front 1 The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ______ anatomy. A) developmental B) gross C) systemic D) microscopic | back 1 B) gross |
front 2 Average body temperature is _____ degrees centigrade. A) 47 B) 98 C) 37 D) 68 | back 2 C) 37 |
front 3 What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback? A) to regulate excretion via the kidneys B) to maintain homeostasis C) to control body movement D) to keep the body's blood sugar level high | back 3 B) to maintain homeostasis |
front 4 The heart lies in the _____ cavity. A) pleural B) pericardial C) dorsal D) superior mediastinal | back 4 B) pericardial |
front 5 A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n) ________. A) organ B) complex tissue C) organ system D) complex cell | back 5 A) organ |
front 6 Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind? A) anterior B) lateral C) dorsal D) distal | back 6 C) dorsal |
front 7 The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is ________. A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) water D) protein | back 7 C) water |
front 8 Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms? A) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body. B) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms. C) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host. D) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus. | back 8 A) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body. |
front 9 The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________. A) thumbs pointed laterally B) body erect C) palms turned posteriorly D) arms at sides | back 9 C) palms turned posteriorly |
front 10 A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________. A) body temperature regulation B) enhancement of labor contractions C) regulating glucose levels in the blood D) blood calcium level regulation | back 10 B) enhancement of labor contractions |
front 11 Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli? A) nervous B) muscular C) immune D) lymphatic | back 11 A) nervous |
front 12 Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________. A) a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances B) a static state with no deviation from preset points C) the lowest possible energy usage D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits | back 12 D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits |
front 13 Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
A) 1-2-3-4-5 B) 1-2-4-3-5 C) 2-1-4-3-5 D) 2-1-3-4-5 | back 13 C) 2-1-4-3-5 |
front 14 Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity? A) spinal cord B) thoracic cavity C) cranial cavity D) vertebral cavity | back 14 B) thoracic cavity |
front 15 The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following? A) brain B) liver C) lungs D) intestines | back 15 A) brain |
front 16 One of the functional characteristics of life is excitability or responsiveness. This refers to ________. A) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them B) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce C) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system D) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger | back 16 A) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them |
front 17 What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called? A) frontal B) transverse C) regional D) sagittal | back 17 D) sagittal |
front 18 What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called? A) transverse B) sagittal C) frontal D) median | back 18 C) frontal |
front 19 The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________. A) three-dimensional structure of the double helix B) arrangement of the histones C) sequence of the nucleotides D) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules | back 19 C) sequence of the nucleotides |
front 20 Which of the following is not true of proteins? A) They have both functional and structural roles in the body.. B) Their function depends on their three-dimensional shape. C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information. D) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity | back 20 C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information. |
front 21 Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________. A) glycogen B) cholesterol C) triglycerides D) glucose | back 21 A) glycogen |
front 22 Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes? A) Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor. B) Some enzymes are purely protein. C) Each enzyme is chemically specific. D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation. | back 22 D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation. |
front 23 A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________. A) a synthesis B) forming a larger molecule C) the release of energy D) the consumption of energy | back 23 C) the release of energy |
front 24 Salts are always ________. A) hydrogen bonded B) double covalent compounds C) ionic compounds D) single covalent compounds | back 24 C) ionic compounds |
front 25 The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom? A) 2, 8 B) 2, 8, 8 C) 2 D) 2, 8, 1 | back 25 D) 2, 8, 1 |
front 26 Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? A) NaCl B) H2O C) NaOH D) CH4 | back 26 D) CH4 |
front 27 What level of protein synthesis is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix? A) secondary structure B) primary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure | back 27 A) secondary structure |
front 28 Which of the following statements is false? A) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions, sometimes while undergoing reversible changes in shape. B) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures. C) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers. D) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully. | back 28 D) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully. |
front 29 Which of the following does not describe uses for the ATP molecule? A) mechanical work B) transport across membranes C) pigment structure D) chemical work | back 29 C) pigment structure |
front 30 Which of the following is an example of a suspension? A) blood B) cytoplasm C) rubbing alcohol D) salt water | back 30 A) blood |
front 31 Select the correct statement about isotopes. A) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons but differing numbers of electrons. B) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements. C) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses. D) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive. | back 31 C) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses. |
front 32 The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________. A) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium C) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen | back 32 A) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen |
front 33 You notice that you cannot read your book through a test tube of patient fluid held against the print, making it so blurred as to be unreadable. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days in a rack. What type of liquid is this? A) solution B) suspension C) mixture D) colloid | back 33 D) colloid |
front 34 Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell? A) 5 B) 10 C) 7 D) 3 | back 34 C) 7 |
front 35 If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following? A) 37 electrons B) 37 protons and 37 electrons C) 37 protons and 37 neutrons D) 74 protons | back 35 D) 74 protons |
front 36 What does the formula C6H12O6 mean? A) There are, 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms. B) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms. C) The substance is a colloid. D) The molecular weight is 24. | back 36 A) There are, 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms. |
front 37 An atom with a valence of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons. A) 3 B) 17 C) 13 D) 8 | back 37 C) 13 |
front 38 The chemical symbol O=O means ________. A) zero equals zero B) the atoms are double bonded C) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons D) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit | back 38 B) the atoms are double bonded |
front 39 Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction. A) exchange B) synthesis C) reversible D) decomposition | back 39 B) synthesis |
front 40 Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate? A) temperature B) time C) concentration D) particle size | back 40 B) time |
front 41 Sucrose is a ________. A) triglyceride B) polysaccharide C) disaccharide D) monosaccharide | back 41 C) disaccharide |
front 42 What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in neutral fats? A) 3:1 B) 4:1 C) 1:1 D) 2:1 | back 42 A) 3:1 |
front 43 Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape? A) Carbon B) Oxygen C) Hydrogen D) Amino acid | back 43 C) Hydrogen |
front 44 If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be the _____. A) variable B) control center C) receptor D) effector | back 44 B) control center |
