front 1 An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the | back 1 hip |
front 2 The kidneys are located behind the | back 2 peritoneum, |
front 3 During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the | back 3 epiglottis |
front 4 The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is | back 4 keratin |
front 5 Where is chyme produced? | back 5 stomach |
front 6 Digestion that breaks food into tiny pieces is | back 6 mechanical |
front 7 The hormone responsible for ovulation is | back 7 LH |
front 8 A patient diagnosed with farsightedness has | back 8 hyperopia |
front 9 The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid is called | back 9 conjunctiva |
front 10 Urine is formed in the | back 10 nephron |
front 11 Which of the following constitutes 2%-4% of the WBCs? | back 11 Eosinophils |
front 12 The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the | back 12 conjunctiva |
front 13 A doughnut-shaped gland that encircles the urethra is the | back 13 prostate gland |
front 14 The urinary bladder is located in the | back 14 pelvic cavity |
front 15 When a muscle contracts, it becomes | back 15 shorter & thicker |
front 16 Where do you find the pulse from the patient’s dorsalis pedis artery? | back 16 top of foot |
front 17 The outer layer of the skin is the | back 17 epidermis |
front 18 In what quadrant is the liver located? | back 18 upper right |
front 19 What organ is located in the lymphatic system? | back 19 spleen |
front 20 A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is | back 20 a comminuted fracture |
front 21 Egg cells are produced where? | back 21 ovarian follicles |
front 22 The major function of the circulatory system is | back 22 transportation |
front 23 The largest bone of the body is the | back 23 femur |
front 24 Where do peristaltic waves occur? | back 24 esophagus |
front 25 The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the | back 25 renal pelvis |
front 26 The function of insulin is to | back 26 assist glucose into the cells |
front 27 The internal folds of the stomach are known as | back 27 rugae |
front 28 The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery? | back 28 aorta |
front 29 The site of fertilization is usually the | back 29 fallopian tube |
front 30 Muscles are attached to bones by | back 30 tendons |
front 31 The combining form "hist/o" means | back 31 tissue |
front 32 Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging? | back 32 presbyopia |
front 33 The medical term for inflammation of the liver is | back 33 hepatits |
front 34 what is the first portion of the small intestine | back 34 duodenum |
front 35 The prefix "ad" means | back 35 to add to |
front 36 Which term is best described as “destruction by burning”? | back 36 electro cauterization |
front 37 The combining form that means "red" is | back 37 erythro |
front 38 An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is | back 38 ascites |
front 39 In a patient’s progress note you see that the physician has used the term “necrosis” regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to | back 39 dead tissue |
front 40 The suffix meaning "inflammation" is | back 40 itis |
front 41 The term "myotomy" means incision into | back 41 a muscle |
front 42 Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as: | back 42 sialadenitis |
front 43 Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils? | back 43 tonsillitis |
front 44 The surgical incision into the abdomen is | back 44 laparotomy |
front 45 The medical term for indigestion is | back 45 dyspepsia |
front 46 “Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges”, defines the term | back 46 aneurysm |
front 47 A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is | back 47 bolus |
front 48 Which of the following means pertaining to after meals? | back 48 postprandial |
front 49 "Ostomy" is a | back 49 suffix. |
front 50 Low blood pressure is | back 50 hypotension |
front 51 The medical term for a toothache is | back 51 dentalgia |
front 52 Choose the abbreviation that means four times a day. | back 52 QID |
front 53 The abbreviation "QID" means | back 53 four times a day |
front 54 The inflammation of the pancreas is | back 54 pancreatitis |
front 55 What term is best associated with cancer that has spread to other organs of the body? | back 55 Metastasis |
front 56 Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population? | back 56 gerontologist |
front 57 The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities? | back 57 suspected child abuse |
front 58 The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from | back 58 civil and criminal liability |
front 59 The Controlled Substances Act is a United States law that regulates controlled drugs. The law is administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration. All of the following are responsibilities of medical assistants in the medical setting when dealing with controlled substances,EXCEPT | back 59 prescribing controlled drugs |
front 60 In the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a prescription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physician’s supply the performance of this totally wrongful and unlawful act is known as | back 60 malfeasance |
front 61 Translated as “the thing speaks for itself”, which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff? | back 61 Res ipsa loquitur |
front 62 A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient’s legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patient’s condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decide whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent? | back 62 Informed consent |
front 63 The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of | back 63 electronic exchange of patient information |
front 64 Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to | back 64 define what is included in the practice of medicine |
front 65 Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed? | back 65 Informed |
front 66 The physician informs the medical assistant that he or she will no longer treat a patient who refuses to follow his or her medical advice and treatment plan. The procedure that the medical assistant should follow is to | back 66 send a letter of formal withdrawal to the patient by certified mail, return receipt requested |
