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AST Practice Exam #5

front 1

What clip is used for scalp hemostasis in cranial procedures?

back 1

Raney

front 2

The local freezing if diseased tissue to facilitate removal without bleeding is called

back 2

Cryosurgery

front 3

In severe aortic stenosis, what is not an indications of valve replacement

back 3

Palpitations

front 4

In the event a child requires emergency surgery, but the parents cannot be located to sign the surgical consent:

back 4

Consent is signed by two consulting physicians

front 5

Ethylene Oxide (ETO) sterilization destroys microbes by the process of:

back 5

Alkylation

front 6

What is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm?

back 6

Atherosclerosis

front 7

What is used to determine the position of cannulated screws during repair of a femoral neck fracture?

back 7

Guide pins

front 8

The instruments show are used to dilate the:

back 8

Cervix

front 9

What are the instruments below called and used for what procedure

back 9

Hagar dilators / D&C

front 10

Prior to being placed in the Eto sterilizer, items must:

back 10

Be completely dry

front 11

During general anesthesia induction, which sense is the last to be experienced by the patient?

back 11

Hearing

front 12

The purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula is for:

back 12

Hemodialysis

front 13

What nerve is at greater risk during a thyriodectomy?

back 13

Recurrent laryngeal

front 14

Which nerve could be compressed against the humerus in the prone position?

back 14

Radial

front 15

What is the surgical procedure for reducing testosterone in prostate cancer?

back 15

Orchiectomy

front 16

What is the name of the retractor shown below?

back 16

Harrington
Great for retracting abdominal organs

front 17

If the broth in the steam sterilization biological indicator is yellow after incubation, what action to be taken?

back 17

Items must be immediately recalled

front 18

A specimen that is 5 centimeters is equal to:

back 18

2 inches

front 19

Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle of the heart?

back 19

Pulmonary artery

front 20

The instrument below is used to:

back 20

Osteotome - cut bone

front 21

Which area is prepped first when performing the skin prep for a skin grafting procedure?

back 21

Donor site

front 22

Which of the following has legal significance in the mishandling of a bullet?

back 22

Damaging ballistic markings

front 23

Which procedure requires preoperative high-level disinfection of the endoscope?

back 23

Bronchoscopy

front 24

What maintains the position of the uterus?

back 24

Broad ligament

front 25

What device would the surgeon use to preserve facial motor and sensory functions during a parotidectomy?

back 25

Nerve stimulator

front 26

if the surgeon uses a knife blade to incise the oral mucosa, the preferred blade is:

back 26

12

front 27

The gravity steam sterilization process can be rendered ineffective if the:

back 27

Temperature is below 250deg

front 28

A suture used to retract a structure to the side of the operative field is a/an:

back 28

Traction suture

front 29

What must the circulating surgical technologist do when placing the patient in the supine position?

back 29

Confirm angles are not crossed

front 30

What body system aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells?

back 30

Lymphatic

front 31

Which of the following is inserted into the symphonic membrane incision during a myringotomy?

back 31

PE tube

front 32

Which organelle contains digestive juices?

back 32

Lysosome

front 33

During a thyriodectomy, if all parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what complications will occur?

back 33

Tetany

front 34

Which of the following surgical instruments is used to retract the lung?

back 34

Allison

front 35

Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal polyps?

back 35

Krause nasal snare

front 36

What anatomical structure is Mersilene tape sutured around during a cerclage?

back 36

Cervix

front 37

What does the suffix - ectomy mean?

back 37

Excision

front 38

What would the preoperative diagnosis be for an infant undergoing craniotomy?

back 38

Craniosynostosis

front 39

Where is the anterior chamber of the eye located?

back 39

Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the iris

front 40

What would contraindicate preoperatively setting up the cell saver machine?

back 40

patient has cancer

front 41

Which medication is contraindicated for patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia?

back 41

Succinylcholine (triggers malignant hyperthermia)

front 42

What is an incision into the tympanic membrane for the removal of accumulated fluid?