front 45 In which body cavities are the lung located? A) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal B) pleural, ventral, and thoracic C) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic C) mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral | back 45 B) pleural, ventral, and thoracic |
front 46 Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance? A) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed. B) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally. C) It is considered the cause of most diseases. D) The internal environment is becoming more stable. | back 46 C) It is considered the cause of most diseases. |
front 47 Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the _____. A) removal of a water molecule between each two units B) removal of a carbon atom between each two units C) addition of a water molecule between each two units D) addition of a carbon molecule between each two untis | back 47 A) removal of a water molecule between each two units |
front 48 What does CH4 mean? A) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms B) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms C) This is an inorganic molecule D) This was involved in a redox reaction | back 48 B) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms |
front 49 When two atoms share a pair of electrons the chemical bond formed is called? A) covalent B) ionic C) weak D) hydrogen | back 49 A) covalent |
front 50 When one atom donates an electron to another atom the chemical bond that forms is called? A) covalent B) ionic C) weak D) hydrogen | back 50 B) ionic |
front 51 The type of molecule that forms when there is not equal sharing of electrons across the molecule setting up a partial positive and partial negative side is called? A) neutral B) polar C) uneven D)nonpolar | back 51 B) polar |
front 52 Histology would be beat defined as a study of _____. A) tissues B) cells C) the gross structures of the body D)cell chemistry | back 52 A) tissues |
front 53 Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells? A)sodium B) magnesium C) potassium D) hydrogen | back 53 A)sodium |
front 54 Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages? A) phagocytosis B) intracellular vesicular trafficking C) exocytosis D) pinocytosis | back 54 A) phagocytosis |
front 55 A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________. A) neither shrink nor swell B) swell and burst C) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached D) shrink | back 55 B) swell and burst |
front 56 Which of the following describes the plasma membrane? A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell B) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell C) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae D) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma | back 56 B) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell |
front 57 Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells? A) microvilli B) flagella C) primary cilia D) stereocilia | back 57 A) microvilli |
front 58 Which of the following statements is correct regarding net diffusion? A) The rate is independent of temperature. B) The lower the temperature, the faster the rate. C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate. D) The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate. | back 58 D) The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate. |
front 59 Which type of cell junction acts as anchors and distributes tension through a cellular sheet and reduces the chance of tearing when it is subjected to great mechanical stress? A) tight junctions B) desmosomes C) connexons D) gap junctions | back 59 B) desmosomes |
front 60 If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen? A) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent. B) The cells will swell and ultimately burst. C) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition. D) The cells will lose water and shrink. | back 60 D) The cells will lose water and shrink. |
front 61 Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens? A) The phagocytized material is stored until further breakdown can occur.. B) The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchanged. C) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material. D) A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the "invader" to form new protein. | back 61 C) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material. |
front 62 Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane? A) glycoproteins B) phospholipids C) glycolipids D) messenger RNA | back 62 D) messenger RNA |
front 63 The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of pinwheel array of 9 triplets of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a ________. A) chromosome B) centriole C) ribosome D) centrosome | back 63 B) centriole |
front 64 Passive membrane transport processes include ________. A) movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration B) consumption of ATP C) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration | back 64 C) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient |
front 65 Mitochondria ________. A) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell B) are always the same shape C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function D) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP | back 65 C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function |
front 66 Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This statement is ________. A) false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way B) false; lipids, not proteins, are synthesized this way C) true D) false; proteins thus manufactured are for use inside the cell only | back 66 A) false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way |
front 67 Peroxisomes ________. A) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis B) sometimes function as secretory vesicles C) are also called microbodies, and contain acid hydrolases D) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action | back 67 D) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action |
front 68 Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes? A) breaking down bone to release calcium ions into the blood B) forming acid hydrolases which are necessary to help form cell membranes C) digesting particles taken in by endocytosis D) degrading worn-out or nonfunctional organelles | back 68 B) forming acid hydrolases which are necessary to help form cell membranes |
front 69 The main component of the cytosol is ________. A) proteins B) salts C) water D) sugars | back 69 C) water |
front 70 A gene can best be defined as ________. A) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain B) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide C) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid D) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long | back 70 A) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain |
front 71 Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is found in bone? A) living cells B) blood vessels C) organic fibers D) lacunae | back 71 B) blood vessels |
front 72 What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? A) cartilage tissue B) fibrocartilaginous tissue C) areolar tissue D) osseous tissue | back 72 D) osseous tissue |
front 73 The simple columnar epithelium that form absorptive cells of the digestive tract have which characteristic? A) a rich vascular supply B) cilia C) dense microvilli D) fibroblasts | back 73 C) dense microvilli |
front 74 Pseudostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety ________. A) aids in digestion B) lines most of the respiratory tract C) is not an epithelial classification D) possesses no goblet cells | back 74 B) lines most of the respiratory tract |
front 75 Which of the following is a single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes? A) simple squamous B) simple cuboidal C) simple columnar D) pseudostratified columnar | back 75 A) simple squamous |
front 76 Which statement best describes connective tissue? A) typically arranged in a single layer of cells B) usually lines a body cavity C) usually contains a large amount of matrix D) primarily concerned with secretion | back 76 C) usually contains a large amount of matrix |
front 77 Connective tissue matrix is composed of ________. A) fibers and ground substance B) cells and fibers C) ground substance and cells D) all organic compounds | back 77 A) fibers and ground substance |
front 78 The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. A) collagen B) reticular C) muscle D) elastic | back 78 A) collagen |
front 79 Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a(n) ________. A) organ B) organism C) tissue D) organ system | back 79 C) tissue |
front 80 The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________. A) elastic cartilage B) hyaline cartilage C) adipose tissue D) fibrocartilage | back 80 A) elastic cartilage |
front 81 Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue? A) simple columnar B) stratified squamous C) transitional D) simple squamous | back 81 A) simple columnar |