front 67 Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure? | back 67 Ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file |
front 68 Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial? | back 68 Subpoena duces tecum |
front 69 The statute that defines what is included in the practice of medicine, establishes the requirements for licensure, and establishes the grounds for suspension or revocation of a license is called the | back 69 Medical Practice Act |
front 70 An example of a medical assistant illegally practicing medicine is | back 70 giving advice on a patient condition. |
front 71 Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment | back 71 Respondeat superior |
front 72 Substitution of another surgeon without the patient’s consent when the patient has already received anesthesia and has no idea that a substitution has been made is called | back 72 ghost surgery |
front 73 Mrs. Jones is diagnosed with a terminal illness. She has given permission for her husband, Mr. Jones, to have access to her medical information. Dr. Smith informs Mr. Jones that his wife is terminally ill. Mr. Jones does not want Dr. Smith to tell her patient that she is terminally ill. The physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis? | back 73 Veracity |
front 74 A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of | back 74 invasion of privacy |
front 75 Which statement best describes the practice known as “fee splitting”? | back 75 It is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients. |
front 76 If a caring family member asks about a patient’s treatment, the medical assistant should | back 76 provide only information that has been authorized by the patient |
front 77 The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called | back 77 restating |
front 78 This type of listening is highly recommended for health care providers and patients in communicating needs. It involves participation in a conversation with another by means of repeating words and phrases or giving approving or disapproving nods. | back 78 Active listening |
front 79 Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the “Hierarchy of Needs”. Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we can move on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Needs” starting from the bottom to the top? | back 79 Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization |
front 80 Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of | back 80 authority. |
front 81 When educating your patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis? | back 81 avoid compression stockings |
front 82 With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is incorrect? | back 82 Iron– nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks |
front 83 Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT | back 83 Eating a low-calorie, low- protein diet to promote healing |
front 84 Instructing patients in the collection of a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education? | back 84 On the second motion, cleanse directly across the meatus, back-to-front, using another antiseptic wipe |
front 85 Patient education for preventing Lyme disease includes all of the following except | back 85 Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers |
front 86 Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient? | back 86 Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL |
front 87 A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called | back 87 coordination of benefits |
front 88 The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called | back 88 a pre-existing conditions waiver |
front 89 Medicare Part B covers | back 89 prescription medical equipment |
front 90 Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated | back 90 80% of approved amount |
front 91 The specific amount specified by an insurance plan that the patient must pay toward the charges for professional services rendered is the | back 91 copayment. |
front 92 Medicare Part B pays physicians on a fee scale consisting of three parts: 1. Physician’s work. 2. Charge-based professional liability expenses. 3. Charge-based overhead. This fee scale is known as | back 92 Resource-based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS |
front 93 Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule? | back 93 Capitated |
front 94 A military medical insurance plan that is administered by the government is | back 94 TRICARE |
front 95 This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities. | back 95 CHAMPVA |
front 96 In 2006, drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co-payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is | back 96 Medicare Part D |
front 97 A range of usual fees in the same community is the | back 97 prevailing fee. |
front 98 A written authorization by the patient giving the insurance company the right to pay the physician directly for billed services is known as the | back 98 assignment of Benefits |
front 99 A payment method used by many managed care organizations in which a fixed amount of money is reimbursed to the provider for patients enrolled during a specific period of time, no matter what services are received or how many visits are made | back 99 Capitation |
front 100 The routine waiving of co-payments | back 100 is against federal guidelines |
front 101 An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies. | back 101 Fiscal intermediary |
front 102 Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error? | back 102 Using "rule out" diagnosis |
front 103 A letter for statement from the insurance carrier describing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patient’s co-insurance, and the allowed amounts. | back 103 . Explanation of benefits (EOB) |
front 104 A person who holds a health benefit plan is a | back 104 . subscriber |
front 105 Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should | back 105 refer all inquiries to the collection agency |
front 106 The petty cash fund may be used | back 106 for small incidental items |
front 107 Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column? | back 107 Insurance write-offs |
front 108 If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a | back 108 net profit of $2,000 |