back 42

Myringotomy

front 43

What is not required when a patient is placed in the prone position

back 43

safety belt is placed below the knees

front 44

A tissue specimen being sent to pathology for a frozen section is prepared by placing it into a :

back 44

container without preservative

front 45

The body's first line of defense against infection is:

back 45

intact skin

front 46

Which stapling device would be used to create an anastomosis during a low anterior resection?

back 46

EEA

front 47

Packing material would be placed as a dressing after surgery on the:

back 47

rectum

front 48

What is the lining of the thoracic cavity?

back 48

Pleura

front 49

What is the proper method of removing the knife blade from the handle when breaking down the Mayo stand?

back 49

Use a heavy hemostat or needle holder

front 50

What route of drug administration is parenteral

back 50

Intravenous

front 51

The vascular, fibrous covering of bone is the:

back 51

Periosteum

front 52

What type of dressing would usually be used for a laparotomy procedure?

back 52

pressure

front 53

To prevent deep-vein thrombosis in the bariatric patient, what preoperative drug is given?

back 53

Heparin

front 54

Which space is entered during a thymectomy?

back 54

Mediastinum

front 55

Femoral rasps are used for what reason:

back 55

Prepare the intramedullary space for a prosthesis

front 56

What is part of the immune system?

back 56

Spleen

front 57

What incision is frequently used for pediatric aortic coarctation repair?

back 57

Posterolateral thoracotomy

front 58

Type and cross match for blood is completed:

back 58

If blood loss with replacement is anticipated

front 59

The purpose of the kidney elevator is to:

back 59

Increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest

front 60

When storing information on the hard drive of a computer, what is clicked?

back 60

save

front 61

What is the proper method for handling disposable suction containers when turning over an OR?

back 61

Wipe down outside of the container and place in biohazard bag for disposal

front 62

Which of the following can cause lumbosacral strain in the lithotomy position?

back 62

Buttocks extend past table break

front 63

A midline xiphoid to pubis incision is commonly made for a/an:

back 63

Abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy

front 64

Which item should the surgical technologist confirm is available for a nerve repair?

back 64

Loupes

front 65

How often should biological testing of EtO sterilization be conducted?

back 65

Every load

front 66

Which of the following is a liquid chemical sterilant often used for sterilizing endoscopes with a cycle time of 30 minutes?

back 66

Peracetic acid

front 67

When should the first closing sponge, sharp and instrument count be completed?

back 67

prior to closure of the body cavity

front 68

Which of the following skin preps is contraindicated for use around eyes and ears because of potential for corneal abrasions and ototoxicity?

back 68

Chlorhexidine

front 69

A short-acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for preoperative sedation is:

back 69

Meperidine

front 70

The leg extensor muscle:rectus femurs, vastus laterals, vastgus medial is and the vast us intermedius are collectively called the;

back 70

Quadriceps femoris

front 71

What does the term - scope mean?

back 71

viewing

front 72

How many minutes should a Frazier suction tip be immediate-use sterilized (flash sterilized) in a gravity steam sterilizer?

back 72

10

front 73

What preoperative procedures should be completed for the diabetic patient

back 73

Antiembolic stockings placed on patient

front 74

Induced hypothermia is typically associated with which of the following surgical specialities?

back 74

Cardiothoracic

front 75

What block involved medication being injected into the subarachnoid space?

back 75

spinal

front 76

What conditions might require use of a Silastic urethral catheter?

back 76

latex allergy

front 77

A patient received preoperative instructions to remove nail polish to:

back 77

Prevent pulse oximeter malfunction

front 78

How often should the steam sterilizing machine's strainer be cleaned?

back 78

daily

front 79

What is the smallest microorganism that requires a host cell for replication?

back 79

virus

front 80

Which surgeon might provide the operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transphenoidal approach to the sell turcica?

back 80

Otorhinolaryngologist

front 81

An intraoperative mutagenic and carcinogenic hazard of laser use is:

back 81

Laser plume

front 82

What type of solution is recommended for cleaning the OR floors during room turnover?

back 82

Detergent-disinfection

front 83

What is used to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP?

back 83

Ellik

front 84

A patient is instructed to be NPO for 8 hours prior to surgery to prevent:

back 84

Aspiration

front 85

The essential element of hemoglobin is:

back 85

Iron

front 86

In which procedure would the instrument shown below be used?