front 82 Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. A) endocrine B) sebaceous C) exocrine D) ceruminous | back 82 A) endocrine |
front 83 Chondroblasts ________. A) remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes B) never lose their ability to divide C) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae D) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix | back 83 D) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix |
front 84 ________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. A) Stratified columnar B) Pseudostratified columnar C) Transitional D) Stratified cuboidal | back 84 B) Pseudostratified columnar |
front 85 A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________. A) stratified squamous B) simple cuboidal C) simple squamous D) transitional | back 85 A) stratified squamous |
front 86 Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands? A) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves. B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion. C) These glands are ductless. D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process | back 86 D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process |
front 87 Which is true concerning muscle tissue? A) highly cellular and well vascularized B) contains contractile units made of collagen C) is a single-celled tissue D) cuboidal shape enhances function | back 87 A) highly cellular and well vascularized |
front 88 The first step in tissue repair involves ________. A) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue B) formation of scar tissue C) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells D) inflammation | back 88 D) inflammation |
front 89 What are the three main components of connective tissue? A) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers B) ground substance, fibers, and cells C) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts D) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells | back 89 B) ground substance, fibers, and cells |
front 90 Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? A) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength. B) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers. C) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures. D) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back. | back 90 A) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength. |
front 91 Select the correct statement regarding epithelia. A) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells. B) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers. C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important. D) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another. | back 91 C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important. |
front 92 Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue. A) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix. B) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic. C) Its primary function is nutrient storage. D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus. | back 92 C) Its primary function is nutrient storage. |
front 93 Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue. A) reticular B) embryonic C) dense regular D) areolar | back 93 B) embryonic |
front 94 Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? A) steroid-based hormone synthesis B) breakdown of stored glycogen to form free glucose C) protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes D) lipid metabolism and cholesterol synthesis | back 94 C) protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes |
front 95 Which of the following is FALSE regarding the membrane potential? A) The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump. B) The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes. C) In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential D) The resting membrane potential is determined mainly by the concentration gradients and differential permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ and Na+ ions. | back 95 B) The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes. |
front 96 The functions of centrioles include ______. A) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis B) producing ATP C) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division D) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substance along cell surfaces | back 96 C) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division |
front 97 Cell type not found in areolar connective tissue. A) chondrocytes B) macrophages C) mast cells D)fibroblasts | back 97 A) chondrocytes |
front 98 A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum B) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale D) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum | back 98 C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale |
front 99 The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________. A) cuticle B) medulla C) external root sheath D) cortex | back 99 C) external root sheath |
front 100 A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured? A) granulosum B) spinosum C) basale D) lucidum | back 100 C) basale |
front 101 Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does? A) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair. B) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair. C) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts. D) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin. | back 101 C) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts. |
front 102 The function of the root hair plexus is to ________. A) bind the hair root to the dermis B) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed C) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation D) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle | back 102 C) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation |
front 103 Which glands produce ear wax? A) Ceruminous glands B) Eccrine Glands C) Apocrine glands D) Merocrine glands | back 103 A) Ceruminous glands |
front 104 Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________. A) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer B) maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules C) maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature D) provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis | back 104 A) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer |
front 105 The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? A) stratum basale B) stratum corneum C) stratum lucidum D) stratum granulosum | back 105 A) stratum basale |
front 106 The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function? A) macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell) B) tactile cells C) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile D) cells found in the stratum spinosum | back 106 A) macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell) |
front 107 Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin? A) The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments. B) Fat associated with skin prevents water loss. C) Lamellar granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces. D) The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it. | back 107 C) Lamellar granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces. |
front 108 The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis? A) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells B) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells C) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes D) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes | back 108 B) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells |
front 109 The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? A) the papillary layer B) the subcutaneous layer C) the reticular layer D) the hypodermal layer | back 109 C) the reticular layer |
front 110 Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn? A) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear. B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis. C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent "black-and-blue marks." D) There is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles. | back 110 B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis. |
front 111 The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called: A) ceruminous glands. B) dermal papillae. C) hair follicles. D) reticular papillae. | back 111 B) dermal papillae. |
front 112 Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage? A) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system. B) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color. C) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen. D) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight. | back 112 C) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen. |
front 113 Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease? A) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin. B) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint. C) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance. D) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause. | back 113 C) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance. |