front 109 The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the | back 109 payee. |
front 110 For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement? | back 110 . Restrictive |
front 111 Which one of the following represents the total of all patient outstanding balances owed to the practice? | back 111 Accounts receivable |
front 112 A compilation or average of physician fees over a given period is know as | back 112 fee profile. |
front 113 The process of proving that a bank statement and checkbook balance and are in agreement is known as | back 113 reconciliation |
front 114 The words “for deposit only” specify what type of endorsement? | back 114 Restrictive |
front 115 The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually | back 115 a percentage of each amount collected |
front 116 Regulation Z of the Truth in Lending Act is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission and is a part of the Consumer Credit Protection Act. When a physician agrees and accepts payment in installments, the physician must provide a disclosure statement about finance charges even if no finance charges are involved. What is the minimum number of installments in this Regulation? | back 116 More than four installments |
front 117 Expenses that will most likely be included in the capital budget for a medical facility are | back 117 medical equipment |
front 118 The person who signs his or her name on the back of a check for the purpose of transferring title to another person is the | back 118 endorser |
front 119 Consider the legal statement in which a person authorizes another person to act as his or her agent. The authority may be limited to the handling of specific procedures. The person to which authorization is granted is known as the | back 119 . power of attorney for healthcare |
front 120 The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to | back 120 leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule. |
front 121 When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the | back 121 packing slip |
front 122 It is recommneded that a multipurpose ABC fire extinguisher be readily available and prominently mounted in a visible, convenient place in the medical office. All employees must be trained in the use of the fire extinguisher. The proper way to operate a fire extinguisher is to | back 122 pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle |
front 123 Which of the following is the correct way to write the first line of an inside address in a letter to Susan Martin, a pediatrician? | back 123 Susan Martin, MD |
front 124 An approach of sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients begins from the initial contact with the medical receptionist to the conclusion of the patient’s treatment. This approach is known as | back 124 empathy. |
front 125 A method of prioritizing patients so that the most urgent receive care first is called | back 125 triage |
front 126 What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record? | back 126 Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds |
front 127 Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area? | back 127 Invite the patient into a room out of the reception area |
front 128 When a patient cancels his or her appointment or merely does not show up, the correct course of action is to | back 128 call the patient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database |
front 129 Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter? | back 129 July 27, 2011 |
front 130 When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called | back 130 an itinerary |
front 131 The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physician’s schedule in order to | back 131 . block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients |
front 132 Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used especially to identify markets | back 132 Demographic |
front 133 When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should | back 133 document the failed appointment in the patient's chart |
front 134 Which of the following type of magazines or journals should not be in the reception area | back 134 Physician's professional journals |
front 135 Medical records in this medical office are filed alphabetically. Arrange the following names in alphabetical order to prepare them for filing. Select the sequence of the numbers correctly that alphabetizes the names
| back 135 (1), (4), (2), (3 |
front 136 Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)? | back 136 The physician or medical facility which initiated and developed the record |
front 137 To prevent back pain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended? | back 137 . Keep feet together |
front 138 What are the two most important factors in performing an effective hand wash? | back 138 Friction and running warm water |
front 139 What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines | back 139 OSHA |
front 140 While Susan is preparing a blood specimen for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill? | back 140 Don personal protective equipment such as gloves, use a cleanup kit, sprinkle congealing powder over the spill, scoop up the spill, place contents in bag, wipe area with germicide, place all contaminated materials in biohazard container. |
front 141 Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT | back 141 . asepsis |
front 142 According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with | back 142 . blood. |
front 143 When performing skin preparation before a surgical procedure, the antiseptic solution or soap should be applied starting at the incision site and using a motion that is | back 143 circular starting from the incision area to the outside edges of the area. |
front 144 Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of | back 144 chemicals. |
front 145 The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to | back 145 allow the items to dry |
front 146 Sterilization is the | back 146 destruction of all microbial life |
front 147 Which one of the following processes is required for surgical instruments and equipment that will come into contact with internal body tissues or cavities that are considered sterile? | back 147 . Sterilization |
front 148 The instrument used to view the urinary bladder is | back 148 cystscope. |
