A written page or spoken word are examples of which of the following components of communication?

A. Message B. Channel C. Source D. Feedback

written page or spoken word are examples of which of the following components of communication?

A. Message B. Channel C. Source D. Feedback

b channel

written page or a spoken word are each a channel for the message being communicated. They are the means by which the message travels from the source to the receiver.

According to the American Heart Association's guidelines, what is the correct order for administering basic life support (CPR)?

A. Circulation, airway, breathing B. Airway, circulation, breathing C. Breathing, circulation, airway D. Airway, breathing, circulation

A. Circulation, airway, breathing

By changing the sequence, compressions will be initiated sooner and starting with compressions may encourage more bystanders to begin CPR.

An unconscious patient whose skin is dry and has a fruity odor on his/her breath is a classic example of what?

A. Drunkenness B. Insulin shock C. Diabetes D. Diabetic coma

D. Diabetic coma

A diabetic patient whose skin is dry and breath has a fruity odor is suffering from hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, and is in need of insulin. If left untreated, this condition will lead to diabetic coma.

During a myelogram, what position is the patient in when his head is put lower than his feet?

A. Fowler B. Prone C. Trendelenburg D. Sim's

C. Trendelenburg

Used during a myelogram to allow contrast to flow into the cervical area, the Trendelenburg position has the patient's feet raised higher than the head.

What type of shock is caused by loss of blood due to a knife or gunshot wound?

A. Cardiogenic shock B. Septic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Hypovolemic shock

D. Hypovolemic shock

Hypovolemic (hypo = under, below; volemic = relating to volume) shock is the result of severe blood or volume loss.

Anaphylaxis is a potentially life‑threatening allergic reaction that can occur quickly (as fast as within a couple of minutes of exposure to the allergen). Anaphylaxis can be caused by a number of allergens, or triggers, which commonly include certain foods, insect stinging and biting, medications and latex.

C. Anaphylactic shock

blank is a serious medical condition that occurs when sepsis, which is organ injury or damage in response to infection, leads to dangerously low blood pressure and abnormalities in cellular metabolism.

Septic shock

which of the following elements are currently found in all intravenous solutions of contrast media?

A. Iodine B. Nitrogen C. Sulfur D. Barium

A. Iodine

All intravenous solutions of contrast media used in diagnostic radiographic exams include iodine

When the body is invaded by pathogens, what is the response in the bloodstream?

A. Red blood cells increase B. White blood cells increase C. DNA increases D. Serum increases

B. White blood cells increase

The inflammatory reaction to invading pathogens includes an increase in the number of white blood cells which attack the invaders.

Red blood cells: The blood cells that carry oxygen. Red cells contain hemoglobin and it is the hemoglobin which permits them to transport oxygen (and carbon dioxide). Hemoglobin, aside from being a transport molecule, is a pigment. It gives the cells their red color (and their name).

The abbreviation for red blood cells is RBCs. Red blood cells are sometime simply called red cells. They are also called erythrocytes or, rarely today, red blood corpuscles.

Red blood cells: The blood cells that carry oxygen. Red cells contain hemoglobin and it is the hemoglobin which permits them to transport oxygen (and carbon dioxide). Hemoglobin, aside from being a transport molecule, is a pigment. It gives the cells their red color (and their name).

The abbreviation for red blood cells is RBCs. Red blood cells are sometime simply called red cells. They are also called erythrocytes or, rarely today, red blood corpuscles.

Which of the following is NOT a legal right of a patient in the radiology department?

A. To know the technologist's name B. To refuse the radiographic exam C. To be informed of the possible risks D. To ask for and receive extra studies

D. To ask for and receive extra studiesThe patient has no legal right to ask for and receive extra studies.

According to Maslow's hierarchy, which of the following is a person's most basic need?

A. Safety and security B. Self-esteem C. Physiological needs D. Self-actualization

C. Physiological needs

The first and most basic rung of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is physiologic, including food, shelter and clothing.

Which of the following conditions would be considered "easy to penetrate"?

A. Edema B. Degenerative arthritis C. Paget's disease D. Pneumonia

B. Degenerative arthritis

Degenerative arthritis involves a deterioration of the joints. This destructive process makes the bony area easier to penetrate

A radiographer's primary responsibility is to which of the following?

A. The radiologist B. The patient's needs C. The hospital D. The radiology department

B. The patient's needs

The patient's needs come first when the radiographer is performing an exam

which of the following is an example of good body mechanics?

A. Bend from the knees B. Keep feet close together C. Bend from the waist D. Carry objects at arms length

A. Bend from the knees

Good body mechanics involves bending from the knees and keeping the back straight.

When is an I.V. considered to be infiltrated?

A. When blood is seen in I.V. tubing

B. When the needle is accidently pulled out

C. When solution is leaking into tissue

D. When the I.V. is injected int

An I.V. that is infiltrated has I.V. solution leaking into the tissue surrounding the injection site.

C. When solution is leaking into tissue

What is the type of shock that is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs?

A. Cardiogenic shock B. Septic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Hypovolemic shock

A. Cardiogenic shock

cardiogenic (cardi = heart; genic = originating) shock is due to failure of the heart to pump blood to the vital organs

An eGFR (estimated GFR) of _______ indicates that IV iodinated contrast is contraindicated due to poor kidney function.

A. less than 30 mL/min/1.73 square meters B. between 30 and 60 mL/min/1.73 square meters C. greater than 60 mL/min/1.73 square meters D. greater than 85 mL/min/1.73 square meters

An eGFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 square meters indicates that a procedure requiring iodinated contrast media should not be done.

Which of the following describes a paraplegic?

A. Paralyzed from the waist up B. Paralyzed from the waist down C. Paralyzed on one side D. Paralyzed in all four extremities

B. Paralyzed from the waist down

A paraplegic refers to an individual who has paralysis of the lower part of the body, from the waist down.

for a patient with I.V. therapy, how high above the vein should the container of solution be kept?

A. As high as possible B. 10-12" C. 18-20" D. 28-30"

C. 18-20"

The container of fluids, usually a bag, should be kept 18 - 20" above the site of the IV.

f CPR is NOT started within _______ of cardiac arrest, there will be brain damage due to lack of oxygen.