front 114 What are the most important factors influencing hair growth? A) sex and hormones B) the size and number of hair follicles C) nutrition and hormones D) age and glandular products | back 114 C) nutrition and hormones |
front 115 Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands? A) sebaceous and merocrine B) eccrine and apocrine C) holocrine and mammary D) mammary and ceruminous | back 115 B) eccrine and apocrine |
front 116 The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________. A) primarily uric acid B) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins C) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C D) metabolic wastes | back 116 C) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C |
front 117 Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body? A) in the axillary and anogenital area B) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis C) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet D) beneath the flexure lines in the body | back 117 A) in the axillary and anogenital area |
front 118 In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin? A) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases. B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body. C) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism. D) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy. | back 118 C) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism. |
front 119 What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn? A) catastrophic fluid loss B) loss of immune function C) unbearable pain D) infection | back 119 A) catastrophic fluid loss |
front 120 Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________. A) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle B) they grow much slower C) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months D) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length | back 120 C) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months |
front 121 Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss? A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist C) by using the "rule of nines" D) through blood analysis | back 121 C) by using the "rule of nines" |
front 122 The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress? A) trabecular bone B) spongy bone C) compact bone D) irregular bone | back 122 C) compact bone |
front 123 Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________. A) elastic tissue B) Sharpey's fibers C) fat D) blood-forming cells | back 123 C) fat |
front 124 The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. A) chondrocyte B) osteocyte C) osteoclast D) osteoblast | back 124 D) osteoblast |
front 125 What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? A) elastic connective tissue B) fibrocartilage C) dense fibrous connective tissue D) hyaline cartilage | back 125 D) hyaline cartilage |
front 126 What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause? A) increased osteoclast activity B) inadequate calcification of bone C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage D) decreased osteoclast activity | back 126 C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage |
front 127 A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. A) articular cartilage B) diaphysis C) epiphysis D) metaphysis | back 127 B) diaphysis |
front 128 The term diploë refers to the ________. A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone B) two types of marrow found within most bones C) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue D) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones | back 128 D) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones |
front 129 Which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates an armlike bar of bone? A) foramen B) ramus C) meatus D) fossa E) epicondyle | back 129 B) ramus |
front 130 What causes osteoporosis? A) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries. B) abnormal PTH receptors C) heritage such as African or Mediterranean D) poor posture | back 130 A) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries. |
front 131 Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood? A) Haversian system B) epiphyseal line C) lacunae D) epiphyseal plate | back 131 D) epiphyseal plate |
front 132 Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood? A) parathyroid hormone B) thyroid hormone C) calcium D) growth hormone | back 132 D) growth hormone |
front 133 Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? A) communication B) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) C) support D) storage of minerals | back 133 A) communication |
front 134 What is the structural unit of compact bone? A) lamellar bone B) the osteon C) spongy bone D) osseous matrix | back 134 B) the osteon |
front 135 Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________. A) marrow and osteons B) chondrocytes and osteocytes C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts D) cartilage and compact bone | back 135 C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
front 136 The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________. A) yellow marrow and spicules B) blood vessels and nerve fibers C) adipose tissue and nerve fibers D) cartilage and interstitial lamellae | back 136 B) blood vessels and nerve fibers |
front 137 For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? A) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue. B) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. D) A medullary cavity forms. | back 137 A) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue. |
front 138 The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________. A) appositional growth B) concentric growth C) closing of the epiphyseal plate D) epiphyseal plate closure | back 138 A) appositional growth |
front 139 Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? A) stem cell B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) osteocyte | back 139 C) osteoclast |
front 140 Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? A) thyroxine B) calcitonin C) parathyroid hormone D) estrogen | back 140 C) parathyroid hormone |
front 141 Wolff's law is concerned with ________. A) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it B) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age C) the function of bone being dependent on shape D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts | back 141 A) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it |
front 142 Cranial bones develop ________. A) within fibrous membranes B) from cartilage models C) from a tendon D) within osseous membranes | back 142 A) within fibrous membranes |
front 143 Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels? A) spleen B) pineal gland C) thyroid D) parathyroid | back 143 C) thyroid |
front 144 Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth? A) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage B) along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger C) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage D) growth at the epiphyseal plate | back 144 A) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage |
front 145 Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth? A) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within. B) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones. C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage. D) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage. | back 145 A) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within. |
front 146 The structural unit of spongy is called ________. A) lamellar bone B) osseous lamellae C) osteons D) trabeculae | back 146 D) trabeculae |
front 147 Osteogenesis is the process of ________. A) bone formation B) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone C) bone destruction to liberate calcium D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage | back 147 A) bone formation |
front 148 Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood? A) thyroid hormone B) somatomedins C) prolactin D) growth hormone | back 148 D) growth hormone |
front 149 In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause? A) elevated levels of sex hormones B) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity C) too much vitamin D in the diet D) overproduction of thyroid hormone | back 149 A) elevated levels of sex hormones |
front 150 Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________. A) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D B) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride C) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D D) sodium, calcium, and vitamin | back 150 C) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D |
front 151 What tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification? A) membranes B) cartilage C) bone D) fascia | back 151 B) cartilage |
front 152 The single most important risk for skin cancer is ______. A) race B) overexposure to UV radiation C) genetics D) use of farm chemicals | back 152 B) overexposure to UV radiation |