back 86

Hysterectomy

front 87

A large, bony process found on the femur is a :

back 87

Trochanter

front 88

What incisions would be performed for repair for a liver laceration?

back 88

Midline

front 89

Just before the surgeon makes the skin incision which of the following must be performed?

back 89

time-out

front 90

The pulse rate of pregnant patients:

back 90

Increases

front 91

Which portion of the stomach is superior to the esophageal sphincter?

back 91

fundus

front 92

A linen pack to be steam sterilized must not weigh more than:

back 92

12lbs

front 93

The closing sponge count should be initiated at the:

back 93

operative field

front 94

During which procedure is it imperative that the surgical tech maintain the sterility of the back table and mayo stand until the patient is transported out of the OR?

back 94

Tonsillectomy

front 95

Which statements concerning peel-packs is correct?

back 95

When labeling with felt-tip marker write on the plastic side

front 96

Which two structures are identified and ligated during a cholecystectomy?

back 96

cystic artery and cystic duct

front 97

Which is the primary responsibility of the first scrub surgical tech during a cardiac arrest in the OR?

back 97

Protect the sterile field

front 98

What does pneumonectomy mean?

back 98

removal of a lung

front 99

How many hours must the steam biological indicator by incubated before reading the results?

back 99

24

front 100

Which of the following is responsible for causing transmission of spongiform encephalopathy?

back 100

Prion

front 101

The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the ;

back 101

Isthmus

front 102

A sustained contraction produced by rapid stimuli is called:

back 102

tetany

front 103

What type of heart rate does tachycardia describe?

back 103

Fast

front 104

What would be the least likely complication of suprapubic prostatectomy?

back 104

Acute phlebitis

front 105

When is the surgical consent typically signed?

back 105

Before preoperative medications are administered

front 106

What is the order for postoperative case management?

back 106

Remove drapes; preserve sterile field until patient leaves OR; remove gown and gloves; don non-sterile gloves to break down back table.

front 107

What type of needle is used when suturing the skin?

back 107

Reverse cutting

front 108

Which ultrasonic devices can be used intraoperatively to assess the patency of arterial blood flow?

back 108

doppler probe

front 109

The instrument shown below is used to:

back 109

Dissect periosteum from bone
Key periosteal elevator

front 110

The area of the brain that controls respiration is the:

back 110

medulla oblongata

front 111

What factor is used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet?

back 111

patients age

front 112

What describes the time from incision to the dressing application?

back 112

Intraoperative

front 113

At the end of a procedure, and after the patient has been transported out of the OR, the surgical tech should remove the:

back 113

gown

front 114

The instrument shown below is used during a/an

back 114

thyroidectomy
Green retractor

front 115

What is considered the operative stage of anesthesia?

back 115

third

front 116

When performing the surgical scrub, the hands and arms are considered:

back 116

surgically clean

front 117

What is an obstetric complication resulting from overstimulation of the clotting processes?

back 117

disseminated intravascular coagulation

front 118

What does the term symbiosis mean?

back 118

Relationship between unlike species of organisms

front 119

What statements is true concerning cleaning OR walls between surgical procedures?

back 119

clean areas of wall splashed with blood or debris

front 120

Which anatomical structure is removed during a total hip arthroplasty?

back 120

femoral head

front 121

What controls the arrow on your monitor?

back 121

Mouse

front 122

Wound dressings should be opened:

back 122

After the last count is completed.

front 123

A stent may be placed to identify the ureter during which of the following procedures?

back 123

right colectomy

front 124

A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation is:

back 124

Anectine

front 125

A general consent form authorizes:

back 125

routine medical treatment

front 126

During which Step of an abdominal hysterectomy would the instrument shown below be used?

back 126

Make last cut to free the uterus
Jorgensen Scissors

front 127

What must be completed preoperatively if a patient underwent a barium study of the day of surgery?

back 127

Enema

front 128

What suture is contraindicated in the presence of infection?

back 128

Silk

front 129

When the surgical technologist is breaking down the back table, instruments with ratchets should be:

back 129

Placed in a basin with enzymatic solution in open position for transport to decontamination

front 130

The cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:

back 130

Calyces

front 131

What is a type of one-layer dressing?