front 149 A stainless steel instrument with a handle at one end and two prongs at the other end used to test hearing is a | back 149 tuning fork |
front 150 What instruments have sharp edges and are used to incise skin and tissue? | back 150 Cutting and dissecting instruments |
front 151 What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath? | back 151 . Retractors |
front 152 The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the | back 152 ear |
front 153 Instruments used to take blood pressure are the | back 153 sphygmomanometer and stethoscope. |
front 154 What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate? | back 154 EKG |
front 155 A hemostat is used to | back 155 control bleeding. |
front 156 Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis | back 156 Hemostat clamp |
front 157 To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for | back 157 60 seconds. |
front 158 A marked drop in blood pressure is found with | back 158 . shock |
front 159 Normal bacteria that are found in the intestinal tract and are the most common cause of lower-tract urinary infections (due to improper hygiene after bowel movements), are | back 159 . E. coli |
front 160 The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is | back 160 . radial. |
front 161 Which of the following is not associated with Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus? | back 161 Type II |
front 162 The signs and symptoms of IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) do not include | back 162 weight gain |
front 163 The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of | back 163 . 60-80 beats per minute |
front 164 A sudden attack, such as that observed in epilepsy is known as | back 164 a seizure |
front 165 The knee-chest position is used for examination of the | back 165 rectum. |
front 166 You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in? | back 166 Trendelenburg |
front 167 A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table? | back 167 Fowlers |
front 168 Cheyne Stokes describes a | back 168 type of respiration. |
front 169 What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope? | back 169 Apical |
front 170 What blood pressure would be by a hypertensive patient? | back 170 140/90 |
front 171 Cardinal signs are also known as | back 171 blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations |
front 172 The "Snellen Chart" is used to test | back 172 sight |
front 173 Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the | back 173 . anterior forearm and the upper back. |
front 174 Sarah knows that legally, all vaccine providers must give patients, their parents, or their legal representatives, the appropriate Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) whenever a vaccination is administered. The required information that must be recorded on the patient's medical record includes the | back 174 edition date of the VIS, the date the VIS is provided (i.e., the date of the visit when the vaccine is administered). |
front 175 While administering an intramuscular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? | back 175 . Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over |
front 176 A drug used to relieve pain is an | back 176 . analgesic |
front 177 Sarah is administering an influenza shot to her patient. She knows that when administering an injection into the deltoid muscle, caution must be taken to avoid the | back 177 radial and ulnar nerves |
front 178 For a medication to be maintained at the proper blood level, it must be given | back 178 at the right time. |
front 179 The physician orders 1 Gram of a medication for injection. On hand is 0.5 Grams per mL. How many mL will be administered? | back 179 2.0 mL |
front 180 Which of the following administration routes will result in the most rapid action of a drug? | back 180 Intravenous |
front 181 Electrosurgery is used for | back 181 removal of benign skin lesions
|
front 182 What is a fenestrated sterile drape? | back 182 A drape that is placed over the patient, with the opening over the area where the surgical procedure will be performed. |
front 183 For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT | back 183 acetone |
front 184 Which of the following is a surgery that is used to treat an abscess? | back 184 Incision and drainage |
front 185 Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include | back 185 needle holder and scissors |
front 186 Which one of the following is NOT a physical therapy modality | back 186 immobilization |
front 187 Sensitivity testing in Microbiology is performed to | back 187 check for antibiotic sensitivity to the bacteria found in the specimen |
front 188 Which of these statements is true regarding angioplasty | back 188 . Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue |
front 189 Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause | back 189 dilution of the sample with tissue fluid |
front 190 Which type of bleeding is easiest to control? | back 190 Capillary |
front 191 Which one of the following tests identifies the organism associated with a urinary tract infection? | back 191 Culture and sensitivity |
front 192 The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to | back 192 the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing. |
front 193 Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which one of the following diseases? | back 193 Acne/boils |
front 194 A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of | back 194 HCG. |
front 195 A normal color of urine is | back 195 straw. |
front 196 The "universal donor" has blood type | back 196 O - |
front 197 Which one of the following is a highly specific host defense mechanism? | back 197 . Immune response |
front 198 Which of the following best represent the major areas of urinalysis? | back 198 . physical, chemical, microscopic |
front 199 In electrocardiography, the electrode used as a ground is | back 199 . RL |
front 200 The basic EKG has how many leads? | back 200 12 |
front 201 When preparing a patient for an EKG, leads should be placed | back 201 on the intercostal spaces |
front 202 What typically does not cause an artifact in the tracing of an electrocardiogram? | back 202 . Relaxed patient |
front 203 What should be done if a person exhibits changing levels of consciousness? | back 203 Have the patient lie down |
