front 1 Which of the following imaging modalities is often used to diagnose pulmonary emboli? | back 1 Nuclear Medicine |
front 2 Which imaging modality is often used to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy? | back 2 Ultrasound |
front 3 Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint? | back 3 Subluxation |
front 4 A bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture is termed an | back 4 contusion |
front 5 Which term describes a misalignment of a distal fracture fragment that is angled toward the midline? | back 5 Varus deformity |
front 6 Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact, producing two or more fragments? | back 6 Comminuted |
front 7 Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on one side of the bone? | back 7 Greenstick |
front 8 Which of the following is not a fracture but a subluxation? | back 8 Nursemaids' elbow |
front 9 Which of the following fractures is often called a reverse Colles' with anterior displacement of the distal radius? | back 9 Smith's |
front 10 Which of the following fractures usually involves the spine? | back 10 Compression |
front 11 Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture? | back 11 open reduction |
front 12 Generally, only one joint needs to be included for follow-up studies of a long bone fracture. True or False | back 12 True |
front 13 A fracture in which the bone is broken into three pieces, with the middle fragment fractured at both ends, is termed ______ fracture. | back 13 segmental |
front 14 A fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2), with or without displacement of C2 or C3, is termed ______ fracture. | back 14 hangman's |
front 15 Which fracture is also called a "march fracture"? | back 15 Stress |
front 16 A fragment of bone that is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament is termed a(n) _____ fracture. | back 16 avulsion |
front 17 With high-level fluoroscopy (HLF), the maximum exposure rate cannot exceed 20 R/min. True or False | back 17 True |
front 18 Because of radiation exposure to the head and neck region, the C-arm should not be placed in the posteroanterior (PA) projection tube alignment. True or False | back 18 False |
front 19 _____ is used to create an x-ray beam that activates at timed increments to reduce exposure during C-arm fluoroscopy. | back 19 Pulse mode |
front 20 A self-propelled, battery-driven mobile x-ray unit will generally go up a maximum incline of | back 20 7 degrees |
front 21 What is the minimum distance a technologist should stand away from the x-ray tube during an exposure when using a mobile x-ray unit? | back 21 6 feet |
front 22 Which one of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures? | back 22 Distance |
front 23 Which of the C-arm orientations in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator's head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged (patient is supine). | back 23 Anteroposterior (AP) projection (x-ray tube above anatomy) |
front 24 A radiographer receives 400 mR/hr standing 1 foot from a C-arm fluoroscopy unit. What is the exposure rate if the radiographer moves to a distance of 3 feet? | back 24 25 to 50 mR/hr |
front 25 Where should the operator (or surgeon) stand when using a C-arm fluoroscopy unit in a horizontal central ray (CR) position? | back 25 Intensifier end of the C-arm |
front 26 A 30 degree tilt of the C-arm x-ray tube from the vertical position will increase radiation exposure to the face and neck region of the operator standing next to the C-arm by approximately a factor of | back 26 4 |
front 27 How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest? | back 27 perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum |
front 28 A patient enters the emergency department with a possible pneumothorax of the right lung. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which specific position should be performed to diagnose this condition? | back 28 left lateral decubitus position |
front 29 A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured sternum. The patient is supine and unable to lie prone. Which of the following routines best demonstrates the sternum? | back 29 LPO and horizontal beam lateral (RPO and lateral recumbent???) |
front 30 How much rotation is required for an AP oblique projection of the sternum on a hypersthenic patient? | back 30 15 degrees |
front 31 What type of "holding breath" instructions should be given for an AP projection (patient supine) of the ribs located above the diaphragm? | back 31 Expose upon inspiration |
front 32 Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air on the patient who cannot stand or sit erect? | back 32 Left lateral decubitus |
front 33 A patient comes to the ED with a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following projections of the abdomen best demonstrates it? | back 33 Dorsal Decubitus |
