Instructions for Side by Side Printing
- Print the notecards
- Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
- Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
- Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
ch 15
front 1 1) The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. C) skin. D) parenteral route. E) All of these portals are used equally. | back 1 Answer: A |
front 2 2) The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host's antibodies is called A) antigenic variation. B) lysogenic conversion. C) virulence. D) cytopathic effect. E) cytocidal effect. | back 2 Answer: A |
front 3 3) Most pathogens that gain access through the skin A) can penetrate intact skin. B) just infect the skin itself. C) enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts. D) must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate. E) must be injected. | back 3 Answer: C |
front 4 4) The ID50 is A) a measure of pathogenicity. B) the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population. C) the dose that will kill some of the test population. D) the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population. E) the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population. | back 4 Answer: B |
front 5 5) All of the following contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness EXCEPT A) toxins. B) capsules. C) cell wall components. D) hyaluronidase. E) coagulases. | back 5 Answer: A |
front 6 6) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils. B) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. C) Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells. D) Kinase destroys fibrin clots. E) Coagulase destroys blood clots. | back 6 Answer: E |
front 7 7) Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE? A) They are more potent than endotoxins. B) They are composed of proteins. C) They are resistant to heat. D) They have specific methods of action. E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. | back 7 Answer: C |
front 8 8) Endotoxins are A) associated with gram-positive bacteria. B) molecules that bind nerve cells. C) part of the gram-negative cell wall. D) excreted from the cell. E) A-B toxins. | back 8 Answer: C |
front 9 9) Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin? A) A-B toxin B) hemolysin C) leukocidin D) streptolysin O E) streptolysin S | back 9 Answer: A |
front 10 10) Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to A) viral infections. B) protozoan infections. C) fungal infections. D) bacterial infections. E) helminthic infections. | back 10 Answer: A |
front 11 11) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the symptoms of a fungal disease? A) capsules B) toxins C) allergic response of the host D) cell walls E) metabolic products | back 11 Answer: D |
front 12 12) All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT A) antigenic changes. B) IgA proteases. C) invasins. D) membrane-disrupting toxins. E) inducing endocytosis. | back 12 Answer: D |
front 13 13) Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's A) antibodies. B) red blood cells. C) iron-transport proteins. D) white blood cells. E) receptors. | back 13 Answer: C |
front 14 14) The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea and enteropathogenic E. coli are examples of A) adhesins. B) ligands. C) receptors. D) adhesins and ligands. E) adhesins, ligands, and receptors. | back 14 Answer: D |
front 15 15) All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT A) injection. B) bite. C) surgery. D) hair follicle. E) skin cut. | back 15 Answer: D |
front 16 16) Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce A) endotoxins. B) exotoxins. C) cytokines. D) leukocidins. E) interferons. | back 16 Answer: C |
front 17 17) Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by A) boiling food prior to consumption. B) administering antibiotics to patients. C) not eating canned food. D) preventing fecal contamination of food. E) filtering food. | back 17 Answer: A |
front 18 18) All of the following organisms produce exotoxins EXCEPT A) Salmonella typhi. B) Clostridium botulinum. C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D) Clostridium tetani. E) Staphylococcus aureus. | back 18 Answer: A |
front 19 19) Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal? A) inclusion bodies B) giant cells C) antigenic changes D) transformation E) release of enzymes from lysosomes | back 19 Answer: E |
front 20 20) All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT A) M protein. B) ligands. C) fimbriae. D) capsules. E) A-B toxins. | back 20 Answer: E |
front 21 21) Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to A) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. B) waste products excreted by the parasite. C) products released from damaged tissues. D) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues and waste products excreted by the parasite. E) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues. | back 21 Answer: E |
front 22 22) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE? A) It causes vomiting. B) It causes diarrhea. C) It is an exotoxin. D) It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines. E) It is a superantigen. | back 22 Answer: D |
front 23 23) Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen? A) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host B) evasion of host defenses C) toxin production D) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses E) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production | back 23 Answer: E |
front 24 24) Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages A) give new gene sequences to the host bacteria. B) produce toxins. C) carry plasmids. D) kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins. E) kill human cells. | back 24 Answer: A |
front 25 25) Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is A) botulinum toxin. B) aflatoxin. C) staphylococcal enterotoxin. D) erythrogenic toxin. E) cholera toxin. | back 25 Answer: D |
front 26 26) Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE? A) It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. B) It is found on fimbriae. C) It is heat- and acid-resistant. D) It is readily digested by phagocytes. E) It is a protein. | back 26 Answer: D |
front 27 27) Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram-positive bacterial infections due to A) A-B toxins. B) lipid A. C) membrane-disrupting toxins. D) superantigens. E) erythrogenic toxin. | back 27 Answer: D |