front 204 What is the first thing you should do if you walk into a room and find a patient collapsed on the floor | back 204 Assess the scene before going any further |
front 205 After putting gloves on, what should be done to assist a bleeding victim? | back 205 Apply direct pressure to the site |
front 206 When using a fire extinguisher, what does the acronym PASS mean? | back 206 Pull, aim, squeeze, and sweep |
front 207 What is the proper treatment for syncope? | back 207 . Place the patient in a supine position with the legs elevated |
front 208 A second degree burn would appear as | back 208 red, edematous, wet, shiny or blistered. |
front 209 Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary, | back 209 once a year. |
front 210 The first step in controlling bleeding is | back 210 direct pressure |
front 211 The outer ear includes the | back 211 ear canal |
front 212 A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia? | back 212 Pernicious |
front 213 Which one of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes? | back 213 Anemia |
front 214 he largest glandular organ in the body is the | back 214 . liver |
front 215 Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at | back 215 puberty |
front 216 The thoracic cavity is lined by the | back 216 . pleural membrane. |
front 217 The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the | back 217 fibrous pericardium |
front 218 Approximately 60% of the plasma proteins are formed by | back 218 albumins. |
front 219 The urinary system consists of | back 219 two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra. |
front 220 Digestion DOES NOT involve which organ? | back 220 Spleen |
front 221 Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation? | back 221 Protection from light |
front 222 Where are the sublingual glands located | back 222 Beneath mucous membrane |
front 223 An abnormal scar formation is | back 223 keloid |
front 224 Baby teeth are called? | back 224 Deciduous |
front 225 A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called | back 225 rectocele |
front 226 Which of the following means a physician who specializes in the study of the anus and the rectum? | back 226 Proctologist |
front 227 Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? | back 227 Vitamin C |
front 228 Encephalopathy is defined as | back 228 any dysfunction of the brain |
front 229 The study of the stomach and the intestine is | back 229 gastroenterology |
front 230 An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is | back 230 ascites |
front 231 The Committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association (AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence | back 231 Defamation |
front 232 The patient puts out his or her arm to allow the medical assistant to draw blood. This type of consent is called | back 232 express |
front 233 In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments? | back 233 Being an emancipated minor |
front 234 Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed? | back 234 Informed |
front 235 Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records? | back 235 Subpoena duces tecum |
front 236 Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial? | back 236 Subpoena duces tecum |
front 237 The provision of medical care to physician's colleagues, their families, or staff free of charge (or at a reduced fee) is called | back 237 professional courtesy. |
front 238 Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’ stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages? | back 238 Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance |
front 239 The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as | back 239 denial |
front 240 Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following except | back 240 feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum |
front 241 A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called | back 241 d. coordination of benefits. |
front 242 Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician | back 242 are responsible for a portion of the fee |
front 243 Types of health insurance and plan benefits: This type of benefit covers catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury. This insurance takes over when basic medical, hospitalization, and surgical benefits end. | back 243 Major medical |
front 244 Medical sole proprietorship, partnerships, groups, and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured person’s home, business, or car, without regards to the insured person’s actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called | back 244 liability insurance |
front 245 Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services | back 245 Managed care plan |
front 246 An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is | back 246 J0540 |
front 247 When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding checks" are those | back 247 that have not cleared the bank |
front 248 Things that are owed or debts are called | back 248 liabilities. |
front 249 This type of check has a detachable form. The detachable portion is used to itemize or specify the purpose for which the check is drawn and shows discounts and various itemizations. The detachable portion is removed before the check is presented for payment | back 249 Voucher check |
front 250 An invoice for treatment of a patient who is now deceased should be mailed to the | back 250 executor of estate |
front 251 Which statement below is true with respect to an emancipated minor | back 251 An emancipated minor is responsible for his or her own medical bill |
front 252 Employers are required by law to withhold certain amounts from employees’ earnings. These amounts must be reported and forwarded to the IRS to be applied toward payment of income tax. The Income Tax Withholding is also known as | back 252 W-4 |
front 253 A medical assistant, made an incorrect entry into her patient’s medical record. She understands that corrections in the medical record are made by | back 253 drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it. |
front 254 Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the following medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest. Select the correct terminal digit order sequence.
