A hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until it finds a suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to the intestinal lining using a feature that also protects it from phagocytes, bacteriophages, and dehydration. Fecal matter from a human in whose intestine this bacterium lives can spread the bacterium, even after being mixed with water and boiled. The bacterium is not susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It contains no plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan.

105. The cell also lacks F factors and F plasmids. Upon its death, this bacterium should be able to participate in

A) conjugation.
B) transduction.
C) transformation.
D) Three of the responses above are correct.
E) Two of the responses above are correct.

C

A hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until it finds a suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to the intestinal lining using a feature that also protects it from phagocytes, bacteriophages, and dehydration. Fecal matter from a human in whose intestine this bacterium lives can spread the bacterium, even after being mixed with water and boiled. The bacterium is not susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It contains no plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan.

106. This bacterium derives nutrition by digesting human intestinal contents (in other words, food). Thus, this bacterium should be an

A) aerobic chemoheterotroph.
B) aerobic chemoautotroph.
C) anaerobic chemoheterotroph.
D) anaerobic chemoautotroph.

C

107. Which process could have allowed the nucleomorphs of chlorarachniophytes to be reduced, without the net loss of any genetic information?

A) conjugation
B) horizontal gene transfer
C) binary fission
D) phagocytosis
E) meiosis

B

108. Which process results in genetic recombination, but is separate from the process by which the population size of Paramecium increases?

A) budding
B) meiotic division
C) mitotic division
D) conjugation
E) binary fission

D

109. Which of the following is a characteristic of the water molds (oomycetes)?

A) the presence of filamentous feeding structures
B) zoospores that are spread by breezes
C) the same nutritional mode as possessed by cyanobacteria
D) a morphological similarity to fungi that is the result of common ancestry
E) a feeding Plasmodium

A

110. Which of the following statements concerning protists is true?

A) All protists have mitochondria, though in some species they are much reduced and known by different names.
B) The primary organism that transmits malaria to humans by its bite is the tsetse fly.
C) All apicomplexans are autotrophic.
D) All slime molds have an amoeboid stage that may be followed by a stage during which spores are produced.
E) Euglenozoans that are mixotrophic lack functional chloroplasts.

A

111. Similar to most amoebozoans, the forams and the radiolarians also have pseudopods, as do some of the white blood cells of animals (monocytes). If one were to erect a taxon that included all organisms that have cells with pseudopods, what would be true of such a taxon?

A) It would be polyphyletic.
B) It would be paraphyletic.
C) It would be monophyletic.
D) It would include all eukaryotes.

A

Paulinella chromatophora is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic photosynthesis with its two elongated "cyanelles." The cyanelles are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants.

112. The closest living relative of P. chromatophora is the heterotroph, P. ovalis. What type of evidence permits biologists to make this claim about relatedness?

A) morphological
B) ecological
C) biochemical
D) genetic
E) fossil

D

Paulinella chromatophora is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic photosynthesis with its two elongated "cyanelles." The cyanelles are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants.

113. If true, which of the following is the best evidence that the cyanelles are providing nutrition (in other words, calories) to the surrounding cercozoan?

A) If the cyanelle performs aerobic photosynthesis.
B) If the vesicle membrane that surrounds each cyanelle possesses glucose-transport proteins.
C) If the cyanelle performs aerobic respiration.
D) If radiolabeled 14CO2 enters the cyanelle and if, subsequently, radiolabeled glucose is present in cercozoan cytosol.
E) If radiolabeled "heavy" water, 2H2O, enters the cyanelle and if, subsequently, radiolabeled oxygen appears in cercozoan cytosol.

D

114. The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following most directly favors the evolution of the latter, more radical, kind of metamorphosis?

A) natural selection of sexually immature forms of insects
B) changes in the homeobox genes governing early development
C) the evolution of meiosis
D) the development of an oxidizing atmosphere on Earth
E) the origin of a brain

B

115. Which of the following genetic processes may be most helpful in accounting for the Cambrian explosion?

A) binary fission
B) mitosis
C) random segregation
D) gene duplication
E) chromosomal condensation

D

116. A researcher is trying to construct a molecular-based phylogeny of the entire animal kingdom. Assuming that none of the following genes is absolutely conserved, which of the following would be the best choice on which to base the phylogeny?

