front 1 Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?
- the muscle contractions
of a person mowing grass
- water rushing over Niagara
falls
- light flashes emitted by a firefly
- a molecule
of glucose
- the flight of an insect foraging for food
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front 2 Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?
- they do not depend on
enzymes
- they are usually highly spontaneous chemical
reactions
- they consume energy to build up polymers from
monomers
- they release energy as they degrade polymers to
monomers
- they consume energy to decrease the entropy of the
organism and its environment
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front 3 Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?
- the products have more
total energy than the reactants
- the reaction proceeds with
a net release of free energy
- the reaction goes only in a
forward direction: all reactants will be converted to products, but
no products will be converted to reactants
- a net input of
energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to
proceed
- the reactions are rapid
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front 4 When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism,
what happens to the heat generated?
- it is used to power yet
more cellular work
- it is used to store energy as more
ATP
- it is used to generate ADP from nucleotide
precursors
- it is lost to the environment
- it is
transported to specific organs such as the brain
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front 5 According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, which of
the following is correct?
- the binding of the
substrate depends on the shape of the active site
- some
enzymes change their structure when activators bind to the
enzyme
- a competitive inhibitor can outcompete the substrate
for the active site
- the binding of the substrate changes
the shape of the enzymes active site
- the active site
creates a microenvironment ideal for the reaction
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front 6 When you have a severe fever, what grave consequence may occur if the
fever is not controlled?
- destruction of your
enzymes' primary structure
- removal of amine groups from
your proteins
- change in the tertiary structure of your
enzymes
- removal of the amino aids in active sites of your
enzymes
- binding of your enzymes to inappropriate
substrates
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front 7 The mechanisms in which the end product of a metabolic pathway
inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as
- metabolic
inhibition
- feedback inhibition
- allosteric
inhibition
- noncooperative inhibition
- reversible
inhibition
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front 8 Which of the following is true of enzymes?
- nonprotein cofactors
alter the substrate specificity of enzymes
- enzyme function
is increased if the 3D structure or conformation of an enzyme is
altered
- enzyme function is independent of physical and
chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature
- enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by lowering
activation energy barriers
- enzymes increase the rate of
chemical reaction by providing activation energy to the
substrate
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front 9 Which curve(s) on the graphs above may represent the temperature and
pH profiles of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in a mildly
alkaline hot springs at temperatures of 70C or higher?
- curves 1 and 5
- curves 2 and 4
- curves 2 and 5
- curves 3 and
4
- curves 3 and 5
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front 10 The following question is based on the reaction A+B <--> C+D
shown in Figure 8.1 Which of the following represents the activation
energy required for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction in Figure 8.1?
- a
- b
- c
- d
- e
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front 11 Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because
- they are able to
maintain a lower internal temperature
- high temperatures
make catalysis unnecessary
- their enzymes have high optimal
temperatures
- their enzymes are completely insensitive to
temperature
- they use molecules other than proteins or RNAs as
their main catalysts
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front 12 Which of the following statements describes the results of this
reaction? C6H1206 --> 6CO2 + 6H20 + Energy
- C6H12O6 is oxidized and
O2 is reduced
- O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced
- CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized
- C6H12O6 is reduced
and CO2 is oxidized
- O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized
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front 13 During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence?
- food --> citric acid
cycle --> ATP --> NAD+
- food --> NADH -->
electron transport chain --> oxygen
- glucose -->
pyruvate --> ATP --> oxygen
- glucose --> ATP -->
electron transport chain --> NADH
- food --> glycolysis
--> citric acid cycle --> NADH --> ATP
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front 14 The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by
- substrate-level
phosphorylation
- electron transport
- photophosphorylation
- chemiosmosis
- oxidation of
NADH to NAD+
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front 15 Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether
oxygen (O2) is present or absent?
- electron transport
- glycolysis
- the citric acid cycle
- oxidative
phosphorylation
- chemiosmosis
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front 16 The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that
functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is
- oxygen
- water
- NAD+
- pyruvate
- ADP
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front 17 Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?
- cytosol
- mitochondrial outer membrane
- mitochondrial inner
membrane
- mitochondrial intermembrane space
- mitochondrial matrix
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front 18 What is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction? Pyruvate +
NADH + H+ --> Lactate + Nad+
- oxygen
- NADH
- NAD+
- lactate
- pyruvate
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front 19 How many carbon dioxide molecules are released during cellular
respiration as a result of the oxidation of one molecule of glucose?
- two
- four
- six
- eight
- ten
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front 20 Why are carbohydrates and fats considered high energy foods?
- they have a lot of
oxygen atoms
- they have no nitrogen in their makeup
- they can have very long carbon skeletons
- they have a
lot of electrons associated with hydrogen
- they are easily
reduced
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front 21 Which of the following intermediary metabolites enters the citric
acid cycle and is formed, in part, by the removal of a carbon (CO2)
from one molecule of pyruvate?