front 34 What is the primary disadvantage of performing a PA thumb over an AP projection? | back 34 Results in an increase in object image receptor distance (OID). |
front 35 Postreduction projection of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site. True or False | back 35 True |
front 36 A patient enters the ED with a fractured forearm. The physician reduces the fracture and places a fiberglass cast on the forearm. The initial analog technique was 55 kv and 5 mAs. Which of the following technical factors is best for the postreduction study? | back 36 65 kv and 5 mAs |
front 37 How should the CR be aligned for a trauma PA projection of the elbow? | back 37 Perpendicular to the interepicondylar plane |
front 38 A patient enters the ED with a possible shoulder dislocation. Because of his multiple injuries, the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which of the following routines best demonstrates the dislocation? | back 38 AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projections |
front 39 A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured scapula. Because of her multiple injuries, the patient is on a backboard. Which of the following technique's is most helpful in providing a lateral view of the scapula if the patient is unable to rotate the affected shoulder adequately? | back 39 Angle the CR lateromedial and parallel to the scapular body |
front 40 What CR angulation should be used for an AP projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient? | back 40 20 degrees cephalad |
front 41 An ankle series would best demonstrate a Pott fracture. True or False | back 41 True |
front 42 A patient's lower leg is in traction in the hospital bed. The orthopedic surgeon orders an AP mortise projection of the ankle. Because of the traction, the lower leg cannot be rotated. The leg is in a straight "foot up" position. What can the radiographer do to achieve this AP mortise projection? | back 42 Perform a CR 15 degree to 20 degree lateromedial anlge AP projection |
front 43 A patient enter the ED on a backboard with multiple injuries, including an injury to the knee region with a possible stellate fracture noted on the examination requisition. Which of the following routines best demonstrates this injury safely? | back 43 AP and horizontal beam lateral projections of the knee and patella without knee flexion |
front 44 Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck without rotation of the lower leg (with patient in supine position)? | back 44 CR 45 degrees mediolaterally |
front 45 How is the CR aligned for an axiolateral, inferosuperior (Danelius-MIller) projection? | back 45 Perpendicular to femoral neck |
front 46 A patient enters the ED with a possible cervical spine fracture. The inital AP and lateral projections were negative for fracture. The ED physician wants a projection to demonstrate the vertebral pedicles. Which of the following projections would demonstrate these structures safely? | back 46 CR 15 cephalic and 45 lateromedial cassette angled 45 degrees under table to match cr angle and reduce magnifacation |
front 47 Focused grids are recommended for mobile chest studies. True or False | back 47 False |
front 48 Ideally, the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a ______ source image receptor distance (SID). | back 48 60 to 72 inch (153-180 cm) |
front 49 The horizontal beam lateral lumbar spine projection requires a CR position that is | back 49 perpendicular to the image receptor |
front 50 Which of the following projections will best demonstrate an air-fluid level within the skull with the patient recumbent? | back 50 Horizontal beam lateral |
front 51 The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull examination requires the CR be | back 51 15 degrees cephalad to OML |
front 52 How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse waters) projection for the facial bones? | back 52 Parallel to the mentomeatal line (MML) |
front 53 A patient enters the ED with a possible greenstick fracture. Which age group does this type of fracture usually affect? | back 53 Pediatric |
front 54 Subluxation is best described as a | back 54 partial dislocation |
front 55 A patient enters the ED with a possible Monteggia fracture. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed? | back 55 Horizontal beam PA and lateral forearm projections |
front 56 A patient enters the ED with a possible blow-out fracture involving the orbits. The patient is restricted to a backboard because of trauma. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed? | back 56 AP 30 and axial horizontal beam lateral skull |
front 57 What should a technologist do if the sterile field is violated during a surgical procedure? | back 57 Notify a member of the surgical team immediately |
front 58 Which one of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment? | back 58 Shower curtain |