front 153 A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint. A) suture B) gomphosis C) syndesmosis D) synchondrosis | back 153 B) gomphosis |
front 154 The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________. A) prevent hyperextension of the knee B) tend to run parallel to one another C) are also called collateral ligaments D) attach to each other in their midportions | back 154 A) prevent hyperextension of the knee |
front 155 Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________. A) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints B) attach tendons C) form the synovial membrane D) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis) | back 155 A) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints |
front 156 A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________. A) gomphosis B) symphysis C) suture D) syndesmosis | back 156 B) symphysis |
front 157 On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue? A) symphysis B) pivot C) syndesmosis D) synchondrosis | back 157 C) syndesmosis |
front 158 Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________. A) menisci B) ligaments C) tendons D) bursae | back 158 D) bursae |
front 159 Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________. A) amphiarthroses B) diarthroses C) synarthroses D) synovial joints | back 159 A) amphiarthroses |
front 160 Which of the following are cartilaginous joints? A) Synchondroses B) Syndesmoses C) Gomphoses D) Sutures | back 160 A) Synchondroses |
front 161 The gliding motion of the wrist uses ________ joints. A) condyloid B) plane C) hinge D) pivot | back 161 B) plane |
front 162 The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________. A) patellar ligaments B) tibial collateral ligaments C) anterior ligaments D) cruciate ligaments | back 162 D) cruciate ligaments |
front 163 Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________. A) hyperextension B) flexion C) extension D) circumduction | back 163 A) hyperextension |
front 164 In the classification of joints, which of the following is true? A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses. B) All synovial joints are freely movable. C) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present. D) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable. | back 164 B) All synovial joints are freely movable. |
front 165 Synarthrotic joints ________. A) have large joint cavities B) are found only in adults C) permit essentially no movement D) are cartilaginous joints | back 165 C) permit essentially no movement |
front 166 Fibrous joints are classified as ________. A) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal B) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses C) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket D) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular | back 166 B) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses |
front 167 In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________. A) tendon sheaths B) hyaline cartilage C) fibrocartilage D) synovial membranes | back 167 B) hyaline cartilage |
front 168 Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid? A) It contains enzymes only. B) It contains hyaluronic acid. C) It contains lactic acid. D) It contains hydrochloric acid. | back 168 B) It contains hyaluronic acid. |
front 169 Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? A) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones B) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility C) joints that permit angular movements D) interphalangeal joints | back 169 A) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones |
front 170 What are menisci? A) tendon sheaths B) semilunar cartilage pads C) cavities lined with cartilage D) small sacs containing synovial fluid | back 170 B) semilunar cartilage pads |
front 171 Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements? A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints. B) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head. C) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs. D) Gliding movements are multiaxial. | back 171 A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints. |
front 172 What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called? A) inversion B) adduction C) abduction D) dorsiflexion | back 172 C) abduction |
front 173 The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________. A) feet B) hands and the feet C) arms D) hands | back 173 A) feet |
front 174 The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint. A) uniaxial B) multiaxial C) nonaxial D) biaxial | back 174 B) multiaxial |
front 175 Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones? A) abduction B) circumduction C) extension D) rotation | back 175 D) rotation |
front 176 Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________. A) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint B) common in all people who are overweight C) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures D) rare because of the ligament reinforcement | back 176 D) rare because of the ligament reinforcement |
front 177 Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped? A) the lateral patellar retinacula B) the extracapsular ligament C) the medial patellar retinacula D) the patellar ligament | back 177 D) the patellar ligament |
front 178 Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result? A) suprapatellar B) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate D) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligament | back 178 B) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate |
front 179 Pointing the toes is an example of ________. A) pronation B) protraction C) plantar flexion D) circumduction | back 179 C) plantar flexion |
front 180 Which of the following is a true statement? A) The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula. B) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process. C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint. D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius. | back 180 D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius. |
front 181 Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint? A) symphysis B) hinge joint C) suture D) synchondrosis | back 181 B) hinge joint |
front 182 Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________. A) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly B) cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together C) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella D) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements | back 182 D) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements |
front 183 Which of the following is a correct statement about development of joints? A) By the end of the fourth week, fetal synovial joints resemble adult joints. B) Joints develop in parallel with bones. C) All fibrous joints are in the adult form by the time of birth. D) Joints develop independent of bone growth. | back 183 B) Joints develop in parallel with bones. |
front 184 An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is ________. A) the radius and ulna along its length B) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends C) between the vertebrae D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity | back 184 A) the radius and ulna along its length |
front 185 Which of the following statements best describes angular movements? A) They allow movement in several planes. B) They allow movement only in one plane. C) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes. D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones. | back 185 D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones. |
front 186 Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton. A) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. B) Interphalangeal joint of the finger. C) Meatcarpophalangeal joint of the finger. D) Carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges. | back 186 A) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. |
front 187 Tendon sheaths ________. A) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue B) are extensions of periosteum C) help anchor the tendon to the muscle D) act as friction-reducing structures | back 187 D) act as friction-reducing structures |
front 188 Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint? A) articular capsule B) joint cavity C) articular cartilage D) tendon sheath | back 188 D) tendon sheath |
front 189 Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact? A) arrangement and tension of the muscles B) number of bones in the joint C) structure and shape of the articulating bone D) strength and tension of joint ligaments | back 189 B) number of bones in the joint |
front 190 What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? A) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules. B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules. C) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter. D) Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads. | back 190 A) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules. |
