front 1 Absence of microorganisms | back 1 asepsis |
front 2 Device to accomplish steam or gas sterilization | back 2 autoclave |
front 3 Amount of gross organic debris or the number of microorganisms on an object at any given time | back 3 bioburden |
front 4 A method for testing the sterilization capability of a sterilizer; contains microorganisms that are killed when exposed to a sterilization process; only method of guaranteeing the sterility of an item(s) | back 4 biological indicator |
front 5 Specifically designed for use with a prevacuum steam sterilizer to test for air entrapment | back 5 Bowie-Dick test |
front 6 Mechanical process used by ultrasonic cleaners during which air pockets implode to dislodge debris and soil from the crevices and serrations of surgical instruments and equipment | back 6 Cavitation |
front 7 A method of cleaning instruments in which the chosen cleaning solution uses the process of binding ions, such as iron and magnesium, in the solution to prevent their deposit on the surface of surgical instruments | back 7 chelation |
front 8 Internal or external monitor that changes color when exposed to the sterilization process; only indicates that the sterilization process has occurred; it does not guarantee the sterility of the item | back 8 Chemical indicators |
front 9 The growth and collection of microbes into a group that lives in a particular area, such as the colonization of S. aureus in the nares of humans | back 9 colonization |
front 10 Soiled with gross debris or by the presence of microbes | back 10 Contaminated |
front 11 A general term used to describe the various types of flexible or rigid scopes used to view the body’s internal structures | back 11 Endoscope |
front 12 Sterility determined by how a sterile package is handled rather than time elapsed; the package is considered sterile until opened, or until the integrity of the packaging material is compromised | back 12 event-related sterility |
front 13 A process of quickly sterilizing unwrapped items (such as a surgical instrument that has been dropped on the floor and is needed right away) using prevacuum or gravity steam sterilizers | back 13 immediate-use steam sterilization |
front 14 Placing an item in a container so it is completely covered by a liquid, such as immersing a surgical instrument in glutaraldehyde | back 14 immersion |
front 15 Complete, with no breaks or tears | back 15 integrity |
front 16 Level of disinfection in which most microorganisms are killed except spores | back 16 intermediate-level disinfection |
front 17 Calendar days that are sequentially numbered through the year; often used when maintaining sterilization records (i.e., February 1 would be the 32nd day of the Julian calendar) | back 17 Julian date |
front 18 The opening in a tube or vessel | back 18 lumen |
front 19 Microorganism that is capable of causing disease | back 19 pathogen |
front 20 Area of sterility maintained by the surgical team during a procedure | back 20 sterile field |
front 21 The condition of being permeable; capable of allowing the passage of fluids or substances | back 21 permeability |
front 22 (1) Procedure to render an individual incapable of reproduction; (2) process by which all microorganisms, including spores, are destroyed | back 22 sterilization |
front 23 A machine used to remove minute organic particles and soil from the areas of instrumentation hardest to reach by manual or other mechanical methods of cleaning; the washer utilizes the process of cavitation for cleaning instruments | back 23 ultrasonic cleaner |
front 24 Both organisms benefit from and depend on one another to a certain extent | back 24 Mutualism |
front 25 What colonizes within the human intestine, obtains nutrients from the food that humans eat. | back 25 Escherichia coli |
front 26 produces vitamin K, which is essential to the blood-clotting process in humans | back 26 E. coli |
front 27 Two organisms work together to achieve a result neither could obtain alone
| back 27 Synergism |
front 28 One organism benefits but second organism neither benefits nor is harmed | back 28 Commensalism |
front 29 To a certain extent they benefit humans by occupying space and preventing other potentially harmful microbes from colonizing
| back 29 competitive exclusion |
front 30 Two organisms occupy the same area with no effect on each other. | back 30 Neutralism |
front 31 One microorganism inhibits or interferes with the growth of another.