front 59 Asepsis is defined as a(n) | back 59 absence of infectious organisms |
front 60 OR tables are considered sterile only at the level of the tabletop. True or False | back 60 True |
front 61 The entire sterile gown, worn by the surgeon, is considered sterile. True or False | back 61 False |
front 62 Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field. True or False | back 62 True |
front 63 Shoe covers are not required in the presurgical or recovery areas. True or False | back 63 False |
front 64 An aerosol cleaner should be used in cleaning the C-arm in surgery before a procedure. True or False | back 64 False |
front 65 Which one of the following methods will best reduce patient dosage during a fluoroscopic procedure in surgery? | back 65 Use intermittent fluoro |
front 66 "Boost" exposures used during C-arm procedures are intended to | back 66 increase brightness of image |
front 67 The primary clinical indication for an operative cholangiogram is | back 67 biliary calculi |
front 68 When performing convential imaging during an operative cholangiogram, the IR is placed in a special metal tray called a | back 68 "pizza pan" |
front 69 Typically, how much contrast media is injected by the surgeon during an operative cholangiogram? | back 69 6 to 8 mL |
front 70 Which of the following modifications must be made if the OR table is tilted while imaging during an operative cholangiogram using analog imaging? | back 70 grid cassette is placed crosswise |
front 71 Which one of the following structures is not typically visualized during an operative cholangiogram? | back 71 stensons duct |
front 72 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of laparoscopic cholecystectomy? | back 72 The procedure is performed without anesthetic in radiology |
front 73 Retrograde urography is classified as a nonfunctioning study of the urinary system? True of False | back 73 True |
front 74 A laparoscope is used during the retrograde urogram. True or False | back 74 False |
front 75 The urologist will withdraw the urethral catheter before imaging during a retrograde pyelogram. True or False | back 75 False |
front 76 The retrograde pyelogram is intended to demonstrate the collecting structures of the kidney only. True of False | back 76 True |
front 77 The abbreviation ORIF refers to | back 77 open reduction internal fixation |
front 78 Which of the following procedures is a nonsurgical procedure? | back 78 Closed reduction |
front 79 Which one of the following devices is classified as an external fixator? | back 79 llizarov device |
front 80 Which device is commonly used during a hip pinning to reduce a fracture of the proximal femur? | back 80 Cannulated screw assembly |
front 81 What type of orthopecic fixator is commonly used to reduce midhumeral fractures? | back 81 Intramedulliary nail |
front 82 Arthroplasty is a formal term describing a(n) | back 82 Total Hip Replacement |
front 83 What is the newer type of prosthetic device being used for total hip replacements? | back 83 Modular bipolar endoprosthesis |
front 84 A surgical procedure to remove a small portion of the bone that is impinging the nerve root is termed | back 84 laminectomy |
front 85 Which of the following devices is an alternative to traditional spinal fusion procedures | back 85 interbody fusion cage |
front 86 Which one of the following procedures used a high-powered steroscopic microsope to provide illumination and magnification of the impinged nerve and surrounding structures? | back 86 microdiskectomy |
front 87 Which procedure may require the use of Luque or Harrington rods? | back 87 Scholiosis corrective procedure |
front 88 Which procedure introduces orthopedic cement directly into the weakened vertebrae? | back 88 Vertebroplasty |
front 89 An orthopedic wire that tightens around a fracture site to reduce shortening of a limb is a ______ wire. | back 89 cerclage |
front 90 Electrohydraulic shock wave used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system is the definition for | back 90 ESWL |
front 91 Soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drape, cover, or protective barrier permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas is generally termed | back 91 strike through |
front 92 In orthopedic terms, CR refers to | back 92 closed reduction |
front 93 An internal pacemaker implantation can be performed under local anesthetic. True of False | back 93 True |
front 94 Baseball fractures= | back 94 Mallet fractures |
front 95 Hutchinson's fractures= | back 95 Chauffeur's fractures |
front 96 Reverse Colles' fracture= | back 96 Smith fracture |
front 97 Simple fracture= | back 97 Closed fracture |
front 98 Blow-out fracture= | back 98 Tripod fracture |
front 99 Greenstick fracture= | back 99 Hickory-stick fracture |
front 100 Stress or fatigue fracture= | back 100 March fracture |