on changes in media. T F | back 95 T |
front 96 96) Media buyers negotiate rates, preferred positions, and extra support offers on behalf of their clients. T F | back 96 T |
front 97 97) Once the media purchases have been made, the media buyer is no longer involved with the advertising campaign T F | back 97 F |
front 98 98) Program preemptions, missed closings, and/or technical problems caused by the media often lead to the offer of make-goods to the advertiser. T F | back 98 T |
front 99 99) Multichannel deals are a result of media convergence that allow advertisers to purchase media across all platforms with a single deal. T F | back 99 T |
front 100 100) Unbundling media services has allowed media groups to work for clients who may be competitors of those handled by the agency. T F | back 100 T |
front 101 101) Information provided by various media is most useful for media planners because it best reflects the true value of the medium to advertisers. T F | back 101 F |
front 102 102) Average frequency gives the planner the best picture of the plan's performance. T F | back 102 F |
front 103 103) The frequency distribution method is more revealing, and thus more valuable, than the average frequency method. T F | back 103 T |
front 104 104) The tighter the focus on a target market, the more difficult it is to find appropriate media to deliver a relevant message. T F | back 104 F |
front 105 105) Planners typically make heavier advertising allocations in weak sales areas because these are the areas that promise the greatest growth. T F | back 105 F |