- lactate
- glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate
- oxaloacetate
- acetyl
CoA
- citrate
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front 22 Which of the following is characterized by a cell releasing a signal
molecule into the environment followed by a number of cells in the
immediate vicinity responding?
- hormonal signaling
- autocrine signaling
- paracrine signaling
- endocrine signaling
- synaptic signaling
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front 23 Testosterone functions inside a cell by
- acting as a signal
receptor that activates tyrosine kinases
- binding with a
receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific
genes
- acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion
channel proteins
- becoming a second messenger that inhibits
adenylyl cyclase
- coordinating a phosphorylation cascade
that increases spermatogenesis
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front 24 Which of the following is true of transcription factors?
- they regulate the
synthesis of DNA in response to a signal
- they transcribe
ATP into cAMP
- they initiate the epinephrine response in
animal cells
- they control gene expression
- they
regulate the synthesis of lipids in the cytoplasm
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front 25 In the formation of biofilms, such as those forming on unbrushed
teeth, cell signaling serves which function?
- formation of mating
complexes
- secretion of apoptotic signals
- aggregation
of bacteria that can cause cavities
- secretion of substances
that inhibit foreign bacteria
- digestion of unwanted
parasite populations
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front 26 Which of the following statements about quorum sensing is FALSE?
Quorum sensing
- is cell-cell
communication in eukaryotes
- is species specific
- may result in biofilm formation
- is particularly well
studied because of its medical importance
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front 27 In general, a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins
- brings a conformational
change to each protein
- requires binding of a hormone to a
cytosol receptor
- cannot occur in yeasts because they lack
protein phosphatases
- requires phosphorylase activity
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front 28 In the figure, the dots in the space between the two structures
represent which of the following?
- receptor molecules
- signal transducers
- neurotransmitters
- hormones
- pheromones
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front 29 What explains the increased concentration of Ca++ in the ER?
- calcium ions are
actively imported from the cytoplasm into the ER
- calcium
concentration is kept low in the cytoplasm because of its high usage
level
- calcium cannot enter the plasma membrane through ion
channels
- calcium levels in the blood or other body fluids are
extremely low
- the Ca ions are recycled from other molecules
in the ER
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front 30 Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as testosterone, cross the
membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because
- only target cells
retain the appropriate DNA segments
- intracellular
receptors are present only in target cells
- most cells lack
the Y chromosome required
- only target cells possess the
cytosolic enzymes that transduce the testosterone
- only in
target cells in testosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation
cascade leading to activated transcription factor
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front 31 Which of the following describes the events of apoptosis?
- the cell dies, it is
lysed, its organelles are phagocytized, and its contents are
recycled
- its DNA and organelles become fragmented, it dies,
and it is phagocytized
- the cell dies and the presence of
its fragmented contents stimulates nearby cells to divide
- its DNA and organelles are fragmented, the cell shrinks and
forms blebs, and the cell debris is digested
- its nucleus
and organelles are lysed, then the cell enlarges and bursts
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front 32 The centromere is a region in which
- chromatids remain
attached to one another until anaphase
- metaphase
chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate
- chromosomes are grouped during telophase
- the nucleus is
located prior to mitosis
- new spindle microtubules form at
either end
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front 33 If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a
drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at
which stage will mitosis be arrested?
- anaphase
- prophase
- telophase
- metaphase
- interphase
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front 34 Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher
plants and animals is that in plants
- the spindles contain
microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles do
not contain microfibrils
- sister chromatids are identical,
but they differ from one another in animals
- a cell plate
begins to form at telophase, whereas animals a cleavage furrow is
initiated at that stage
- chromosomes become attached to the
spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become
attached until anaphase
- spindle poles contain centrioles,
whereas spindle poles in animals do not
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front 35 During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?
- telophase
- anaphase
- prophase
- metaphase
- cytokinesis
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front 36 Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
- they do not exhibit
density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture
- when
they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell
cycle
- they are not subject to cell cycle controls
- when they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell
cycle, and they are not subject to cell cycle controls
- when
they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle;
they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit
density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
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front 37 After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter
cell is
- diploid, and the
chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid
- diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two
chromatids
- haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of
a single chromatid
- haploid, and the chromosomes are each
composed of two chromatids
- tetraploid, and the chromosomes
are each composed of two chromatids
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front 38 Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
- chromosome
replication
- synapsis
- production of daughter
cells
- alignment of tetrads at metaphase plate
- both B
and D
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front 39 Figure 13.2 of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might
appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer
the following question.
Which diagram represents prophase I of meiosis?
- I
- II
- III
- IV
- V
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front 40 Which of the following is true of the process of meiosis?
- two diploid cells
result
- four diploid cells result
- four haploid cells
result
- four autosomes result
- four chiasmata
result
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