A. 1-3 minutes B. 4-6 minutes C. 7-10 minutes D. 15 minutes

A. 1-3 minutes

Brain damage starts when the brain receives no oxygen for as little as 4 - 6 minutes. Therefore, you want to start CPR before 4 minutes

GFR stands for:

A. gastrointestinal function ratio. B. generalize formative role. C. glomerular filtration rate. D. greater freedom relation

C. glomerular filtration rate.

GFR stands for glomerular filtration rate. It is a blood test for creatinine and tells how well your kidneys are working.

What is the best way to move a heavy object?

A. Pull it B. Push it C. Drag it D. Lift itt in a back injury.

B. Push it

the best way to move a heavy object is to push it. All other methods may result in a back injury.

Which of the following may cause a patient to faint?

1. Hunger
2. Emotional stress
3. Lack of sleep
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3Hunger, stress, and lack of sleep can all cause a patient to have insufficient blood flow to the brain, resulting in faintin

What does it mean to administer drugs parenterally?

1. I.V. or by injection
2. Orally
3. Rectally
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

A. 1 only

Parenteral indicates that administration is not through the gastrointestinal tract. Intravenous or by injection are the only routes listed here that are parenteral.

What is the usual rate of flow for an adult with an I.V. in use?

A. 2 drops per minute B. 20 drops per minute C. 60 drops per minute D. 99 drops per minute

B. 20 drops per minute

the usual flow rate for an I.V. infusion in an adult is 20 drops per minute.

Which of the following conditions would be considered "hard to penetrate"?

A. Emphysema B. Osteoporosis C. Osteosclerosis D. Pneumothorax

C. Osteosclerosis

Osteosclerosis, meaning hardening (scler) of the bones (osteo) would make the bones denser, harder for the x-ray beam to penetrate.

If a patient convulses in the x-ray department, the radiographer should do which of the following?

A. Insert a padded tongue blade B. Restrain the patient C. Prevent injury to the patient D. Put the patient on the floor

C. Prevent injury to the patient

the primary responsibility of a radiographer caring for a patient who is convulsing is to prevent the patient from suffering injury.

hile in the operating room, which of the following is NOT considered a sterile area?

A. The patient B. An instrument table C. The anesthetist D. A scrub nurse

C. The anesthetist

The safest thing to do while in the O.R. is to avoid touching anything except your x-ray equipment and accessories.

A patient in a diabetic coma needs which of the following?

A. Something with sugar B. Something salty C. More insulin D. An immediate transfusion

C. More insulin

The patient in diabetic coma has hyperglycemia due to an insufficient amount of insulin in the bloodstream. The correct action is for the patient to have more insulin.

While radiographing a patient with chest tube drainage, which of the following actions must be taken?

A. Clamp drainage tube B. Keep drainage tube below chest C. Raise drainage system above chest D. Turn pump off during the exam

B. Keep drainage tube below chest

When a patient has chest tube drainage it is imperative that the tubing be kept below the level of the chest. This way the material being drained cannot reenter the chest.

Which of the following should be done when moving a patient with a broken arm?

A. Support only the elbow B. Support only the wrist C. Support the entire arm D. Support only the forearm

C. Support the entire arm

Whenever a broken extremity must be moved, it is important to support the entire limb, preventing further injury.

What should be your first action if a patient is bleeding profusely from an open leg wound?

A. Go for a nurse B. Apply direct pressure to the wound C. Go for a doctor D. Finish the radiographs quickly

B. Apply direct pressure to the wound

The first action taken in response to profuse bleeding from an open wound is to apply direct pressure.

Where should a patient's urinary bag be kept while transferring him/her from the stretcher to the x-ray table?

A. Resting on the patient's legs B. Below bladder level C. At bladder level D. Between the stretcher and table

B. Below bladder level

A patient's urinary bag should always be kept below the level of the bladder. Raising the bag above that level will allow urine to flow back into the bladder, possibly causing infection.

If a patient's I.V. site becomes puffy and swollen, what should the radiographer do?

A. Pull the needle out and restart the I.V. B. Check with the head nurse C. Clamp off the I.V. D. Do nothing

C. Clamp off the I.V.

When a patient's IV infiltrates, the surrounding tissue becomes puffy and swollen. The radiographer should clamp off the IV so that no more fluid can escape into the tissue.

touching a patient without permission" is the legal definition of what?

A. Assault B. Malpractice C. Battery D. Perjury

C. Battery

"Touching a patient without permission" is the legal definition of battery

What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiographic exams?

A. Hypovolemic shock B. Septic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Cardiogenic shock

c Anaphylactic shock

Patients who are allergic to contrast media may develop a severe reaction, known as anaphylactic shock. Treatment may include epinephrine (adrenaline) or corticosteriods.

If someone needs to hold a patient during a radiographic procedure, who should be asked?

A. A student B. A nurse's aide C. Another technologist D. The patient's family member

D. The patient's family member

If a radiographic exam can be performed only if the patient is held, then that job should go to the patient's family member. The very last is for a health care worker to stay with the patient during the exposure

When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table which action would you do first?

A. Lock the wheelchair brakes B. Raise footrests out of the way C. Put wheelchair parallel to the table D. Help patient to stand

C. Put wheelchair parallel to the table

Before locking the wheelchair brakes, it is important to have the wheelchair in the correct place. The wheelchair should be situated parallel to the radiographic table.

If you determine that a patient is in need of CPR, what should be your first response?

A. Begin cardiac compressions B. Run for help C. Begin mouth to mouth D. Call for help

D. Call for help

The initial action of a person responding to a person in need of CPR is to call out for help

What stage of grieving is the terminally ill patient in when he/she begins to deal with his/her pain and illness?

A. Depression stage B. Acceptance stage C. Anger stage D. Bargaining stage

B. Acceptance stage

When the terminally ill patient begins the process of dealing with her illness, she is in the acceptance stage. This is considered the final stage, according to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross.

Medication reconciliation refers to:

A. not giving a patient medication if it is not the right one for the exam.

B. determining whether the medications a patient is taking are the right ones for them.

C. reviewing the medications a patient is taking and determining if there are any concerns for administering contrast media.