A) genes involved in chitin synthesis
B) collagen genes
C) β-catenin genes
D) genes involved in eye-lens synthesis
E) genes that cause radial body symmetry

B

117. If the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is well-substantiated in the future, then what will be true of any contrary evidence regarding the origin of animals derived from the fossil record?

A) The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax.
B) The fossil evidence will be understood to have been incorrect because it is incomplete.
C) The fossil record will henceforth be ignored.
D) Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded.
E) Only phylogenies based solely on fossil evidence will need to be discarded.

B

118. Which distinction is given more emphasis by the morphological phylogeny than by the molecular phylogeny?

A) metazoan and eumetazoan
B) radial and bilateral
C) true coelom and pseudocoelom
D) protostome and deuterostome
E) molting and lack of molting

D

119. What is true of the deuterostomes in the molecular phylogeny (B) that is not true in the traditional phylogeny (A)?

A) Deuterostomia is a clade.
B) To maintain Deuterostomia as a clade, some phyla had to be removed from it.
C) Deuterostomia now includes the Acoela.
D) It is actually a grade, rather than a clade.
E) It diverged from the rest of the Bilateria earlier than did the Acoela.

B

Trichoplax adhaerens (Tp) is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2,000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. They move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. Tp feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. Tp sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage.

120. In how many of the following ways is Tp unlike the typical animal?
1. Tp is multicellular.
2. Tp lacks muscle and nerve cells.
3. Tp has cilia.
4. Tp has a different place where digestion of food occurs.
5. Tp lacks cell walls.

A) only one way
B) two ways
C) three ways
D) four ways
E) all five ways

B

Trichoplax adhaerens (Tp) is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2,000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. They move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. Tp feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. Tp sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage.

121. On the basis of information in the previous paragraph, which of these should be able to be observed in Tp?

A) the act of fertilization
B) the process of gastrulation
C) eggs
D) All three of the responses above are correct.
E) Two of the responses above are correct.

C

The most recently discovered phylum in the animal kingdom (1995) is the phylum Cycliophora. It includes three species of tiny organisms that live in large numbers on the outsides of the mouthparts and appendages of lobsters. The feeding stage permanently attaches to the lobster via an adhesive disk, and collects scraps of food from its host's feeding by capturing the scraps in a current created by a ring of cilia. The body is sac-like and has a U-shaped intestine that brings the anus close to the mouth. Cycliophorans are eucoelomate, do not molt (though their host does), and their embryos undergo spiral cleavage.

122. Which of these features is least useful in assigning the phylum Cycliophora to a clade of animals?

A) having a true coelom as a body cavity
B) having a body symmetry that permits a U-shaped intestine
C) having embryos with spiral cleavage
D) lacking ecdysis (molting)

A

The most recently discovered phylum in the animal kingdom (1995) is the phylum Cycliophora. It includes three species of tiny organisms that live in large numbers on the outsides of the mouthparts and appendages of lobsters. The feeding stage permanently attaches to the lobster via an adhesive disk, and collects scraps of food from its host's feeding by capturing the scraps in a current created by a ring of cilia. The body is sac-like and has a U-shaped intestine that brings the anus close to the mouth. Cycliophorans are eucoelomate, do not molt (though their host does), and their embryos undergo spiral cleavage.

123. Using similarities in embryonic development, body symmetry, and other anatomical features to assign an organism to a clade involves
1. cladistics based on body plan.
2. molecular-based phylogeny.
3. morphology-based phylogeny.

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1 and 3

E

The most recently discovered phylum in the animal kingdom (1995) is the phylum Cycliophora. It includes three species of tiny organisms that live in large numbers on the outsides of the mouthparts and appendages of lobsters. The feeding stage permanently attaches to the lobster via an adhesive disk, and collects scraps of food from its host's feeding by capturing the scraps in a current created by a ring of cilia. The body is sac-like and has a U-shaped intestine that brings the anus close to the mouth. Cycliophorans are eucoelomate, do not molt (though their host does), and their embryos undergo spiral cleavage.