front 191 Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate? A) smooth B) skeletal C) no muscle can regenerate D) cardiac | back 191 A) smooth |
front 192 Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances? A) ATP only B) ATP and glucose C) Ca2+ and ATP D) Ca2+ only | back 192 C) Ca2+ and ATP |
front 193 Myoglobin ________. A) produces the end plate potential B) breaks down glycogen C) stores oxygen in muscle cells D) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP | back 193 C) stores oxygen in muscle cells |
front 194 What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage? A) sarcoplasmic reticulum B) intermediate filament network C) mitochondria D) myofibrillar network | back 194 A) sarcoplasmic reticulum |
front 195 What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent? A) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion B) amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work C) the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used D) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used | back 195 D) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used |
front 196 Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors. A) refractory B) latent C) contraction D) relaxation | back 196 B) latent |
front 197 Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________. A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP C) forming a chemical compound with actin D) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments | back 197 B) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP |
front 198 The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________. A) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments C) make and store phosphocreatine D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration | back 198 D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration |
front 199 What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell? A) the arrangement of myofilaments B) the T tubules C) the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma | back 199 A) the arrangement of myofilaments |
front 200 During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? A) actin filaments B) thick filaments C) myosin filaments D) Z discs | back 200 A) actin filaments |
front 201 Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell? A) perimysium B) fascicle C) endomysium D) epimysium | back 201 C) endomysium |
front 202 Rigor mortis occurs because ________. A) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions B) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules C) the cells are dead D) sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions | back 202 B) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules |
front 203 The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________. A) T tubules B) myofibrils C) mitochondria D) microtubules | back 203 B) myofibrils |
front 204 What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called? A) a myofilament B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum C) a myofibril D) a sarcomere | back 204 D) a sarcomere |
front 205 What is the functional role of the T tubules? A) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle B) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction C) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction D) stabilize the G and F actin | back 205 C) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction |
front 206 What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction? A) reestablish glycogen stores B) form hydroxyapatite crystals C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition D) increase levels of myoglobin | back 206 C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition |
front 207 During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. A) hydrochloric acid B) lactic acid C) a strong base D) stearic acid | back 207 B) lactic acid |
front 208 When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? A) fatigue period B) latent period C) relaxation period D) refractory period | back 208 D) refractory period |
front 209 In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________. A) does not change in length but increases tension B) changes in length and moves the "load" C) never converts pyruvate to lactate D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP | back 209 B) changes in length and moves the "load" |
front 210 The muscle cell membrane is called the ________. A) sarcolemma B) endomysium C) perimysium D) epimysium | back 210 A) sarcolemma |
front 211 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? A) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke B) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke | back 211 B) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments |
front 212 The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________. A) ATP energizes the sliding process B) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism C) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium D) the site of calcium regulation differs | back 212 D) the site of calcium regulation differs |
front 213 Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction? A) binds with troponin B) removes contraction inhibitor C) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland D) triggers neurotransmitter secretion | back 213 C) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland |
front 214 Which of the following is true about smooth muscle? A) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination. B) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers. C) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle. D) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements. | back 214 B) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers. |
front 215 An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________. A) glycolysis B) the electron transport chain C) the citric acid cycle D) hydrolysis | back 215 A) glycolysis |
front 216 Muscle tone is ________. A) a state of sustained partial contraction B) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements C) the feeling of well-being following exercise D) the condition of athletes after intensive training | back 216 A) a state of sustained partial contraction |
front 217 The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________. A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past C) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments D) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other | back 217 A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping |
front 218 After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction? A) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved B) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh D) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae | back 218 C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh |
front 219 Which of the following statements is most accurate? A) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction. B) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions. C) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction. D) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction. | back 219 C) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction. |
front 220 What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue? A) the ability to respond to nervous stimulation B) the design of the fibers C) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy D) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue | back 220 C) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy |
front 221 Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers? A) a sprint by an Olympic runner B) gym climbing C) playing baseball or basketball D) a long, relaxing swim | back 221 D) a long, relaxing swim |
front 222 ) Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________. A) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin B) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel C) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract D) no muscle tension could be generated | back 222 D) no muscle tension could be generated |
front 223 What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? A) part adjacent to another muscle cell B) motor end plate C) any part of the sarcolemma D) end of the muscle fiber | back 223 B) motor end plate |
front 224 the strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by _____. A) increasing stimulus above the threshold B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximum stimulus D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers | back 224 C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximum stimulus |
front 225 What is the primary function of wave summation? A) produces smooth, continuous muscle contraction B) increases muscle tension C) prevent muscle relaxtion D) prevent muscle fatigue | back 225 A) produces smooth, continuous muscle contraction |
front 226 Which of the following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps muscle fibers? A) endomysium B)perimysium C)epimysium D)aponeurosis | back 226 D)aponeurosis |