D. All of the above

C. reviewing the medications a patient is taking and determining if there are any concerns for administering contrast media

For the imaging department, medication reconciliation involves obtaining a patient history indicating all medications currently taken and these being evaluated for possible interactions with medications that may be used during a procedure.

What is the most severe form of convulsive seizures?

A. Petit mal B. Grand mal C. Partial D. Epileptic

B. Grand mal

The most severe type of convulsive seizure is the grand mal, or tonic-clonic seizure

what is the first thing you should do if a patient who is standing turns pale and says he feels dizzy?

A. Quickly make the exposure B. Have the patient inhale ammonia C. Take the patient's blood pressure D. Have the patient lie down

D. Have the patient lie down

When an erect patient turns pale and complains of dizziness, your first response should be to have the patient lie down. Further assessment should then take place.

an adverse reaction to contrast media that is NOT immediately life threatening but often requires treatment is considered:

A. mild. B. moderate. C. severe. D. extreme.

B. moderate

moderate reaction to contrast media, such as hypertension or dyspnea, often require treatment and must be closely monitored.

Which of the following best describes the Fowler position?

A. Head lower than feet B. Feet lower than head C. Prone D. Lateral recumbent

B. Feet lower than head

The Fowler position, the opposite of Trendelenburg, has the patient's feet lower than their head.

which of the following would describe an ambulatory patient?

A. One that is bedridden B. One that cannot speak C. One that is able to walk D. One that arrived by ambulance

c One that is able to walk

an ambulatory patient is able to get around by walking.

While in an operating room, what precautions can be taken to minimize the explosive hazard?

1. Clean the x-ray equipment
2. Wear covers over shoes
3. Wear cap over head
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

When in the operating room, the radiographer should be sure that the x-ray equipment is kept clean and that he/she wears shoe covers and a cap.

What can happen if a diabetic patient has taken his/her normal dose of insulin but has been NPO since midnight?

A. Go into diabetic coma B. Go into insulin shock C. Develop difficulty breathing D. Dehydrate

B. Go into insulin shock

A diabetic patient who takes their normal dose of insulin but does not eat their normal amount of food will have too much insulin in their bloodstream. This situation can develop into insulin shock.

A professional assessment of a patient's health will require which of the following?

1. Observe his physical condition
2. Note his mental state
3. Be aware of his cultural background
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

Assessing a patient's health requires gaining understanding about his physical and mental conditions, as well as an awareness of the cultural background.

What is the proper procedure for turning a disabled patient on an x-ray table?

A. Turn the patient away from you B. Turn the patient's legs first C. Turn the patient toward you D. Turn the patient whichever way is easier

C. Turn the patient toward you

If a disabled patient on an x-ray table needs to be turned, you should turn them towards you, allowing you to maintain control over the patient's movements

The patient in insulin shock who is still conscious requires which of the following?

A. Something with sugar B. Something salty C. More insulin D. An immediate transfusion

A. Something with sugar

Insulin shock is the result of an overdose of insulin, resulting in the patient's blood sugar level dropping below normal. The patient needs to immediately ingest something with sugar in order to raise the blood sugar level to normal.

Which of the following would be considered an example of negative non-verbal communication?

A. A smile B. Eye contact C. Leaning toward patient when talking D. Standing with your arms crossed

D. Standing with your arms crossed

Standing with your arms crossed is considered a closed body posture and, non-verbally, is sending a negative message of unwillingness to communicate.

According to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross, what is the first stage of the grieving process?

A. Bargaining B. Acceptance C. Denial D. Anger

ccording to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross, when faced with a life-threatening disease, the first step in the grieving process is denial, a refusal to believe that it could be happening.

When inserting an enema tip, what position is the patient in?

A. Fowler B. Prone C. Trendelenburg D. Sim's

D. Sim's

When inserting an enema tip, the patient should be in the Sim's position, lying on the left side with the right leg pulled up and forward.

If a patient has an allergic reaction to the contrast media during an IVU, which should be done first?

A. Apply cold compresses B. Inject 5 cc's of Benadryl C. Inject 5 ml's of adrenalin D. Call for a doctor

D. Call for a doctor

When a patient has a contrast reaction, the first action by a radiographer should be to call for a physician.

he "threat of touching a person in a harmful manner" is the legal definition of what?

A. Assault B. Battery C. Injury D. Negligence

A. Assault

Assault is the "threat of touching a person in a harmful manner". Assault does not have to involve physically hurting someone.

Normal serum creatinine levels for an adult range from:

A. 0.2 to 0.4 mg/dl.

Normal serum creatinine levels for an adult range from:

A. 0.2 to 0.4 mg/dl. B. 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dl. C. 2.0 to 3.2 mg/dl. D. 4.0 to 6.3 mg/dl. C. 2.0 to 3.2 mg/dl. D. 4.0 to 6.3 mg/dl.

b N 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dl.

he normal adult creatinine level is between 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dl.

Which of the following procedures would require an informed consent form to be completed?

A. Upper G.I. series B. Cerebral angiogram C. T-tube choleangiogram D. Barium enema

B. Cerebral angiogram

The cerebral angiogram, a highly invasive procedure, requires the patient to sign an informed consent form

A disease spread by kissing is being transmitted by which of the following methods?

A. Direct contact B. Vector C. Droplet D. Vehicle

Direct contact describes the method of transmission when a disease is spread by kissing.

According to the CDC, an infection that the patient acquires while in the hospital is known as what?

A. Viral infection B. Gangrenous infection C. Health care associated infection D. Hospitality infection

. Health care associated infection

Once called a nosocomial infection, a health care associated infection is acquired by the patient while in a health care setting.

Which of the following is necessary when doing a mobile chest radiograph on a patient on droplet precautions?

A. Wearing a mask B. Wearing a gown C. Wearing gloves D. A ventilated room

A. Wearing a mask

Droplet precautions is one of the CDC's transmission-based precautions. It does not require that gloves or a gown be worn. The primary requirement is that a surgical mask be used, sometimes by both the radiographer and the patient.

Which of the following terms would be synonymous with surgical asepsis?

A. Cleanliness B. Sterilization C. Contamination D. Disinfection

B. Sterilization

surgical asepsis or sterilization means treating items with heat, gas or chemicals to make them germfree.

Which of the following terms is best defined as any disease producing microorganism?