| back 31 Antagonism |
front 32 One organism benefits and the host is harmed. Commensal microbes that become opportunistic by entering through a surgical skin incision. | back 32 Parasitism |
front 33 Endoparasites, such as intestinal worms, cause an infection and deplete the body of nutrition | back 33 Examples of Parasitism |
front 34 What are opportunistic by entering through a surgical skin incision. | back 34 Commensal microbes |
front 35 Infections acquired in a hospital - UTI | back 35 Nosocomial infections |
front 36 What kind of virus causes the common cold | back 36 Airborne viruses |
front 37 According to CDC study on nosocomial infections | back 37 32% of all HAIs are urinary tract infections
|
front 38 CDC study Heath Care Infections counted for | back 38 15% are pneumonia (lung infections)
|
front 39 All living cells are classified into two groups | back 39 prokaryotes and eukaryotes
|
front 40 Which bacteria is less complex organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound like those of the eukaryotes | back 40 prokaryotes |
front 41 Which bacteria cellular structure is complex, and this classification includes protozoa; fungi; green, brown and red algae; and all plant and animal cells. | back 41 eukaryotes |
front 42 What is size, shape, and arrangements of bacteria | back 42 Morphology |
front 43 What is round-shaped bacteria | back 43 Coccoid
|
front 44 What is paired bacteria | back 44 Diplococci |
front 45 What is Streptococci | back 45 chain of bacteria |
front 46 What is Staphylococci | back 46 Cluster of bacteria |
front 47 What is Bacillus | back 47 rod-shaped bacteria
|
front 48 What is Spirilla | back 48 spiral-shaped bacteria |
front 49 Ability of a microbe to move by itself | back 49 Motility |
front 50 What are long thin structure attached to the outside of the cell; uses whipping motion to provide motility to the cell | back 50 Flagella |
front 51 What are fine, short, hair like extensions located on the surface of the cell; their coordinated, rhythmic movement allows the cell to move | back 51 Cilia |
front 52 What are the oxygen requirements of Obligate aerobes | back 52 require level of oxygen found in a typical room |
front 53 What are the oxygen requirements of Obligate anaerobes | back 53 will not grow if there is any amount of oxygen present in the environment |
front 54 Which bacteria retain the crystal violet and therefore are a purple color | back 54 Gram-positive |
front 55 Which bacteria do not retain the crystal violet and are red from the safranin stain | back 55 gram-negative |
front 56 What bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, do not consistently stain red or purple. | back 56 Gram-variable bacteria |
front 57 What is the bacterial species capable of forming spores | back 57 Spore forming (sporulation) |
front 58 Example of Spore forming bacteria | back 58 Clostridium
|
front 59 Spore forming bacteria cause a number of diseases, including | back 59 botulism, anthrax, tetanus and acute food poisoning |
front 60 Most common bacterial pathogen in the o.r | back 60 Staphylococcus
|
front 61 Types of Staphylococcus - S. aureus | back 61 Toxic shock syndrome
|
front 62 What is a sore, red throat | back 62 Streptococcus |
front 63 Streptococcus - S pneumoniae | back 63 Bacterial pneumonia
|
front 64 Streptococcus - S. pyogenes | back 64 Rheumatic fever: If you have had this you will be put on an antibiotic before surgery
|
front 65 What Aerobic Gram-Negative Cocci causes inflammatory disease leading to salpingitis | back 65 Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
front 66 What Aerobic Gram-Negative Cocci causes Otitis media in children | back 66 Moraxella catarrhalis
|
front 67 Which Aerobic, Microaerophile Gram-Negative Bacilli, Spirochetes causes Legionnaires' disease | back 67 Pseudomonas
|
front 68 Which Aerobic, Microaerophile Gram-Negative Bacilli, Spirochetes causes Chronic gastritis, Stomach ulcers, and Peptic ulcers | back 68 Helicobacter pylori
|
front 69 What family of penicillin has been used so much people have become resistant to it | back 69 Vanomycin
|
front 70 Which Facultative Anaerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli can cause Respiratory tract infections, Bacterial pneumonia (elderly), Otitis media, Eye infections,
| back 70 influenza
|
front 71 Which Facultative Anaerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli is associated with Health care–associated UTIs,
| back 71 Klebsiella pneumoniae |
front 72 What Anaerobic Gram-Positive Bacteria can cause Gas gangrene infection | back 72 Clostridium |
front 73 What Mycobacteria causes Tuberculosis | back 73 Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
front 74 What is the Mycobacteria responsible for sexually transmitted disease that men and women | back 74 Chlamydia |
front 75 Surgical procedures performed on known ...... carriers require implementing isolation precautions, in addition to isolation PPE, an National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)–approved respirator must be worn | back 75 Tuberculosis |
front 76 What are nonliving particles that are completely reliant on the host cell for survival | back 76 viruses |
front 77 What contains either DNA or RNA and a protein coat that encases the nucleic acid. | back 77 A virus |
front 78 Transmission: Percutaneous or permucous in blood, serum, and other body fluids
| back 78 Hepatitis B (HBV) |
front 79 Transmission: Blood-borne RNA; transmitted through blood and blood products
| back 79 Hepatitis C |
front 80 Transmission: Blood or other body fluids
| back 80 Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) |
front 81 Transmission: Contact with fluid from lesions
| back 81 Herpes simplex virus (HSV) |
front 82 Transmission: Direct contact with another person
| back 82 Papillomavirus |
front 83 Transmission: Direct contact with body fluids
| back 83 Cytomegalovirus (CMV) |
front 84 Transmission: Exact mode of transmission unknown; thought to be by percutaneous inoculation with brain tissue or cerebral spinal fluid from infected persons; transmission has been associated with use of contaminated instruments; longer sterilization times required.