front 227 Which of the following statements is true? A) cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei B) smooth muscle cells have T tubules C) striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei D) cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart an large blood vessels | back 227 C) striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei |
front 228 Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? A) support and brace neurons B) anchor neurons to blood vessels C) provide the defense for the CNS D) control the chemical environment around neurons E) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability | back 228 C) provide the defense for the CNS |
front 229 What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid called? A) ependymal cells B) oligodendrocytes C) Schwann cells D) astrocytes | back 229 A) ependymal cells |
front 230 What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus? A) origin of the stimulus B) type of stimulus receptor C) size of action potentials D) frequency of action potentials | back 230 D) frequency of action potentials |
front 231 Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? A) acetylcholine B) cholinesterase C) norepinephrine D) gamma aminobutyric acid | back 231 A) acetylcholine |
front 232 The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________. A) depolarization B) resting period C) repolarization D) absolute refractory period | back 232 D) absolute refractory period |
front 233 Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons? A) They conduct impulses. B) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate. C) They are mitotic. D) They have extreme longevity. | back 233 C) They are mitotic. |
front 234 The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________. A) dendrite B) axon C) Schwann cell D) neurolemma | back 234 B) axon |
front 235 Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials? A) mechanically gated channel B) leakage channel C) voltage-gated channel D) ligand-gated channel | back 235 C) voltage-gated channel |
front 236 An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ________. A) effector B) receptor C) cell body D) synapse | back 236 D) synapse |
front 237 What is the role of acetylcholinesterase? A) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings B) act as a transmitting agent C) stimulate the production of acetylcholine D) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh | back 237 A) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings |
front 238 Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? A) innervation of skeletal muscle B) innervation of glands C) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract D) innervation of cardiac muscle | back 238 A) innervation of skeletal muscle |
front 239 Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________. A) nuclei B) tracts C) ganglia D) nerves | back 239 C) ganglia |
front 240 The term central nervous system refers to the ________. A) peripheral and spinal nerves B) brain and spinal cord C) spinal cord and spinal nerves D) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves | back 240 B) brain and spinal cord |
front 241 The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________. A) cholinesterase B) ion C) neurotransmitter D) biogenic amine | back 241 C) neurotransmitter |
front 242 Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________. A) large nerve fibers B) diphasic impulses C) erratic transmission of nerve impulses D) the myelin sheath | back 242 D) the myelin sheath |
front 243 Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters? A) biogenic amine B) nucleic acid C) ATP and other purines D) amino acid E) acetycholine | back 243 B) nucleic acid |
front 244 Which of the following is false or incorrect? A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold. B) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane. C) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal. | back 244 C) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal. |
front 245 Select the correct statement regarding synapses. A) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another. B) Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses. C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells. D) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled. | back 245 A) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another. |
front 246 Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. A) oligodendrocytes B) astrocytes C) microglia D) ependymal cells | back 246 A) oligodendrocytes |
front 247 Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open? A) chloride B) sodium C) calcium D) potassium | back 247 D) potassium |
front 248 An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________. A) hyperpolarization B) opening of voltage-regulated channels C) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur D) a change in sodium ion permeability | back 248 A) hyperpolarization |
front 249 Which of the following is not true of graded potentials? A) They can be called postsynaptic potentials. B) They can form on receptor endings. C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point. D) They are short-lived. | back 249 C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point. |
front 250 A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________. A) all sodium gates are closed B) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell C) proteins have been resynthesized D) the membrane potential has been reestablished | back 250 D) the membrane potential has been reestablished |
front 251 In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________. A) negatively charged and contains more sodium B) positively charged and contains more sodium C) positively charged and contains less sodium D) negatively charged and contains less sodium | back 251 D) negatively charged and contains less sodium |
front 252 The arbor vitae refers to ________. A) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum B) cerebellar gray matter C) flocculonodular nodes D) cerebellar white matter | back 252 D) cerebellar white matter |
front 253 The brain stem consists of the ________. A) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain B) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla C) midbrain only D) midbrain, medulla, and pons | back 253 D) midbrain, medulla, and pons |
front 254 The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________. A) frontal lobe B) prefrontal lobe C) temporal lobe D) parietal lobe | back 254 C) temporal lobe |
front 255 What cells line the ventricles of the brain? A) ependymal cells B) epithelial cells C) neurons D) astrocytes | back 255 A) ependymal cells |
front 256 The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________. A) cerebrum B) midbrain C) medulla D) pons | back 256 C) medulla |
front 257 Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres? A) longitudinal fissure B) parieto-occipital fissure C) lateral fissure D) central fissure | back 257 A) longitudinal fissure |
front 258 A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________. A) furrow B) sulcus C) gyrus D) fissure | back 258 B) sulcus |
front 259 Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex? A) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas. B) No functional area of the cortex works alone. C) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral side of the body. D) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function. | back 259 D) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function. |
front 260 The central sulcus separates which lobes? A) parietal from occipital B) temporal from parietal C) frontal from parietal D) frontal from temporal | back 260 C) frontal from parietal |
front 261 Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex? A) dendrites B) cell bodies C) fiber tracts D) unmyelinated axons | back 261 C) fiber tracts |
front 262 Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________. A) fissures B) ganglia C) sulci D) gyri | back 262 D) gyri |
front 263 The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________. A) nutrients such as glucose B) alcohol C) anesthetics D) metabolic waste such as urea | back 263 D) metabolic waste such as urea |
front 264 The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________. A) pyramids B) thalamus C) limbic system D) reticular formation | back 264 D) reticular formation |
front 265 Which of the following is not a function of the CSF? A) protection from blows B) initiation of some nerve impulses C) nourishment of the brain D) reduction of brain weight | back 265 B) initiation of some nerve impulses |
front 266 White matter is found in all of the following locations except the ________. A) cerebral cortex B) outer portion of the spinal cord C) corpus callosum D) corticospinal tracts | back 266 A) cerebral cortex |
front 267 Which of the following is not a way that sensory receptors are classified? A) sensitivity to a stimulus B) structural complexity C) location in the body D) type of stimulus detected | back 267 A) sensitivity to a stimulus |