A. Pathogen B. Fungus C. Bacterium D. Asepsis

A. Pathogen

A pathogen is the broad term for any disease-producing microorganism.

Which of the following is the most effective method for achieving medical asepsis?

A. Frequent handwashing B. Having employees in perfect health C. Changing linen after every patient D. Cleaning the x-ray table often

. Frequent handwashing

The most effective method for achieving medical asepsis, a reduction in the number of infectious agents, is frequent handwashing.

In opening a cloth-wrapped sterile pack, how should the first outer corner be opened?

A. With sterile gloves B. Towards you C. Away from you D. To the side

C. Away from you

When opening a sterile package that is wrapped in cloth, the first outer corner should be opened away from you.

Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see if a patient was in shock?

1. Restlessness
2. Increase in pulse rate
3. Pallor (lack of color) accompanied by weakness
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

Shock is when blood pressure is inadequate to support vital body functions. It is the most common life-threatening situation the radiographer is likely to encounter. Be able to recognize these symptoms!

What should be done with the portable unit after doing an isolation patient with a respiratory disease?

A. It must be sterilized B. It must be wiped with a disinfectant C. It cannot be used for 24 hours D. Nothing needs to be done

B. It must be wiped with a disinfectant

After radiographing a patient in respiratory isolation, the mobile unit should be thoroughly wiped down with a disinfectant.

Which of the following must be done with the cassettes after they are used for an isolation patient?

A. Destroyed B. Set aside for 24 hours C. Disinfected before used again D. Left in the pillowcase

C. Disinfected before used again

Cassettes that are used for an isolation patient should be wiped with a disinfectant before being used again

A disease spread through contaminated water or food is being transmitted by which of the following methods?

A. Vector B. Vehicle C. Direct contact D. Droplet

B. Vehicle

Disease that is spread through contaminated food or water is spread by a vehicle, in these cases the food and water. They act as a reservoir for the infectious microorganism.

How should two people in sterile gowns pass each other?

A. Front to front B. Back to back C. Right side to right side D. Right side to left side

B. Back to back

When two people, both of whom are dressed in sterile gowns, pass each other in close proximity, they should pass back to back.

Which of the following classifications do yeasts and molds fit into?

A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Pathologies

B. Fungi

Yeasts and molds are considered fungi.

What should be done with a plastic cassette cover after it is used to cover a cassette during an isolation patient's exam?

A. Take it with you

B. Leave it on the floor in the isolation room

C. Discard it in a red, infectious waste, plastic bag

D. Use it for the next isolation patient

C. Discard it in a red, infectious waste, plastic bag

Contaminated materials that can be discarded are left in the patient's room in a red infectious waste bag.

The common cold is an example of a disease process caused by which of the following?

1. Virus
2. Bacterium
3. Fungus
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

A. 1 only

The common cold, or rhinitis, is a disease produced by a virus.

DEXA is an abbreviation for _______.

A. Dual Energy X-ray Attenuation

B. Density Effects of X-ray Absorption

C. Direct Evaluation of Xanthoma Abnormality

D. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry

D. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry

Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry is a means of determining bone mineral density. It is known as bone densitometry.

Which of the following individuals is responsible for getting a patient's informed consent?

A. Radiographer B. Physician C. Family member D. Radiology nurse

. Physician

Even though radiographers often times get a patient to sign a consent form, it is the physician's responsibility to provide that patient with the information

Which of the following diseases is NOT considered communicable?

A. Hepatitis B. Mononucleosis C. Pneumonia D. Gastritis

D. Gastritis

Gastritis, stomach inflammation, can not be transmitted from one person to another.

By what method are pathogens spread when a person coughs or sneezes?

A. Vector B. Vehicle C. Direct contact D. Droplet

D. Droplet

When a person coughs or sneezes, airborne droplets can transmit microorganisms.

Which of the following is the most effective method for breaking the chain of infection?

A. Changing linen after every patient

B. Frequent handwashing

C. Disinfecting the x-ray table daily

D. Sending sick employees home

B. Frequent handwashing

The chain of infection involves passing the pathogen on from one person to another. Frequent handwashing is the best method to break that chain.

The Centers of Disease Control (CDC) recommends that all health care providers:

1. wear gloves when touching blood, body fluids or broken skin of all patients.
2. wash hands immediately if they become contaminated with blood or other body fluids.
3. place syringes, needles, and sharp items in puncture-resistant containers for disposal.
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3Gloves must be worn during procedures that involve contact with body fluids, blood, secretions, excretions, mucus membranes, nonintact skin and contaminated items. Wash hands before and after even if gloves were worn. Use sharps containers.

Which of the following parts of a sterile gown are considered sterile?

A. Below the waist in front B. The sleeves C. Below the waist in back D. The back

The sleeves

The sleeves of a sterile gown are considered sterile. Areas below the waist, both front and back, are unsterile.

Which of the following must be followed when pouring solutions into a container on a sterile tray?

1. Hold the solution well above the tray
2. Prevent the solution from splashing
3. Prevent drips from landing on the tray
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

When pouring a solution into a container on a sterile tray, it is important not to get to close to the sterile area, pour slowly so the solution doesn't splash, and prevent drips from landing on the tray.

Which of the following types of information must be on all radiographs?

1. Patient's name
2. Date of exam
3. Right or left markers
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

A radiograph is part of the medicolegal record of the patient, and like all legal documents they must be identifiable. They must contain the patient's name, date of the exam and which anatomical part had been radiographed.

Medical asepsis is the _______ of microorganisms in the immediate environment.

A. complete destruction and removal B. method of encouraging growth C. method of creating new types D. reduction without sterilization

D. reduction without sterilization

Medical asepsis is the reduction of microorganisms in the immediate environment, which in turn decreases the probability of infection.

Staphylococci and bacilli are classified as what type of microorganisms?

A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Molds

B. Bacteria

Staphylococci and bacilli are classified as bacteria.

Which of the following is the first line of defense in preventing the spread of disease?

A. Isolation B. Sterilization C. Medical asepsis D. Sterile technique

C. Medical asepsis

hand and washing, patient prepping, clean-up and disposal of dirty items is the first line of defense.

What is the definition of a fomite?