124. What is true of the feeding stage of cycliophorans?
1. It is chemoheterotrophic.
2. It is sessile.
3. It captures food in a manner similar to that of animals with lophophores.
4. It has radial symmetry.

A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 1, 2, and 3
E) 2, 3, and 4

D

125. Two competing hypotheses to account for the increase in the number of Hox genes from the last common ancestor of bilaterians to the last common ancestor of insects and vertebrates are: (1) a single duplication of the entire four-gene cluster, followed by the loss of one gene, and (2) three independent duplications of individual Hox genes. To prefer the first hypothesis on the basis of parsimony requires the assumption that

A) the duplication of a cluster of four Hox genes is equally likely as the duplication of a single Hox gene.
B) there is an actual process by which individual genes can be duplicated.
C) genes can exist is spatial groupings called clusters.
D) clusters of genes can undergo disruption, with individual genes moving to different chromosomes during evolution.

A

126. Which of the following is a point of conflict between the phylogenetic analyses presented in these two figures?

A) the monophyly of the animal kingdom
B) the relationship of taxa of segmented animals to taxa of nonsegmented animals
C) that sponges are basal animals
D) that chordates are deuterostomes
E) the monophyly of the bilaterians

B

127. Which of these might have been observed in the common ancestor of chondrichthyans and osteichthyans?

A) a mineralized, bony skeleton
B) opercula
C) bony fin rays
D) a spiral valve intestine
E) a swim bladder

A

128. There is evidence that ray-finned fishes evolved

A) in response to a crisis that wiped out the chondrichthyans.
B) directly from lampreys and hagfish.
C) early in the Cambrian period.
D) directly from lancelets.
E) the swim bladder from a lung.

E

129. Examination of the fossils of Archaeopteryx reveals that, in common with extant birds, it had

A) a long tail containing vertebrae.
B) feathers.
C) teeth.
D) Three of the options listed are correct.
E) Two of the options listed are correct.

B

Match the extant vertebrate groups with the descriptions.

130. Internal fertilization, leathery amniotic egg, and skin that resists drying are characteristics of

A) amphibians.
B) nonbird reptiles.
C) chondrichthyans.
D) mammals.
E) birds.

B

131. Arrange the following taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific).
1. apes
2. hominins
3. Homo
4 anthropoids
5. primates

A) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
B) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
C) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
D) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3

B

132. Which of these species was apparently the first to craft stone tools?

A) Australopithecus garhi
B) H. erectus
C) H. ergaster
D) H. habilis
E) H. sapiens

A

133. At least one of these has been found in all species of eumetazoan animals studied thus far.

A) Hox
B) Dlx
C) Otx
D) FOXP2
E) more than one of these

A

134. Which of the following is a cluster of genes coding for transcription factors involved in the evolution of innovations in early vertebrate nervous systems and vertebrae?

A) Hox
B) Dlx
C) Otx
D) FOXP2
E) more than one of these

B

Terry catches a ray-finned fish from the ocean and notices that attached to its flank is an equally long, snakelike organism. The attached organism has no external segmentation, no scales, a round mouth surrounded by a sucker, and two small eyes. Terry thinks it might be a marine leech, a hagfish, or a lamprey.

135. Terry takes the body of the snakelike organism and slices it open along its dorsal side. If it is a hagfish, what should Terry see?

A) a well-developed series of bony vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord
B) a well-developed series of cartilaginous vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord
C) a tube of cartilage (surrounding the notochord) with dorsal projections on both sides of the spinal cord
D) a notochord, located underneath the spinal cord

D

136. When the temperature of the outside air exceeds their internal body temperature, jackrabbits living in hot, arid lands will

A) dilate the blood vessels in their large ears to transfer more body heat to the environment.
B) constrict the blood vessels in their large ears to reduce transfer of external heat to the blood in their ears.
C) increase motor movements to find a sunny area to maximize heat transfer into their bodies.
D) increase pigmentation in their ears, darkening them to maximize their capacity to take up heat.
E) begin involuntary shivering of their skeletal muscles in order to generate more metabolic heat.

B

137. Which choice best describes a reasonable mechanism for animal structures becoming better suited over evolutionary time to specific functions?