front 268 Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________. A) mechanoreceptors B) exteroceptors C) interoceptors D) proprioceptors | back 268 B) exteroceptors |
front 269 Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________. A) proprioceptors B) photoreceptors C) nociceptors D) interoceptors | back 269 C) nociceptors |
front 270 Which receptors do not adapt? A) nociceptors B) smell receptors C) pressure receptors D) touch receptors | back 270 A) nociceptors |
front 271 Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following? A) facial B) trigeminal C) Vagus D) olfactory | back 271 D) olfactory |
front 272 If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies? A) complete loss of sensation B) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control C) a complete loss of sensation and movement D) a complete loss of voluntary movement | back 272 D) a complete loss of voluntary movement |
front 273 The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________. A) parasympathetic innervation B) vagus nerve activity C) neurosecretory substances D) sympathetic stimulation | back 273 D) sympathetic stimulation |
front 274 Which of the following does not describe the ANS? A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands B) involuntary nervous system C) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells D) general visceral motor system | back 274 C) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells |
front 275 reparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. A) parasympathetic nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) cerebrum | back 275 B) sympathetic nervous system |
front 276 Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________. A) XII B) VII C) V D) X | back 276 D) X |
front 277 The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. A) sympathetic division B) peripheral nervous system C) somatic division D) parasympathetic division | back 277 D) parasympathetic division |
front 278 Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. A) hypothalamus B) medulla C) cerebellum D) thalamus | back 278 A) hypothalamus |
front 279 Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) most glands D) skeletal muscle | back 279 D) skeletal muscle |
front 280 Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation? A) elimination of urine B) salivation C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera D) dilation of the pupils | back 280 D) dilation of the pupils |
front 281 Autonomic ganglia contain ________. A) the cell bodies of motor neurons B) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons C) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons D) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors | back 281 A) the cell bodies of motor neurons |
front 282 Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. A) visceral arcs do not use integration centers B) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons D) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess | back 282 C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons |
front 283 Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following? A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion B) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion C) synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron | back 283 A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion |
front 284 Erection of the penis or clitoris ________. A) depends very little on autonomic activation B) is primarily under sympathetic control C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input D) is primarily under parasympathetic control | back 284 D) is primarily under parasympathetic control |
front 285 Which is a uniquely sympathetic function? A) regulation of body temperature B) regulation of respiratory rate C) regulation of pupil size D) regulation of cardiac rate | back 285 A) regulation of body temperature |
front 286 Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure B) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure C) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure D) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure | back 286 D) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure |
front 287 What is the main function of the rods in the eye? A) vision in dim light B) color vision C) depth perception D) accommodation for near vision | back 287 A) vision in dim light |
front 288 What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye? A) lens B) iris C) cornea D) aqueous humor | back 288 B) iris |
front 289 Receptors for hearing are located in the ________. A) semicircular canals B) vestibule C) cochlea D) tympanic membrane | back 289 C) cochlea |
front 290 Bitter taste is elicited by ________. A) hydrogen ions B) metal ions C) alkaloids D) acids | back 290 C) alkaloids |
front 291 There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves? A) rod cells B) cone cells C) bipolar cells D) ganglion cells | back 291 D) ganglion cells |
front 292 Dark adaptation ________. A) primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision B) involves accumulation of rhodopsin C) results in inhibition of rod function D) is much faster than light adaptation | back 292 B) involves accumulation of rhodopsin |
front 293 Motion sickness seems to ________. A) respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs C) result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem D) respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins | back 293 B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs |
front 294 The blind spot of the eye is where ________. A) only cones occur B) the optic nerve leaves the eye C) the macula lutea is located D) more rods than cones are found | back 294 B) the optic nerve leaves the eye |
front 295 Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________. A) stretching of the receptor cells B) substances in solution C) the movement of otoliths D) movement of a cupula | back 295 B) substances in solution |
front 296 Light passes through the following structures in which order? A) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor B) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor C) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea D) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor | back 296 D) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor |
front 297 Which of the following best describes the cerebrum? A)decussation center B) visceral command center C) motor command center D) executive suite | back 297 D) executive suite |
front 298 Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? A) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor B) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor C) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector D) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector | back 298 D) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector |
front 299 Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function? A) senses changes in the environment B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions C)responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction | back 299 B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions |
front 300 A neuron that has its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) _____ A) efferent neuron B) afferent neuron C) association neuron D) glial cell | back 300 C) association neuron |
front 301 Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential? A) long distance of signaling B) amplitude of various sizes C) voltage stimulus to initiate D) voltage regulated repolarization | back 301 B) amplitude of various sizes |
front 302 Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are _____. A) astrocytes B) oligodendrocytes C) microglia D) Schwann cells | back 302 A) astrocytes |
front 303 The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges? A) arachnoid and epidura B) arachnoid and pia C) arachnoid and dura D) dura and epidura | back 303 B) arachnoid and pia |
front 304 Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in _____. A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord C) the thalamus D) sympathetic ganglia | back 304 A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord |
front 305 A reflex arc that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ______. A) tendon reflex B) flexor reflex C) crossed-extensor reflex D) plantar reflex | back 305 A) tendon reflex |
front 306 Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are _____. A) afferent nerves B) efferent nerves C) motor nerves D) mixed nerves | back 306 A) afferent nerves |
front 307 Transduction refers to conversion of _____. A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential C) receptor energy to stimulus energy D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses | back 307 B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential |
front 308 The cranial nerves that have neural connections with structures outside of the head, in the thoracic and abdominal cavity include _____. A) trigeminal B )facial C )vagus D) trochlear | back 308 C) vagus |