A. An insect B. A method of sterilization C. A small animal D. An item to which microorganisms cling

D. An item to which microorganisms cling

A fomite is an object or item to which microorganisms cling, serving as an agent of transmission of an infection.

If a patient is known to be infected with a pathogenic organism or communicable disease which of the following is applied?

A. Isolation precautions B. Reverse isolation C. Personal precautions D. Transmission-based precautions

D. Transmission-based precautions

Transmission-based precautions have replaced the old category-specific isolation precautions. There is now airborne precautions, droplet precautions and contact precautions. These are combined with standard precautions to serve as double protection. They are also used when an immunosuppressed patient is at risk of becoming infected.

How should used needles be disposed of?

A. Placed, uncapped, in a sharps container B. Placed, recapped, in a sharps container C. Placed, recapped, in a red trash bag D. Placed, uncapped, in a red trash bag

A. Placed, uncapped, in a sharps container

Used needles must never be recapped and must be placed in a puncture-resistant, sharps container.

While in a sterile gown, the sterile field is considered to end where?

A. At the level of your shoulders B. At the hem of the gown C. At the level of your hands D. At the waist of the gown

D. At the waist of the gown

When wearing a sterile gown, everything below the waist is considered unsterile.

Which of the following would be appropriate when a sterile gown must be worn during fluoroscopy?

A. Lead apron worn backward B. Lead apron cannot be worn C. Lead apron worn under the gown D. Lead apron worn over the gown

C. Lead apron worn under the gown

When wearing a sterile gown during fluoroscopy, the protective lead apron must be worn under the sterile gown.

While in a sterile gown, the sterile field is considered to end where?

A. At the level of your shoulders

B. At the hem of the gown

C. At the level of your hands

D. At the waist of the gown

When wearing a sterile gown, everything below the waist is considered unsterile.

D. At the waist of the gown

When wearing a sterile gown, everything below the waist is considered unsterile.

Which of the following is an example of a fomite?

A. An insect B. A method of sterilization C. A small animal D. A radiographic cassette

D. A radiographic cassette

A fomite is an inanimate object that is able to harbor microorganisms and serve as a means for transmitting infections.

The complete removal of all microorganisms from an object is called what?

A. Antiseptic B. Medical asepsis C. Sterile technique D. Sterilization

D. Sterilization

Sterilization is the complete removal of all microorganisms or life forms.

Which of the following is necessary before entering the operating room with a mobile radiographic unit?

1. The mobile unit must be wiped with a disinfectant
2. The technologist must be masked, gowned and gloved
3. The mobile unit must be wiped free of dust
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 2 & 3 only

the mobile unit should be wiped down with disinfectant before being brought into the operating room.

How should the scrub be performed when preparing a patient's skin for a special procedure?

A. From the center out B. From the outside in C. Right to left D. Top to bottom

A. From the center out

When preparing a patient's skin for a special procedure the scrub should be done from the center out, making sure that dirt or pathogens are not carried toward the site.

Which of the following is NOT a method of sterilization?

A. Chemicals B. Dry heat C. Steam under pressure D. Handwashing

D. Handwashing

Handwashing is not a form of sterilization but it is a major part of medical asepsis.

What is the greatest hazard in the operating room?

A. Explosion B. Contamination C. Electrical shock D. Cardiogenic shock

B. Contamination

The greatest hazard in the operating room is contamination of the sterile field.

Sterilization in an autoclave involves which of the following?

A. Chemicals B. Steam under pressure C. Dry heat D. Ionizing radiation

B. Steam under pressure

Sterilization in an autoclave involves the use of moist heat which is produced by steam under pressure.

Which of the following radiographic procedures would require aseptic (sterile) techniques while performing it?

A. Upper GI B. Barium enema C. Cystogram D. Soft tissue neck

. Cystogram

Asepsis means freedom from disease. Because a urinary catheter can interrupt the body's defense mechanism, aseptic (sterile) techniques must be used to prevent contamination of the bladder.

When a disease is spread by an insect depositing the pathogens on or in a human, it is transmitted by what method?

A. Vector B. Vehicle C. Direct contact D. Droplet

A. Vector

When a disease is spread by way of an insect, the method of transmission is by vector, when a carrier transfers a pathogen from one host to another.

When painting a patient's skin for a special procedure, how many passes should be made with the same sponge?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Only one pass should be made with the same sponge when scrubbing a patient's skin. Using the same sponge more than once would recontaminate the area.

Which of the following organs is sterile?

A. Stomach B. Urinary bladder C. Large intestine D. Pharynx

The urinary bladder is sterile and requires sterile technique when exams are done of this area.

The CDC has revised the isolation precautions to clarify confusing terms such as universal precautions and body substance isolation. What is the correct terminology?

A. Personnel precautions B. Protective isolation C. Standard precautions D. Isolation techniques

. Standard precautions

Standard precautions should be used when performing procedures that may cause the radiographer to come in contact with body fluids, blood, secretions, excretions, mucus membranes, nonintact skin and contaminated items. All patients must be regarded as potentially infectious.

f you come across a sterile tray that has no expiration date on it, what should you do?

A. Use it immediately B. Use it within a week C. Consider it unsterile D. Consider it sterile

. Consider it unsterile

Any sterile items, such as a tray, that do not appear to have an expiration date should be treated as if they are no longer sterile.

The establishment and growth of microorganisms on or in a host defines which of the following?

A. Pathogen B. Infection C. Disease D. Bacteria

B. Infection

n infection may not cause clinical symptoms, but usually it will produce tissue damage and inflammation.

Chemical substances that are capable of killing all microorganisms are called what?

A. Autoclaves B. Antiseptics C. Disinfectants D. Betadine

C. Disinfectants

Microorganisms can be destroyed by heat, gas and chemicals. The chemicals that are used are called disinfectants.
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PHARMACOLOGY

PHARMACOLOGY

Benadryl is associated with the treatment of which of the following?

A. Vomiting B. Allergies C. Hypotension D. Epilepsy

Benadryl (Diphenhydramine hydrochloride) is an antihistamine used to treat allergies.

What is the meaning of the prefix "poly"?

A. Half B. Through C. Above D. Many

D. ManyThe prefix "poly" means "many", as used in the term "polycystic" (pertaining to many cysts).

Which of the following may describe a patient's heart attack?