A) Animals that eat the most food become the most abundant.
B) Animals that restrict their food intake will become less abundant.
C) Animals with mutations that give rise to effective structures will become more abundant.
D) Animals with inventions that curtail reproduction will become more abundant.
E) Animals with parents that continually improve their offspring's structures will become more abundant.

C

138. An exchange surface in direct contact with the external environment is found in the

A) lungs.
B) skeletal muscles.
C) liver.
D) heart.
E) brain.

A

139. Of the following choices, the epithelium with the shortest diffusion distance is

A) simple squamous epithelium.
B) simple cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple columnar epithelium.
D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
E) stratified squamous epithelium.

A

140. Connective tissues typically have

A) many densely packed cells with direct connections between the membranes of adjacent cells.
B) a supporting material such as chondroitin sulfate.
C) the ability to shorten upon stimulation.
D) relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix.
E) the ability to transmit electrochemical impulses.

D

141. All types of muscle tissue have

A) intercalated disks that allow cells to communicate.
B) striated banding patterns seen under the microscope.
C) cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated.
D) a response that can be consciously controlled.
E) interactions between actin and myosin.

E

142. Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by

A) cardiac muscle.
B) smooth muscle.
C) voluntary muscle.
D) striated muscle.
E) skeletal muscle.

B

143. Positive feedback has occurred when

A) an increase in blood sugar increases the secretion of a hormone that stimulates the movement of sugar out of the blood.
B) a decrease in blood sugar increases the secretion of a hormone that increases the conversion of glycogen to glucose.
C) uterine contractions needed for the birthing process are expedited by the pressure of a moving baby in its mother's uterus.
D) an increase in calcium concentration increases the secretion of a hormone that promotes the storage of calcium in bone.
E) a decrease in blood calcium increases the amount of the hormone that causes the release of calcium from bone.

C

144. An example of an organism that has only behavioral controls over its body temperature is the

A) green frog.
B) penguin.
C) bluefin tuna.
D) house sparrow.
E) gray wolf.

A

145. Most land-dwelling invertebrates and all of the amphibians

A) are ectothermic organisms with variable body temperatures.
B) alter their metabolic rates to maintain a constant body temperature of 37°C.
C) have a net loss of heat across a moist body surface, even in direct sun.
D) are endotherms but become thermoconformers only when they are in water.
E) become more active when environmental temperatures drop below 15°C.

A

146. The temperature-regulating center of vertebrate animals is located in the

A) medulla oblongata.
B) thyroid gland.
C) hypothalamus.
D) subcutaneous layer of the skin.
E) liver.

C

147. A female Burmese python incubating her eggs can warm them using

A) acclimatization.
B) torpor.
C) evaporative cooling.
D) nonshivering thermogenesis.
E) shivering thermogenesis.

E

148. For adult human females, the metabolic "costs" of pregnancy and lactation are

A) 100-125% more than when she was nonpregnant.
B) 30-40% more than when she was nonpregnant.
C) 5-8% more than when she was nonpregnant.
D) 10-20% less than when she was nonpregnant.
E) 30-40% less than when she was nonpregnant.

C

149. The thin horizontal arrows in the figure above show that

A) the warmer arterial blood can bypass the legs as needed, when the legs are too cold to function well.
B) the warmer venous blood transfers heat to the cooler arterial blood.
C) the warmer arterial blood transfers heat to the cooler venous blood.
D) the arterial blood is always cooler in the abdomen, compared to the temperature of the venous blood in the feet of the goose.
E) the goose's legs get progressively warmer as the blood moves away from the abdomen to the feet.

C

Use the following table showing the contents of a multivitamin supplement and its percentage of recommended daily values (DV) to answer the following questions.

150. Excessive iron absorption and accumulation to toxic levels is associated with

A) excessive blood volume.
B) a liver abnormality that results in a decreased number of red blood cells.
C) various forms of inherited or acquired anemia.
D) the genetic disorder known as hemochromatosis.
E) menstruation and menopause.

D

151. Earthworms, grasshoppers, and birds all have a

A) gastric cecae.
B) larynx.
C) crop.
D) pharynx.
E) epiglottis.