| back 84 Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) |
front 85 What is built of proteins and do not contain DNA or RNA. They attack the brain, which is why the diseases they cause are called subacute spongiform encephalopathies | back 85 Prions
|
front 86 What are two common forms of prions | back 86 Scrapie (a disease that infects sheep and goats) and bovine spongiform encephalopathy (commonly called mad cow disease). |
front 87 What have two categories : unicellular protozoans and multicellular protozoans. | back 87 Parasites |
front 88 What are popularly known as worms. Those that are most common in the human population are tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms. | back 88 Helminths |
front 89 What are pork tapeworms that can migrate out of the intestinal tract and travel to muscle and brain tissue, and the eyes. They can cause palpable lumps in soft tissues, blurred vision and retinal detachment, and when located in the brain tissue cause seizures, ataxia, headaches, and possibly death. | back 89 Cysticeri - (Taenia solium) |
front 90 What are eukaryotic organisms that are either unicellular yeasts or multicellular molds and mushrooms | back 90 Fungi |
front 91 What reproduce either sexually or asexually by producing spores; a true spore is formed by either asexual cleavage or sexual meiosis. diseases are called mycoses (the plural of mycosis). | back 91 Fungi reproduction |
front 92 What is a vaginal yeast infection and Trench mouth (thrush) | back 92 Candida albicans
|
front 93 What common fungal infection preys on immunocompromised patients prone to serious infections of the brain, meninges, and heart valves Patients intubated or who have indwelling venous catheter or other type long-term indwelling catheter should be monitored for infection | back 93 Candida albicans |
front 94 What is Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), | back 94 Pneumocystis jiroveci is the most common opportunistic infection in persons with HIV |
front 95 What fungus, caused by the common bread mold, if it enters the bloodstream can destroys the cranial bones, the brain tissue will be invaded. | back 95 zygomycosis |
front 96 Since a high percentage of individuals are carriers of ........ the threat is considerable enough to warrant the use of hair covers and masks | back 96 S. aureus |
front 97 What are inanimate objects that may contain infectious microorganisms including walls, floors, cabinets, furniture and equipment. | back 97 Fomites |
front 98 The two primary sources of SSI risk to the patient are the ..........encountered in contaminated procedures and the ........ of the skin. | back 98 endogenous flora
|
front 99 What factor increases risk of SSI for geriatric and pediatric patients have lower immunological defenses. | back 99 Age |
front 100 What factor increases risk of SSI for diminished blood flow, larger wound sizes, and the difficulty of handling adipose tissue make these patients more susceptible to infection. | back 100 Obesity |
front 101 What factor increases risk of SSI for patients in poor health or who have an inadequate nutritional intake generally have a predisposition to infection. | back 101 General health |
front 102 What factor increases risk of SSI for patients at greater risk of infection from their own endogenous flora | back 102 Carriers of S. aureus or MRSA |
front 103 What factor increases risk of SSI for infections at other body sites increase the chance of SSI. Bacteria in the bloodstream enter and infect the surgical site. | back 103 Remote infections |
front 104 What factor increases risk of SSI for infection rates increase parallel to the duration of preoperative stay. Patients are exposed to higher numbers of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria within the hospital. | back 104 Preoperative hospitalization |
front 105 What factor increases risk of SSI for infection rates are higher in patients with compromised immune systems; patients who have been treated with certain medications, including steroids or chemotherapy agents; and patients who have recently undergone radiation therapy. | back 105 Preexisting illness and related treatment |
front 106 Procedure-related risk factors that increase the danger of SSI due to the use of razor blades that may leave nicks and scrapes on the skin | back 106 Preoperative hair removal |
front 107 Procedure-related risk factors that increase the danger of SSI - what is Clean-contaminated (Class II), contaminated (Class III), and dirty (Class IV) cases carry a higher risk of infection as do cases that compromise blood flow to a particular area, such as coronary artery bypass procedures, where one or both internal mammary arteries are used. | back 107 Type of procedure |
front 108 Procedure-related risk factors that increase the danger of SSI due a longer anesthetic and operative times have an accompanying increase in time for bacterial contamination to occur, increased tissue damage, and greater immunosuppression. Surgical team members become more fatigued, which may lead to breaks in sterile technique. | back 108 Duration of procedure |
front 109 What is the growth and collection of microbes into a group that lives in a particular area | back 109 Colonization |
front 110 What is Absence of Microorganisms | back 110 Asepsis |