A. Myocardial Infarction B. Hart Attack C. Cardiac Vascular Accident D. Cardio Pulmonary Relapse

A. Myocardial Infarction

A patient who has suffered a heart attack had a myocardial infarction.

What does the suffix "-gram" stand for?

A. Record B. Deficiency C. Removal D. Incision

The suffix "-gram" means "record", as seen in the term "electrocardiogram" (record of the electrical impulses of the heart).

What does the suffix "-algia" mean?

A. Study of B. Cell C. Disease D. Pain

D. PainThe suffix "-algia" means "pain", as used in the term "neuralgia" (pain from the nerves).

What is the normal range of diastolic pressure for adults?

A. 40-80 mm Hg B. 60-90 mm Hg C. 80-120 mm Hg D. 110-140 mm Hg

B. 60-90 mm Hg

The normal range of an adult's diastolic blood pressure is 60-90 mm Hg.

Which of the following drugs is synonymous with Adrenaline?

A. Benadryl B. Nitroglycerin C. Epinephrine D. Heparin

C. Epinephrine

Adrenaline and epinephrine are the same drugs. Epinephrine is the generic name and Adrenaline is the brand name

Your patient indicates he needs nitroglycerin for his angina. How should it be administered?

A. Rectally B. Orally C. Intravenously D. Sublingually

D. Sublingually

Quick-acting Nitroglycerin can be administered as a tablet or as a spray sublingually (under the tongue).

"Rx" is the abbreviation for which of the following?

A. Diagnosis B. Prescription C. Fracture D. Respiration

B. Prescription

"Rx" is the abbreviation for "prescription".

What is another term for bleeding?

A. Abrasion B. Hemorrhage C. Varicosity D. Edema

B. Hemorrhage

Another term for bleeding is "hemorrhage" which literally means blood (hem-) bursting forth (-rrhage).

A patient whose skin has a bluish tinge due to a lack of oxygen in his blood is suffering from what condition?

A. Cyanosis B. Diaphoresis C. Edema D. Pallor

A patient whose skin has a bluish tinge due to a lack of oxygen is suffering from "cyanosis" (abnormal condition of blue).

Oil-based iodinated contrast media is commonly used during a(n):

A. sialogram. B. myelogram. C. urogram. D. operative choleangiogram.

A. sialogram.

Ethiodol is an oil-based contrast media. Water-soluble Isovue can also be used.

What is the average pulse rate of an infant?

A. 30-40 beats per minute B. 50-60 beats per minute C. 70-80 beats per minute D. 70-120 beats per minute

D. 70-120 beats per minute

An infant's average pulse rate, 70-120 beats per minute, is more rapid than an adult's.

What type of drug is penicillin?

A. Antihistamine B. Anticoagulant C. Antibiotic D. Vasoconstrictor

C. Antibiotic

Penicillin is an antibiotic, or anti-infective, drug, used to combat bacteria

A patient who has an unusually large amount of fluid in his body tissue is suffering from which of these?

A. Cyanosis B. Diaphoresis C. Edema D. Pallor

C. Edema

A patient with an abnormally large amount of fluid in his tissues is suffering from "edema"

Which of the following refers to the abbreviation "IM"?

A. A method of administering a drug B. The eye C. A means of locating a patient D. The leg

A. A method of administering a drug

IM" is the abbreviation for "intramuscular", one of the methods for administering drugs.

Which of the following abbreviations means to provide medication "4 times a day"?

A. qid B. prn C. q4hr D. qh

qid" is the term that means "four times a day".

What type of drug is Benadryl?

A. Antihistamine B. Vasodilator C. Anticoagulant D. Anesthetic

A. Antihistamine

Benadryl, used to treat allergic reactions, is an antihistamine.

A typical flow rate for a drip infusion is:

A. 10 - 20 drops/second B. 10 - 20 drops/minute C. 30 - 50 drops/minute D. 50 - 60 drops/minute

B. 10 - 20 drops/minute

It is alright to ask a nurse if you think the flow rate is too fast or too slow or if the IV has stopped.

What is a tumor called that is NOT cancerous?

A. Malignant B. Primary C. Carcinoma D. Benign

D. Benign

A tumor that is not cancerous is "benign".

When performing an intravenous injection, when should the tourniquet be removed?

A. Before the insertion of the needle B. After the insertion of the needle, before injection C. After the insertion of the needle, after injection D. After the needle is removed

B. After the insertion of the needle, before injection

Failure to release the tourniquet promptly when the vein is cannulated may cause bleeding outside the vein because of intravascular pressure.
©

BUN and creatinine levels in a patient's blood provides an indication of what physiologic function?

A. Gastric function B. Renal function C. Liver function D. Pulmonary function

B. Renal function

Elevated levels of BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine are contraindications for the use of iodinated contrast

Which of the following prefixes means "painful"?

A. Pro B. Pan C. Dys D. Contra

dys" is the prefix meaning "painful", as used in the terms "dyspnea" (painful or difficult breathing) and "dysphagia" (painful or difficult swallowing).

Normal BUN levels for a young adult range from:

A. 2 to 6 mg/dl. B. 7 to 18 mg/dl. C. 20 to 32 mg/dl. D. 40 to 63 mg/dl.

B. 7 to 18 mg/dl.

The normal young adult BUN level is between 7 to 18 mg/dl.

In what order should the following be done to discontinue a contrast media administration?

1. Elevate extremity and apply pressure until all bleeding stops
2. Quickly, smoothly and gently remove cannula from the vein
3. Place sterile gauze over puncture site
A. 1, 2 and then 3 B. 2, 1 and then 3 C. 3, 2 and then 1 D. 3, 1 and then 2

. 3, 2 and then 1

Placing a sterile gauze over the puncture site before removing the cannula will prevent blood from getting on the surrounding area.

A patient's temperature taken rectally is usually what?

A. 1 degree higher than orally B. 1 degree lower than orally C. 2 degrees higher than orally D. 2 degrees lower than orally

A. 1 degree higher than orally

A patient's temperature, when taken rectally, will be about 1 degree higher than the oral temperature.

Where would an "ET" tube be located?

A. Stomach B. Esophagus C. Trachea D. Intestines

C. Trachea

An "ET" tube is an endotracheal tube, located within (endo-) the trachea.

