front 1 1. What is the average weight of the adult human liver? | back 1 3 to 4 pounds or 1/36 of total body weight |
front 2 2. Which abdominal quadrant contains the gallbladder? | back 2 Right upper quadrant |
front 3 3. What is the name of the soft tissue structure that separates the right from the left lobe of the liver? | back 3 Falciform ligament |
front 4 4. Which lobe of the liver is larger, the right or the left? | back 4 Right |
front 5 5. List the other two lobes of the liver (in addition to right or the left)? | back 5 Quadrate, Caudate |
front 6 6. True or False: the liver performs more than 100 functions? | back 6 True |
front 7 7. True or False: The average healthy adult liver produces 1 gallon, or 3000 to 4000 mL, of bile per day. | back 7 False |
front 8 8. List the three primary functions of the gallbladder? | back 8 Store bile, concentrate bile, contracts to release bile into duodenum |
front 9 9. True or False: Concentrated levels of cholesterol in bile may lead to gallstones? | back 9 True |
front 10 10. What is a common site for impaction, or lodging, of gallstones? | back 10 Duodenal papilla |
front 11 11. True or False: In about 40% of individuals, the end of the common bile duct and the end of the pancreatic duct are totally separated into two ducts rather than combining into one single passageway into the duodenum? | back 11 True |
front 12 12. True or False: An older term for the main pancreatic duct is the duct of Vater. | back 12 False |
front 13 13. The gallbladder is located more (posteriorly or anteriorly) within the abdomen? | back 13 anteriorly |
front 14 14. Which imaging modality produces cholescintigraphy? | back 14 Nuclear medicine |
front 15 15. True or False: Acute cholecystitis may produce a thickened gallbladder wall? | back 15 True |
front 16 16. Cholelithiasis | back 16 condition of having gallstones |
front 17 17. Cholecystitis | back 17 Inflammation of the gallbladder |
front 18 18. Biliary stenosis | back 18 Narrowing of the biliary ducts |
front 19 19. Cholecystectomy | back 19 Surgical removal of the gallbladder |
front 20 20. Neoplasm | back 20 benign or malignant tumors |
front 21 21. Choledocholithiasis | back 21 enlargement or narrowing of the biliary ducts because of the presence of stones. |
front 22 22. List the seven main components of the alimentary canal | back 22 mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small & large intestine, anus, salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gallbladder |
front 23 23. List the four accessory organs of digestion | back 23 salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gallbladder |
front 24 24. The three primary functions of the digestive system | back 24 intake and digestion of food, absorption of digested food particles, elimination of solid waste. |
front 25 25. What two terms refer to a radiographic examination of the pharynx and esophagus? | back 25 esophagram or barium swallow |
front 26 26. Which terms describes the radiographic study of the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum? | back 26 Upper gastrointestinal series or upper GI |
front 27 27. Which three pairs of salivary glands are accessory organs of digestion associated with the mouth? | back 27 parotid, sublingual, submadibular |
front 28 28. The act of swallowing is called? | back 28 deglutition |
front 29 29. List the three divisions of the pharynx | back 29 nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx |
front 30 30. What structures create the two indentations seen along the lateral border of the esophagus? | back 30 aortic arch, left primary bronchus |
front 31 31. List the three structures that pass through the diaphragm | back 31 esophagus, inferior vena cava, aorta |
front 32 32. What part of the upper GI tract is a common site for the ulcer disease? | back 32 duodenal bulb or cap |
front 33 33. What term describes the junction between the duodenum and jejunum? | back 33 duodenojejunal flexure (suspensory muscle of the duodenum or ligament of Treitz) |
front 34 34. The C-loop of the duodenum and pancreas are (intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal) structures. | back 34 retroperitoneal |
front 35 35. The three main subdivisions of the stomach are? | back 35 Fundus, body, pylorus |
front 36 36. Another term for mucosal folds of the stomach is? | back 36 rugae |
front 37 37. True or False: Mechanical digestion includes movement of the entire gastrointestinal tract? | back 37 True |
front 38 38. Peristaltic activity is not found in which of the following structures ( Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine)? | back 38 pharynx |
front 39 39. Stomach contents are churned into a semifluid mass called? | back 39 chyme |
front 40 40. A churning or mixing activity present in the small bowl is called? | back 40 rhythmic segmentation |
front 41 41. List the three classes of substances that ingested and must be chemically digested. | back 41 carbohydrates, proteins, lipids |
front 42 42. Biologic catalysts that speed up the process of digestion are called? | back 42 enzymes |