C

152. Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the

A) small intestine.
B) stomach.
C) pancreas.
D) liver.
E) mouth.

B

153. Complex nutrients are digested and then absorbed into the lymph or bloodstream as

A) disaccharides.
B) polymers.
C) monomers.
D) enzymes.
E) peptides.

C

154. A nutritional monomer that can be transported in the blood after a typical meal is

A) sucrose.
B) maltose.
C) fatty acid.
D) dipeptide.
E) trinucleotide.

C

155. Because adult lampreys attach onto the surface of large fish for long periods of time to feed on body fluids, they can accomplish nutritional balance without need for a

A) liver.
B) pancreas.
C) intestine.
D) stomach.
E) gallbladder.

D

156. A group of animals among which a relatively long cecum is likely to be found is the

A) carnivores.
B) herbivores.
C) autotrophs.
D) heterotrophs.
E) omnivores.

B

157. Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The agents that help emulsify fats are produced in

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 8
E) 9

E

158. Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The highest rate of nutrient absorption occurs at location(s)

A) 3 only.
B) 4 only.
C) 1 and 4.
D) 3 and 4.
E) 1, 3, and 4.

B

159. The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the

A) amphibians.
B) birds.
C) fishes.
D) mammals.
E) reptiles.

C

160. After several weeks of exercise, a human athlete's resting heart rate is typically lower than before because

A) the body needs less oxygen than before.
B) the body temperature has increased.
C) the stroke volume has increased.
D) the cardiac output has decreased.
E) the body produces less carbon dioxide than before.

C

161. The epiglottis of a human covers the glottis when he or she is

A) talking.
B) breathing.
C) swallowing.
D) yawning.
E) sleeping.

C

162. During most daily activities, the human respiration rate is most closely linked to the blood levels of

A) nitric acid.
B) nitrogen.
C) oxygen.
D) carbon dioxide.
E) carbon monoxide.

D

163. An "internal reservoir" of oxygen in rested muscle is found in oxygen molecules bound to

A) hemoglobin.
B) bicarbonate ions.
C) carbonic acid.
D) actin and myosin.
E) myoglobin.

E

164. Hydrogen ions produced within human red blood cells are prevented from significantly lowering plasma pH because they bind to

A) hemoglobin.
B) plasma proteins.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) carbonic acid.
E) plasma buffers.

A

165. An anthropologist discovers the fossilized heart of an extinct animal. The evidence indicates that the organism's heart was large, well-formed, and had four chambers, with no connection between the right and left sides. A reasonable conclusion supported by these observations is that the

A) animal had evolved from birds.
B) animal was endothermic and had a high metabolic rate.
C) animal was most closely related to alligators and crocodiles.
D) animal was likely an invertebrate animal.
E) species had little to no need to regulate blood pressure.

B

166. A group of students was designing an experiment to test the effect of smoking on grass frogs. They hypothesized that keeping the frogs in a smoke-filled environment for defined periods would result in the animals developing lung cancer. However, when they searched for previously published information to shore up their hypothesis, they discovered they were quite wrong in their original assessment. Even though they were never going to go ahead with their experiment (so as not to harm frogs needlessly), they knew that a more likely outcome of putting carcinogens in the air would be the development of

A) the amphibian equivalent of hypertension.
B) skin cancer.
C) gill abnormalities in the next generation of tadpoles.
D) tracheal tube abnormalities.
E) diminished absorption of oxygen.

B

167. Which of the following levels of ecological organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?

A) community, ecosystem, individual, population
B) ecosystem, community, population, individual
C) population, ecosystem, individual, community
D) individual, population, community, ecosystem
E) individual, community, population, ecosystem

B

168. Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean are moved by prevailing westerlies where they encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges, such as the Sierra Nevada and the Cascades. Which statement best describes the outcome of this encounter between a landform and an air mass?