front 111 What is the substance that destroys/kills bacteria | back 111 Bactericidal |
front 112 What is substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of bacteria | back 112 Bacteriostatic |
front 113 What is the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time | back 113 Bioburden |
front 114 What is the presence of pathogenic materials | back 114 Contamination |
front 115 What is the contamination of a person or object by another | back 115 Cross-contamination |
front 116 What is it called to reduce to an irreducible minimum the presence of pathogenic material | back 116 Decontamination |
front 117 What sterility is determined by how a package is handled rather than time elapsed; a package is considered sterile until opened or the integrity of packaging material is damaged | back 117 Event-related sterility |
front 118 What is an inanimate object that harbors microorganisms | back 118 Fomite |
front 119 What is an agent that destroys fungus | back 119 Fungicide |
front 120 What is microbes that normally reside below the skin surface or within the body | back 120 Resident flora |
front 121 What is an infection, usually accompanied by fever, that results from the presence of pathogenic microorganisms | back 121 Sepsis |
front 122 What is a microbes that reside on the skin surface and are easily removed | back 122 Transient flora |
front 123 What is a process in which most but not all microorganisms located on animate surfaces, such as the skin, are destroyed. | back 123 Antisepsis |
front 124 What classification does the CDC and FDA give surgical instruments, devices that enter the vascular or urinary systems (needles, catheters), implantable items (wires, screws, joint replacements, mesh, sutures), and any monitors or probes that enter deep tissue layers or cavities. These items should be sterilized. | back 124 Critical status |
front 125 What classification does the CDC and FDA give surgical instruments, devices that come into contact with mucous membranes or non-intact skin carry a lesser risk of infection due to the properties of resistance of intact mucosal linings to many commonly encountered bacterial spores. Examples include: laryngoscopes, anesthesia and respiratory equipment, and some endoscopes. High-level disinfection should be used for items in this category | back 125 Semi-critical status |
front 126 What classification does the CDC and FDA give surgical instruments, items that come into contact with a patient’s intact skin and clean environmental equipment items pose the least risk of infection. Examples include blood pressure cuffs, pulse oximeters, OR transport stretchers, and other furniture. These items require either intermediate-level or low-level disinfection. | back 126 Non-critical status |
front 127 The physical removal of blood, body fluids, and/or gross debris (bioburden) from an inanimate object. | back 127 Cleaning |
front 128 Destruction (3 levels) of pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins or vectors by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents. | back 128 Disinfection |
front 129 What kills all microorganisms except spores and prions (CJD). | back 129 High-level disinfection |
front 130 What kills (ineffective against spores) most microorganisms, including bacteria, most viruses and fungi. M. tuberculosis and HBV | back 130 Intermediate-level disinfection |
front 131 What kills some fungi and viruses, and most bacteria, but is NOT effective against spores and M tuberculosis. | back 131 Low-level disinfection |
front 132 What provides destruction of all microorganisms in or about an object with steam (flowing or pressurized), chemical agents (alcohol, phenol, heavy metals, or ethyl-ene oxide gas), high-velocity electron bombardment, or ultraviolet radiation. | back 132 Sterilization |
front 133 What is a high-level disinfectant. Its common commercial name is Cidex. | back 133 Glutaraldehyde
|
front 134 What color should the test strip turn when testing Cidex to ensure its 2%strength | back 134 Yellow |
front 135 What is an effective disinfectant for surfaces, floors, and equipment. It is such an effective and fast-acting solution, and the CDC recommends its use in cleaning blood and body fluid spills. | back 135 Sodium Hypochlorite
|
front 136 What is usually used as a concentrate with detergent additives and is diluted with tap water. It is used to disinfect large areas such as floors and countertops and is used on a general basis as a health care facility cleaning agent. | back 136 Phenol (Carbolic Acid) |
front 137 Who is involved in the “turnover” of the room, which marks the preparation for the next procedure | back 137 The surgical technologist, along with environmental services personnel |
front 138 What should be available in the sterile field for soaking and cleaning if instruments. | back 138 Sterile water |
front 139 What should never be used to soak instruments as the salt in the solution could cause pitting and corrode the metal | back 139 saline |
front 140 After which type of case should the floor be cleaned with a phenolic detergent and all equipment and furniture should be wiped down with 70% alcohol solution. | back 140 Dirty Cases |
front 141 Design of the decontamination area | back 141 Filtered air is exhausted to the outside of the health care facility.