front 43 43. List the end products of digestion for the following classes of food carbohydrates (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins) | back 43 simple sugars, fatty acids and glycerol, amino acids |
front 44 44. What is the name of the liquid substance that aids in digestion and is manufactured in the liver and stored in the gallbladder? | back 44 bile |
front 45 45. How does bile assist in emulsification in fat? | back 45 large fat droplets are broken down to small fat droplets, which have greater access for the breakdown of lipids |
front 46 46. Absorption of nutrients primarily takes place in the ____________, although some substances are absorbed through the lining of the ___________. | back 46 small intestine, of the stomach |
front 47 47. Any residues of digestion or unabsorbed digestive products are eliminated from the ________ as a component of feces. | back 47 large intestine |
front 48 48. Peristalsis is an example of which type of digestion. | back 48 mechanical |
front 49 49. Which term describes food once it is mixed with gastric secretions in the stomach? | back 49 chyme |
front 50 50. A high and transverse stomach would be found in a (hypersthenic, sthenic, hyposthenic, asthenic) | back 50 hypersthenic |
front 51 51. A J-shaped stomach that is more vertical and lower in the abdomen with the duodenal bulb at the level of L3-L4 would be found in a(n) (hyperstenic, sthenic, hyposthenic/asthenic or none of the above) | back 51 hyposthenic/asthenic |
front 52 52. On the average, how much will abdominal organs drop in the erect position? | back 52 1 to 2 inches |
front 53 53. Name the two abdominal organs most dramatically affected, in relation to location, by body habitus? | back 53 Stomach and gallbladder |
front 54 54. Would the fundus of the stomach be more superior or more inferior when one takes in a deep breath? Why? | back 54 Inferior, because of its proximity to the diaphragm |
front 55 55. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in oral cavity | back 55 mastication and deglutition |
front 56 56. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in pharynx | back 56 deglutition |
front 57 57. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in Esophagus | back 57 deglutition, peristalsis |
front 58 58. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in stomach | back 58 peristalsis and mixing |
front 59 59. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in the small intestine | back 59 peristalsis and rhythmic segmentation |
front 60 60. True or False: With the use of digital fluoroscopy, the number of postfluoroscopy radiographs ordered has greatly diminished. | back 60 True |
front 61 61. Another term for a negative contrast medium is ____ | back 61 Radiolucent contrast medium |
front 62 62. What substance is most commonly ingested to produce carbon dioxide gas as a negative contrast medium for gastrointestinal system? | back 62 calcium or magnesium citrate |
front 63 63. Is a mixture of barium sulfate a suspension or a solution? | back 63 suspension |
front 64 64. True or False: Barium sulfate never dissolves is water. | back 64 True |
front 65 65. True or False: Certian salts of barium are poisonous to humans, so barium contrast studies require a pure sulfate salt of barium for human consumption during GI studies. | back 65 True |
front 66 66. What is the ratio of water to barium for a thin mixture of barium sulfate | back 66 1:1 |
front 67 67. What is the chemical symbol for barium sulfate? | back 67 BaSO4 |
front 68 68. When is the use of barium sulfate contraindicated? | back 68 when the mixture may escape the peritoneal cavity |
front 69 71. What patient condition prevents the use of a water-soluble contrast medium for an upper GI? | back 69 sensitivity to iodine |
front 70 72. What is the major advantage for using a double-contrast medium technique for esophagrams and upper GI? | back 70 better coating and visibility of the mucosa. Polyps, diverticula, and ulcers are better demonstrated. |
front 71 73. The speed with which barium sulfate passes through the GI tract is called gastric | back 71 motility |
front 72 74. What is the purpose of the gas with a double-contrast media technique | back 72 It forces the barium sulfate against the mucosa for better coating |
front 73 75. Which of the following devices on a digital fluoroscopy system converts the analog into a digital signal (PACS, Light converter, CCD, OTS) | back 73 CCD |
front 74 76. What device (found beneath the radiographic table when correctly positioned) greatly reduces exposure to the technologist from the fluoroscopic x-ray tube? | back 74 bucky slot shield |
front 75 77. How is the bucky slot shield activated or placed in its correct position for fluoroscopy? | back 75 by moving the bucky tray all the way to the end of the table |
front 76 78. What is the minimum level of protective apron worn during fluoroscopy? | back 76 0.5 mm Pb/Eq apron |
front 77 79. What is the major benefit of using a compression paddle during an upper GI study? | back 77 reduces exposure to arms and hands of radiologist |