back 131

steri-strips

front 132

Braided nonabsorbable sutures should not be used in infected wounds because suture crevices:

back 132

Can harbor bacteria that travel length of suture

front 133

What postoperative complication can result from excess or prolonged planter flexion?

back 133

Foot drop

front 134

What immediate postoperative complication most often occurs with pediatric patients?

back 134

airway difficulty

front 135

Another name for a corneal transplant procedure is:

back 135

keratoplasty

front 136

Fertilization normally occurs in the:

back 136

Fallopian tube

front 137

What is the name of the instrument show below?

back 137

Kocher

front 138

The inner layer of an artery is the:

back 138

Intima

front 139

Which laser can be used on light and dark tissues?

back 139

Carbon dioxide

front 140

Which implant is used for individuals with sensorineural deafness?

back 140

cochlear implant

front 141

Splenectomy places the patient at an increased risk for:

back 141

Infection

front 142

In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is:

back 142

Increased

front 143

Dark blood in the sterile field could indicate?

back 143

Hypoxia

front 144

Which instrument will the surgeon use to free the entrapped orbital fat during repair of an orbital floor fracture?

back 144

Freer

front 145

A urinary tract infection, following a cystoscopy, is an example of what type of infection?

back 145

healthcare-acquired infection

front 146

What is a type of meniscal tear?

back 146

bucket handle

front 147

Which surgical procedure may require a suprabubic catheter to drain the urinary bladder?

back 147

Prostatectomy

front 148

What microorganisms is least likely to be associated with wound infections?

back 148

Treponema Pallidum (normally associated with syphilis)

front 149

Liquid agents used to reduce microorganisms on the patient's skin.

back 149

antiseptics

front 150

Which closed wound drainage requires being connected to a bulb evacuator?

back 150

Jackson-pratt

front 151

What term refers to items remaining indefinitely until the wrapper is compromised?

back 151

event-related sterility

front 152

Which vein would be harvested during a CABG?

back 152

Saphenous

front 153

When incubated, the ETo biological indicator can be read after:

back 153

24 hours

front 154

The structure that facilities the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetus and mother is the:

back 154

Placenta

front 155

When helping to turn over an OR between patients, the surgical technologists should:

back 155

Use a clean mop head

front 156

Vitrectomy is the removal of the:

back 156

Gel from the eye

front 157

When using ETO sterilization, the recommended aeration time for an aerator set at 140deg F is:

back 157

24 hours

front 158

Where should the biological indicator test be placed on the steam sterilizer cart?

back 158

bottom front

front 159

Which vessel empties into the right atrium?

back 159

Superior vena cava

front 160

Knife blades should be loaded onto the handle with:

back 160

Needle holder

front 161

Which vitamin is essential for the clotting proccess?

back 161

Vitamin K

front 162

From where do most intracanial aneurysms arise?

back 162

Circle of willis

front 163

What equipment would require preoperative draping by the surgical technologist?

back 163

c-arm

front 164

What dietary substance enhances the production of collagen?

back 164

Protein

front 165

The normal range of intraoperative pressure for the insufflator during a laparoscopy is?

back 165

12-15mm Hg

front 166

Where should the ETO biological indicator be placed in the load?

back 166

center

front 167

What is the proper way to remove a patient from the lithotomy position?

back 167

Lower legs together slowing in unison

front 168

What procedure should the first scrub technologist set up for when a female patient is undergoing a repair for a cystocele and rectocele?

back 168

anterior and posterior colporrhaphy

front 169

Which vein drains the small intestine?

back 169

Hepatic portal

front 170

Which specialized retractors are used during a rotator cuff repair?

back 170

Bankart

front 171

The concave notch of the kidney through which the ureter exits is the:

back 171

Hilum

front 172

The large artery found posterior to the knees is the:

back 172

Popliteal

front 173

Proper placement of the Foley catheter is confirmed prior to the balloon inflation by which of the following:

back 173

urine flowing out of the catheter

front 174

Which portion of the small intestine joins to the large intestine?

back 174

ileum

front 175

Which tank would be brought into the OR if a surgical technologist is preparing an oscillating saw?

back 175

compressed nitrogen