|
front 142 What facilitates the removal of protein materials such as blood. | back 142 Proteolytic enzymatic cleaner |
front 143 What facilitates the removal of fatty material such as adipose tissue and bone marrow | back 143 Lipolytic enzymatic cleaner |
front 144 What is an organic substance that aids in the chemical reaction of breaking down organic debris, used as a chemical soaking solution, need warm water and dilution. | back 144 enzymatic chemical cleaner |
front 145 Cleaning solutions are manufactured specifically for use in ....... cleaners. The solution may contain a surfactant (to enhance wetting ability) and chelating agents. | back 145 Ultrasonic |
front 146 Products usually used for hand cleaning of items and/or for presoaking. Mechanical action is required to assist in removing the soil. Surgical instruments must be thoroughly rinsed after being placed in the detergent | back 146 Manual Detergent |
front 147 Liquid solution that is available in three different pH levels. Neutral-pH product: Least corrosive to surgical instruments but less effective at removing substantial amount of organic soil. | back 147 Washer Decontaminator |
front 148 The process of binding minerals, such as iron and magnesium in the solution to prevent their deposits on the surface, causing spotting | back 148 Chelation |
front 149 What are catalyst that aid in the breakdown of organic soil and blood | back 149 Enzymatic |
front 150 What is the action of dispersing two liquids not capable of being mixed | back 150 Emulsification |
front 151 What is the action by which the solubility of a substance is increased within a solution | back 151 Solubilization |
front 152 What does Impervious to moisture mean | back 152 Waterproof |
front 153 What types of peel pack is used for steam and EtO sterilization | back 153 Paper-plastic combinations |
front 154 What types of peel pack is used for EtO and Sterrad | back 154 Tyvek-plastic combination |
front 155 Heavy instrument sets should be | back 155 no more than 25lbs |
front 156 If what is trapped in the lumen it may prevent steam from contacting the inner surface. To prevent this entrapment of a residual amount of distilled water should be left inside the lumen. The water will boil during sterilization, turning to steam and displacing the air within the lumen. | back 156 Air |
front 157 What indicates the date of sterilization. This date is the number of the calendar day (1-365/366); for example, the .... date for February 27, 2013 is 58 and March 5, 2013 is 64. | back 157 Julian Date |
front 158 What requires a Cycle Time
| back 158 Steam sterilizer |
front 159 What sterilizer uses moister and heat to kill microbes, this process is accelerated when pressure is added | back 159 Steam sterilization |
front 160 What generate their own steam When steam is supplied from an outside source, the walls of the chamber are preheated before the steam is allowed into the chamber. This is accomplished with a metal jacket that is built around the chamber. The space between the jacket and chamber is filled with steam to preheat the chamber walls when the machine is turned on. | back 160 Autoclaves |
front 161 Which sterilizer is slower than prevacuum/dynamic-air-removal sterilizers because gravity is relied on to remove the air. | back 161 Gravity displacement Sterilizer |
front 162 What is referred to as an immediate use sterilization for unwrapped items | back 162 Flash sterilization |
front 163 What are the three methods of monitoring the sterilization process | back 163 Mechanical
|
front 164 Which indicators are used externally and internally to verify that items have been exposed to sterilizing conditions | back 164 Chemical Indicators |
front 165 What is the spore used for ETO indicators | back 165 Bacillus atrophaeus |
front 166 The inside of wrappers containing linens or other sterile items is considered sterile except for | back 166 1 inch perimeter around the outside edge of the wrapper |
front 167 The integrity of the wrapper | back 167 must be checked before opening |
front 168 The surgical gown is considered sterile in front | back 168 2 inches below the neckline to table level; bilaterally; and sterile gloved hands to 2 inches above elbows |
front 169 Sterile surgical team members should either pass whilst | back 169 facing one another or back to back by rotating 30 degrees |
front 170 A non sterile team member must maintain a distance of | back 170 12 inches from any sterile item, area, or field to prevent contamination |
front 171 When draping a Nonsterile table to create a sterile field the Nonsterile individual should | back 171 cuff the hands in the underside folds of the drape or table cover to avoid contaminating the top surface |