A) The cool, moist Pacific air heats up as it rises, releasing its precipitation as it passes the tops of the mountains, and this warm, now dry air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
B) The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it moves up the windward side of the range, and this cool, now dry air mass heats up as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
C) The cool, dry Pacific air heats up and picks up moisture from evaporation of the snowcapped peaks of the mountain range, releasing this moisture as precipitation when the air cools while descending on the leeward side of the range.
D) These air masses are blocked by the mountain ranges, producing high annual amounts of precipitation on the windward sides of these mountain ranges.
E) These air masses remain essentially unchanged in moisture content and temperature as they pass over these mountain ranges.

B

169. Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following?

A) warm, less dense water layered at the top
B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C) a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water
D) the changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change
E) currents generated by nektonic animals

D

170. Which of the following is responsible for the differences in summer and winter temperature stratification of deep temperate zone lakes?

A) Water is densest at 4°C.
B) Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters.
C) Winter ice sinks in the summer.
D) Stratification is caused by a thermocline.
E) Stratification always follows the fall and spring turnovers.

A

171. Imagine that a deep temperate zone lake did not "turn over" during the spring and fall seasons. Based on the physical and biological properties of limnetic ecosystems, what would be the difference from normal seasonal turnover?

A) The lake would be uniformly cold during the winter and summer.
B) The lake would fail to freeze over in winter.
C) An algal bloom of algae would result every spring.
D) Lakes would suffer a nutrient depletion in surface layers.
E) The pH of the lake would become increasingly alkaline.

D

172. If you are interested in observing a relatively simple community structure in a clear water lake, you would do well to choose diving into

A) an oligotrophic lake.
B) a eutrophic lake.
C) a relatively shallow lake.
D) a nutrient-rich lake.
E) a lake with consistently warm temperatures.

A

The eight climographs below show yearly temperature (line graph and left vertical axis) and precipitation (bar graph and right vertical axis) averages for each month for some locations on Earth. Choose the climograph that best answers the question or completes the statement. Climographs may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

173. Which climograph shows the climate for location 2?

A) B
B) C
C) D
D) F
E) H

C

The eight climographs below show yearly temperature (line graph and left vertical axis) and precipitation (bar graph and right vertical axis) averages for each month for some locations on Earth. Choose the climograph that best answers the question or completes the statement. Climographs may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

174. Which climograph shows the climate for location 3?

A) B
B) C
C) D
D) E
E) F

B

The diagram shows a generalized cross section of the marine environment with various zones labeled with letters. Choose the letter that best answers the question. Letters may be used once, more than once, or not at all

175. Which zone has the lowest biomass per unit of area?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

D

176. Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?

A) Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion.
B) Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes.
C) Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients.
D) Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients.
E) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter.

D

177. To construct a reproductive table for a sexual species, one needs to

A) assess sperm viability for the males in the population.
B) keep track of all of the offspring of a cohort.
C) keep track of the females in a cohort.
D) keep track of all of the offspring of the females in a cohort.
E) analyze the ratio of deaths to births in a cohort.

C

178. Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied?

A) counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare
B) counting the number of times a 1 kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall
C) counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare
D) multiplying the number of moss plants counted in 10 quadrats of 1m² each by 100 to determine the density per kilometer².
E) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations.

E

179. Which of the following sets of measurements is the most useful when studying populations?

A) density, dispersion, and demographics of a population
B) gene frequency over time and the ratio of reproductive to nonreproductive individuals
C) annual precipitation averages and mean annual temperatures
D) minimum and maximum amounts of precipitation and annual temperature extremes
E) ratio of predators and the number of immigrants and emigrants

A

180. Which of the following is the best example of uniform distribution?

A) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow
B) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide
C) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season
D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest
E) a cultivated cornfield in the Midwest

C

181. Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria that reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes at the end of a 2-hour time period? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.)

A) 6
B) 18
C) 128
D) 512
E) 1,024

D

182. In models of logistic population growth,

A) the population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K.
B) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth.
C) new individuals are added to the population as N approaches K.
D) only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth.
E) carrying capacity is never reached.

A

183. Carrying capacity is

A) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean.
B) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support.
C) fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time.
D) determined by density and dispersion data.
E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources.

B

184. Pacific salmon and annual plants are excellent examples of

A) cohort disintegration.
B) dispersion.
C) Allee effect.
D) iteroparous reproduction.
E) semelparous reproduction.