front 78 80. List the three cardinal principles of radiation protection. | back 78 time, distance, shielding |
front 79 81. Which one of the three cardinal principles is most effective in reducing exposure to the technologist during a fluoroscopic procedure? | back 79 distance |
front 80 82. Which capability on most digital fluoroscopy systems demonstrates dynamic flow of contrast media through the GI Tract. | back 80 cine loop capability |
front 81 83. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Difficulty in swallowing | back 81 dysphagia |
front 82 84. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Replacement of normal squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium | back 82 barrett's esophagus |
front 83 85. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: May lead to esophagitis | back 83 GERD |
front 84 86. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Large outpouching of the esophagus? | back 84 Zenker's diverticulum |
front 85 87. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: also called cardiospasm | back 85 achalasia |
front 86 88. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: most common form is adenocarcinoma | back 86 carcinoma of the esophagus |
front 87 89. What pathology for upper GI series is: Blood in vomit | back 87 hematemesis |
front 88 90. What pathology for upper GI series is: inflammation of lining of stomach | back 88 gastritis |
front 89 91. What pathology for upper GI series is: blind outpouching of the mucosal wall | back 89 diverticula |
front 90 92. What pathology for upper GI series is: undigested material trapped in stomach | back 90 bezoar |
front 91 93. What pathology for upper GI series is: synonymous with gastric or duodenal ulcer | back 91 peptic ulcer |
front 92 94. What pathology for upper GI series is: portion of stomach protruding through the diaphragmatic opening | back 92 hiatal hernia |
front 93 95. What pathology for upper GI series is: only 5% of ulcers lead to this condition | back 93 perforating ulcer |
front 94 96. What pathology for upper GI series is: Double - contrast upper GI is recommended for this type of tumor | back 94 gastric carcinoma |
front 95 97. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Its presence indicates a possible sliding hiatal hernia | back 95 schatzki's diverticulum |
front 96 98. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Speckled appearance of gastric mucus | back 96 gastritis |
front 97 99. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: "wormlike" appearance of esophagus | back 97 esophageal varices |
front 98 100. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Stricture of esophagus | back 98 achalasia |
front 99 101. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Gastric bubble above diaphragm | back 99 hiatal hernia |
front 100 102. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Irregular filling defect within stomach | back 100 gastric carcinoma |
front 101 103. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Enlarged recess in proximal esophagus | back 101 zenker's diverticulum |
front 102 104. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: "Lucent-halo" sign during upper GI | back 102 ulcers |
front 103 105. Which procedure is often performed to detect early signs of GERD | back 103 endoscopy |
front 104 106. Which specific structure of the gastrointestinal system is affected by HPS | back 104 antral muscle at the orifice of the plyorus |
front 105 107.Which imaging modality is most effective in diagnosing HPS while reducing dose to the patient? | back 105 ultrasound |
front 106 108. What does the acronym NPO stand for and what does it mean | back 106 non per os, nothing by mouth |
front 107 109. True or False: The patient must be NPO 4-6 hours before an esophagram | back 107 False 8 hours |
front 108 110. True or False: The esophagogram usually begins with fluoroscopy with the patient in the erect position | back 108 True |
front 109 111. What materials may be used for swallowing to aid in the diagnosis of radiolucent foreign bodies in the esophagus? | back 109 barium soaked cotton balls, barium pills, or marshmallows followed by thin barium |
front 110 112. A breathing technique in which the patient takes in a deep breath and bears down is called the _____? | back 110 valsalva maneuver |
front 111 113. What position is the patient usually placed in during the water test? | back 111 LPO |
front 112 114. Which region of the GI tract is better visualized when the radiologist uses a compression paddle during an esopagram | back 112 esophagogastric junction |
front 113 115. What type of contrast medium should be used if the patient has a history of bowl perforation? | back 113 oral, water soluble iodinated contrast media |
front 114 116. What is the minimum amount of time that the patient should be NPO before an upper GI | back 114 8 hours |
front 115 117. True or False: The body of the stomach curves inferiorly and posteriorly from the fundus | back 115 False |
front 116 118. What is the most common form of positive contrast medium used for studies of the gastrointestinal system | back 116 barium sulfate |