front 28 28) Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection? A) the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection B) the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by coli C) the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection D) the fever, nausea, and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection E) the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection | back 28 Answer: B |
front 29 29) Polio is transmitted by ingestion of water contaminated with feces containing polio virus. What portal of entry does polio virus use? A) skin only B) parenteral only C) mucous membranes only D) skin and parenteral E) skin, parenteral, and mucous membranes | back 29 Answer: C |
front 30 30) All of the following bacteria release endotoxin EXCEPT A) Clostridium botulinum. B) Salmonella typhi. C) Neisseria meningitidis. D) Proteus vulgaris. E) Haemophilus influenzae. | back 30 Answer: A |
front 31 31) Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed, A) polypeptide A would bind to target cells. B) polypeptide A would enter the cells. C) polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells. D) Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin. E) Vibrio would bind to target cells. | back 31 Answer: C |
front 32 32) Bacteria such as E. coli and Salmonella produce invasins that bind host cells, thus causing the cells to A) release TNF. B) produce iron-binding proteins. C) engulf the bacteria. D) destroy the bacteria. E) release cytokines. | back 32 Answer: C |
front 33 33) Which of the following mechanisms is used by gram-negative bacteria to cross the blood-brain barrier? A) producing fimbriae B) inducing endocytosis C) producing toxins D) inducing TNF E) antigenic variation | back 33 Answer: D |
front 34 34) Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by A) the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test. B) counting the viable bacteria. C) filtering out the cells. D) looking for turbidity. E) culturing bacteria. | back 34 Answer: A |
front 35 35) Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause A) infection. B) septic shock symptoms. C) giant cell formation. D) nerve damage. E) no damage, because they are sterile. | back 35 Answer: B |
front 36 36) Gram-negative septic shock results from the following events. What is the second step? A) Body temperature is reset in the hypothalamus. B) Fever occurs. C) IL-1 is released. D) LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria. E) Phagocytes ingest gram-negative bacteria. | back 36 Answer: D |
front 37 37) Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat A) viral infections. B) gram-negative bacterial infections. C) gram-positive bacterial infections. D) protozoan infections. E) helminth infestations. | back 37 Answer: B |
front 38 38) Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses? A) cell death B) host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia C) inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus D) increased cell growth E) toxin production | back 38 Answer: E |
front 39  Table 15.1 shows the ID50 for Staphylococcus aureus in wounds with and without the administration of ampicillin before surgery. Based on the data, the administration of ampicillin before surgery A) decreases the risk of staphylococcal infection. B) increases the risk of staphylococcal infection. C) has no effect on risk of infection. D) replaces tetracycline. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. | back 39 Answer: A |
front 40  40) Which organism in Table 15.2 most easily causes an infection? A) coli O157:H7 B) Legionella pneumophila C) Shigella D) Treponema pallidum E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. | back 40 Answer: Ba |
front 41  41) Which organism in Table 15.2 causes the most severe disease? A) coli O157:H7 B) Legionella pneumophila C) Shigella D) Treponema pallidum E) It cannot be determined from the information provided. | back 41 Answer: E |
front 42 42) Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth. This indicates that A) streptococci get bacterial infections. B) streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease. C) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth. D) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth. E) streptococci cause periodontal disease. | back 42 Answer: B |
front 43 43) Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by A) phagocytosis. B) transduction. C) conjugation. D) transformation. E) infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae. | back 43 Answer: B |
front 44 44) In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes A) the disease to subside. B) a decrease in blood pressure. C) a fever. D) a gram-negative infection. E) an increase in red blood cells. | back 44 Answer: B |
front 45 45) Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery. Instruments and solutions were sterile, and the Limulus assay was positive. The patients' inflammation was due to A) bacterial infection. B) viral infection. C) endotoxin. D) exotoxin. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. | back 45 Answer: C |
front 46 1) In general, the LD50 for exotoxins is much greater than the LD50 for endotoxins. | back 46 Answer: FALSE |
front 47 2) Biofilms provide pathogens with an adhesion mechanism and aid in resistance to antimicrobial agents. | back 47 Answer: TRUE |
front 48 3) The M protein enhances the virulence of Streptococcus by preventing phagocytosis. | back 48 Answer: TRUE |
front 49 4) In A-B exotoxins, the A component binds to the host cell receptor so that the B component can enter the cell. | back 49 Answer: FALSE |
front 50 5) The Limulus amoebocyte assay is used to detect minute amounts of endotoxin in drugs and medical devices. | back 50 Answer: TRUE |
front 51 6) Cytopathic effects, such as inclusion bodies and syncytium formation, are the visible signs of viral infections. | back 51 Answer: TRUE |
front 52 7) Ergot and aflatoxin are toxins sometimes found in grains contaminated with fungi. | back 52 Answer: TRUE |
front 53 8) Most symptoms of endotoxins can be treated with administration of anti-endotoxin antibodies. | back 53 Answer: FALSE |
front 54 9) Infections with some viruses may induce chromosomal changes that alter the growth properties of host cells. | back 54 Answer: TRUE |
front 55 10) Many pathogens use the same portal for entry and exit from the body. | back 55 Answer: TRUE |