Exercise 3.28

Demerol is what type of drug?

A. Respiratory stimulant B. Local anesthetic C. Analgesic D. Antibiotic

C. Analgesic

Demerol, also known as Meperidine, is a narcotic analgesic used to reduce or relieve pain.

_______ is the number of particles in a solution per kilogram of water.

A. Permeability B. Osmolality C. pH D. Osmosis

B. Osmolality

Osmolality is the concentration of particles that are dissolved in a solution.

What is another term for fainting?

A. Palsy B. Dysphagia C. Myasthenia gravis D. Syncope

D. Syncope

Another term for fainting is "syncope".

Which of the following is the suffix that means "surgical repair'?

A. -therapy B. -ostomy C. -plasty D. -genesis

plasty" is the suffix that means "surgical repair". An example is "rhinoplasty", surgical repair of the nose.

What is the most accurate method for taking a temperature?

A. The rectal method B. The oral method C. In the axilla D. On the forehead

The most accurate method for taking a patient's temperature is the rectal method.

What is the name of a vein in the antecubital space that is often used as an injection site for an IVU?

A. Ulnar vein B. Humeral vein C. Radial vein D. Basilic vein

D. Basilic vein

The basilic vein is located on the medial side of this space.

A very high creatinine level is:

A. an indication for an UGI.

B. an indication for an IVU.

C. a contraindication for an UGI.

D. a contraindication for an IVU.

D. a contraindication for an IVU.

A high creatinine level would indicate poor kidney function.

What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult?

A. 8-10 respirations per minute B. 12-20 respirations per minute C. 25-30 respirations per minute D. 35-50 respirations per minute

B. 12-20 respirations per minute

The normal range of an adult's respiratory rate is 12-20 respirations per minute.

Which of the following prefixes means "below"?

A. Inter B. Intra C. Infra D. Pseudo

infra" is the prefix that means "below", as used in the term "inframammary" (below the breast).

Following a myelogram, what is the fluid that is sent to the laboratory called?

A. CHF B. CSF C. CNS D. BUN

During a myelogram the physician often removes some cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and has it sent to the lab for analysis.

What does the root word "phren" mean?

A. To breathe B. Diaphragm C. Lung D. Tonsils

B. Diaphragm

he root word "phren" means "diaphragm", as used in the term "costophrenic" (pertaining to the rib and diaphragm).

The American Heart Association's guidelines for CPR emphasizes at least _______ chest compressions per minute.

A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200

C. 100

The American Heart Association recommends performing two inflations for every thirty chest compressions whether one man or two man CPR. They want to get at least one hundred chest compressions every minute

The abbreviation "BUN" stands for what?

A. Bad ureteral nick B. Bloody urine nephron C. Blood urea nitrogen D. Brain underlying necrosis

C. Blood urea nitrogen

BUN" refers to "Blood Urea Nitrogen", a lab test that indicates kidney function.

The abbreviation "Dx" stands for which of the following?

A. Dissecting B. Prescription C. Diagnosis D. Dictionary

Dx" is the abbreviation used in charting, meaning "diagnosis".

Which of the following is the suffix that means "surgical puncture to remove fluid"?

A. -lysis B. -ectomy C. -centesis D. -cele

-centesis" is the suffix meaning "surgical puncture to remove fluid", as seen in the term "pleurocentesis" (surgical puncture of the pleural cavity to remove fluid)

When selecting a venipuncture site, it is preferable to select the most _______ site in which the desired size needle can be accommodated.

A. medial B. lateral C. proximal D. distal

D. distal

Starting at the most distal site leaves more proximate sites available for subsequent venipunctures.

Which of the following drugs is an anticoagulant?

A. Demerol B. Heparin C. Benadryl D. Penicillin

Heparin (Heparin Sodium) is an anticoagulant, acting rapidly to prolong blood-clotting time.

A water-soluble iodinated contrast media whose osmolality is high:

A. has more particles in solution and results in increased adverse reactions. B. has more particles in solution and results in decreased adverse reactions. C. has fewer particles in solution and results in increased adverse reactions. D. has fewer particles in solution and results in decreased adverse reactions.

A. has more particles in solution and results in increased adverse reactions.

Non-ionic contrast media has lower osmolality and less side effects than ionic contrast media.

Which of the following refers to a test that records the brain waves?

A. EEG B. EKG C. ECG D. BWG

A test that involves recording the brain waves is an electroencephalogram, or EEG.

An "NG" tube passes from where to where?

A. Mouth to stomach B. Nose to greater opening C. Mouth to colon D. Nose to stomach

D. Nose to stomachAn

"NG" tube is a nasogastric tube, passing from the nose (naso-) to the stomach (gastr-).

The abbreviation "Hx" stands for which of the following?

A. Prognosis B. History C. High blood pressure D. Heart attack

B. History

Which of the following patient factors is NOT a consideration for the administration of contrast media?

A. Age B. Presence of renal disease C. Gender D. Presence of hypertension

C. Gender

Over 60, low eGFR value, or high blood pressure are patient factors that should raise concern before administering contrast media.

What is it called when a surgeon makes a new connection between segments of an organ or a tube?

A. Deglutition B. Emulsification C. Anastomosis D. Regurgitation

When a surgeon makes a new connection between segments of an organ or a tube he has created an "anastomosis".

Which of the following abbreviations means to provide medication "whenever necessary"?

A. q.h. B. pid C. qid D. prn

D. prn

The term "prn" means "whenever necessary" or "as needed".

Which of the following conditions can be treated with the drug Aminophylline?

A. Heart failure B. Epilepsy C. Cancer D. Asthma

D. Asthma

Aminophylline, used in management of acute and chronic asthma, releases bronchial smooth muscle.

What is the normal range for systolic pressure in an adult?

A. 40-80 mm Hg B. 60-70 mm Hg C. 80-120 mm Hg D. 95-140 mm Hg

D. 95-140 mm Hg

Systolic blood pressure averages 95-140 mm Hg for an adult.

Which of the following methods of administering a drug would NOT be considered parenteral?

A. Oral B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Subcutaneous

A. Oral

Oral administration of a drug is not parenteral. Parenteral indicates any means other than the digestive tract.

Which of the following is NOT a reliable method for taking a person's temperature?