E

185. Which of the following is characteristic of K-selected populations?

A) offspring with good chances of survival
B) many offspring per reproductive episode
C) small offspring
D) a high intrinsic rate of increase
E) early parental reproduction

A

186. Which variables define the ecological life history of a species?

A) the age at which reproduction begins, frequency of reproduction, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode
B) the ratio of females to males, the length of the breeding season, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode
C) the number of offspring produced over a lifetime by a breeding pair and the survivability of the offspring
D) timing breeding sessions with optimal environmental conditions and the number of offspring produced during each breeding session
E) the amount of parental care given after birth, the number of reproductive episodes per year, and the number of years females are capable of producing viable offspring

A

187. Which of the following is most likely to contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations?

A) the removal of toxic waste by decomposers
B) intraspecific competition for nutrients
C) earthquakes
D) floods
E) fires

B

188. Which of the following was the most significant limiting factor in human population growth in the 20th century?

A) famine
B) non-HIV disease
C) HIV
D) genocide
E) clean water

E

189. Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a 24-hour period?

A. SEE IMAGE
B. SEE IMAGE
C. SEE IMAGE
D. SEE IMAGE
E. SEE IMAGE

C

190. The following questions refer to Figure 53.3, which depicts the age structure of three populations.

61) Which population(s) is (are) in the process of decreasing?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) I and II
E) II and III

B

191. The following questions refer to Figure 53.3, which depicts the age structure of three populations.

61) Which population(s) appear(s) to be stable?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) I and II
E) II and III

C

192. Which of the following would be most significant in understanding the structure of an ecological community?

A) determining how many species are present overall
B) determining which particular species are present
C) determining the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species
D) determining the relative abundance of species
E) determining how many species are present overall, which particular species are present, the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species, and the relative abundance of species

E

193. The 1988 Yellowstone National Park lodgepole pine forest fires were likely the result of

A) overgrazing by elk.
B) infrequent rain episodes.
C) years of fire suppression by humans.
D) unextinguished campfires.
E) geysers.

C

Use the following diagram of a hypothetical food web to answer the following question. The arrows represent the transfer of food energy between the various trophic levels. (Figure 54.3)

194. Which letter represents an organism that could be a primary consumer?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

C

Use the following diagram of five islands formed at around the same time near a particular mainland, as well as MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography principles, to answer the following question. (Figure 54.4)

195. Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

C

The next question presumes that you have at least once visited and have some knowledge of the fast-food restaurant McDonald's. Use your knowledge of McDonald's and your understanding of community ecology to answer the following questions about an ecological community, McDonaldland.

196. In McDonaldland, which of the following would be an example of an introduced species?

A) Big Mac
B) Quarter Pounder
C) BK Whopper
D) Filet-O-Fish
E) Double Cheeseburger

C

The next question presumes that you have at least once visited and have some knowledge of the fast-food restaurant McDonald's. Use your knowledge of McDonald's and your understanding of community ecology to answer the following questions about an ecological community, McDonaldland.

197. In a two-week marketing analysis, McDonald's was interested in finding out the popularity of the Big Mac. Using the realized/fundamental niche concept of community ecology, what should the marketing researchers do?

A) Study the sales of McDonald's restaurants that are in close proximity to other fast-food restaurants.
B) Serve only Big Macs at McDonald's and analyze the sales.
C) Remove the Quarter Pounder from the menu and see if Big Mac sales increase.
D) Serve Big Macs without the special sauce to see if sales go down.
E) Serve Big Macs during breakfast hours.

C

The symbols +, -, and o are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and o denotes where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned.

198. What interactions exist between the cattle egret and grazing cattle?

A) +/+
B) +/o
C) +/-
D) o/o
E) -/-

B

The symbols +, -, and o are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and o denotes where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned.

199. What interactions exist between a tick on a dog and the dog?

A) +/+
B) +/o
C) +/-
D) o/o
E) -/-

C

200. The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in tropical than in temperate regions is that

a. Tropical communities are younger
b. Tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation
c. Higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation
d. Diversity increases as evapotranspiration decreases
e. Tropical regions have very high rates of immigration and very low rates of extinction

B