| back 254 (4), (3), (2), (1) |
front 255 When patients arrive at the physician’s office, medical records should not be found lying on the reception desk in view of patients signing in or approaching the desk. Avoiding this situation prevents violation of regulations established by the | back 255 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) |
front 256 Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must | back 256 prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container to avoid evaporation, change the after the recommended period of expiration. |
front 257 Sterile field rules include all of the following EXCEPT | back 257 sterile team members do not need to face each other. |
front 258 The destruction of all microorganisms is essential for surgical asepsis. The method often used in the medical office that completely destroys microorganisms is | back 258 sterilization. |
front 259 hen performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned | back 259 below the elbows |
front 260 The most effective method of sterilization is | back 260 autoclaving |
front 261 The destruction of all microorganisms is known as | back 261 sterilization. |
front 262 What is the primary method for sterilizing instruments and equipment? | back 262 Autoclave |
front 263 What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath? | back 263 Retractors |
front 264 The instrument pictured below is | back 264 sphygmomanometer |
front 265 Instruments used to take blood pressure are the | back 265 sphygmomanometer and stethoscope |
front 266 Forceps are used to | back 266 hold tissue |
front 267 Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis? | back 267 Hemostat clamp |
front 268 A hemostat is used to | back 268 control bleeding. |
front 269 When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be | back 269 at the level of the heart. |
front 270 An afebrile patient is | back 270 without fever. |
front 271 An febrile patient is | back 271 has a fever |
front 272 The method used to perform a breast examination is | back 272 palpation. |
front 273 A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table? | back 273 Fowlers |
front 274 The angle for a subcutaneous injection is | back 274 45 degrees |
front 275 Cheyne Stokes describes a | back 275 type of respiration |
front 276 The position pictured below is the | back 276 Sim's. |
front 277 Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the | back 277 anterior forearm and the upper back |
front 278 A syringe marked with U 100 would be used for administering which of the following? | back 278 Insulin |
front 279 Two tablespoons of medication are equal to | back 279 30 mL. (1 tablespoon=15mL) |
front 280 Laura’s patient has just been informed that she is pregnant. Laura explains to her patient that she should not take any medications without the knowledge of her physician. Medications considered relatively safe in pregnancy are classified in Food and Drug Administration (FDA) category | back 280 A |
front 281 Which of sutures does not require removal from the body? | back 281 Catgut |
front 282 Most instruments are classified according to their function, which instrument is classified as a dilating/probing instrument? | back 282 specula |
front 283 When preparing a pamphlet for the gastroenterologist’s office regarding IBS you would want to include information regarding the treatment of | back 283 chronic constipation and diarrhea. |
front 284 This statement is true regarding angioplasty? | back 284 Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue |
front 285 Palpating the venipuncture site | back 285 . contributes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein |
front 286 A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is | back 286 timed |
front 287 The most common blood type is | back 287 O+ |
front 288 The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to | back 288 the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing. |
front 289 The "universal donor" has blood type | back 289 O- |
front 290 A greenish-brown urine may be indicate of | back 290 hepatitis |
front 291 The appropriate first response to a syncope episode is to | back 291 place the patient supine with legs elevated |
front 292 If it is necessary to move an unresponsive, adult victim quickly away from a scene unassisted, you should | back 292 drag the patient by the heels to safety |