A. Orally B. Rectally C. On the forehead D. In the axilla

C. On the forehead

Using the forehead is the least reliable method for determining a patient's temperature. The second least reliable method is the axilla.

Epinephrine is what type of drug?

A. Antibiotic B. Bronchodilator C. Anesthetic D. Antiarrhythmic

B. Bronchodilator

pinephrine (Adrenalin) is a bronchodilator and vasoconstrictor, used to stimulate the respiratory system.

Which of the following is the normal range for oral temperatures?

A. 97-98 degrees B. 98-99 degrees C. 96-100 degrees D. 99-100 degrees

B. 98-99 degrees

B. 98-99 degrees

Digoxin is associated with the treatment of which of the following?

A. Cancer B. Barbiturate poisoning C. Heart failure D. Asthma

C. Heart failure

Digoxin, delivered orally or parenterally, is used in treatment of congestive heart failure and some cardiac arrhythmias.

In order to see a very quick effect of a drug, how should it be administered?

A. Intramuscularly B. Intravenously C. Orally D. Subcutaneously

B. Intravenously

An intravenous (IV) injection will result in the almost immediate effect of a drug.

Medication that is administered sublingually is put:

A. under the tongue. B. under the skin. C. in the vein. D. on the skin.

. under the tongue.

What is a track from a deep structure (e.g. bone) to the skin called?

A. Fistula B. Stenosis C. Lesion D. Sinus

D. Sinus

A track from a deep structure to the skin is known as a "sinus".

Nitroglycerin is used medically as which of the following?

A. A vasoconstrictor B. An anesthetic C. An analgesic D. A vasodilator

. A vasodilator

Nitroglycerin is a rapid-acting vasodilator.

In most cases, if the patient's blood pressure is high, then their pulse rate will be what?

A. Rapid B. Slow C. Normal D. Zero

B. Slow

Usually, when the blood pressure is high, the pulse rate will be slower than average.

A patient's blood pressure is 120/78. What does the figure 120 represent?

A. Systolic pressure B. High blood pressure C. Diastolic pressure D. Pressure of ventricular relaxation

A. Systolic pressure

Blood pressure is read systolic over diastolic. 120 is the systolic pressure, when the heart contracts.

Which of the following may help make veins more prominent on patients whose veins are difficult to locate?

1. Pat or rub the area
2. Apply hot packs
3. Allow arm to hang
A. 1 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

Allowing the arm to hang down and patting the area of the vein are routine. Hot packs may be necessary for hard-to-find veins.

When a shot is given into the upper arm or buttocks, how is it being administered?

A. IM B. IV C. Subcutaneous D. Intraspinal

A. IM

A shot administered to the upper arm or buttocks is injected into muscle and is called IM (intramuscular).

What is a sphygmomanometer used for?

A. Delivering oxygen B. Administering medication C. Restraining a patient D. Taking blood pressure

D. Taking blood pressure

A sphygmomanometer is the instrument used to measure blood pressure.

An abnormal connection between two surfaces is known as what?

A. Diverticulum B. Polyp C. Fistula D. Stricture

. Fistula

An abnormal connection between two surfaces is a "fistula". A T-E fistula is an abnormal connection between the trachea and the esophagus.

What is the average pulse rate for an adult?

A. 30-40 beats per minute B. 50-70 beats per minute C. 60-100 beats per minute D. 90-110 beats per minute

C. 60-100 beats per minute

An adult's normal pulse rate will fall between 60 and 100 beats per minute when the patient is in a resting state.

Which of the following root words means "spinal cord"?

A. Pont B. Gli C. Myel D. Plex

C. Myel

myel" is the word root for "spinal cord", as seen in the term "myelogram" (record of the spinal cord).

What does the word root "mono" mean?

A. Nucleus B. Color C. One D. Iron

mono" is the word root for "one", as used in the term "monocular" (pertaining to one eye).

The complete reversal of all abdominal organs (e.g. the stomach is on the right) is known as what?

A. Hirschsprung's disease B. Malrotation C. Duplication of the gut D. Situs inversus

D. Situs inversus"

Situs inversus" is the complete reversal (left to right) of all abdominal organs.

What is a body tissue called that dies due to lack of blood supply?

A. Infarct B. Thrombus C. Embolism D. Hemorrhage

An infarct is a body tissue that dies due to a lack of oxygenation

Which of the following root words means "nerve"?

A. Myel B. Cerebel C. Dur D. Neur

D. Neur

The word root for "nerve" is "neur". An example is "neuritis" (inflammation of a nerve).

Which of the following refers to the gauge of a needle?

A. Length of needle, hub to tip B. Diameter size of needle C. Size of opening D. Color of the winged - tip

he outer diameter determines the gauge. The inner diameter depends on the gauge and wall thickness.

Which type of stroke occurs when a weakened blood vessel ruptures?

A. Ischemic B. TIA C. Hemorrhagic D. MI

C. Hemorrhagic

Cerebrovascular accident is the medical term for a stroke.

In practicing standard precautions, when you may be exposed to a patient's blood you should:

A. assume that he patient does not have a communicable disease. B. avoid that patient. C. act as if the patient may have a bloodborne disease. D. ask the patient if he/she is HIV positive.

C. act as if the patient may have a bloodborne disease.

How does a negative contrast agent appear on a radiograph?

A. Less dense than surrounding tissue B. More dense than surrounding tissue C. The same density as surrounding tissue D. More blurred than surrounding tissue

Less dense than surrounding tissue

Negative contrast agents are radiolucent, such as air or carbon dioxide.

What type of drug is Dilantin?

A. Anticoagulant B. Antiepileptic C. Antihistamine D. Antiheart failure medication

Dilantin (Phenytoin) is an antiepileptic drug, used to control partial or generalized seizures.

Which of the following reactions to contrast media does NOT usually require treatment?

A. Laryngeal edema B. Nausea and vomiting C. Dyspnea D. Bronchospasm

B. Nausea and vomiting

Which of the following blood pressures would indicate hypertension?

A. 140/70 B. 140/90 C. 130/80 D. 120/99

D. 120/99An adult is considered to have hypertension if his systolic blood pressure or diastolic blood pressure are consistently higher than 140 mm Hg systolic or 90 mm Hg diastolic.