Print Options

Card layout:

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
Print these notecards...Print as a list

150 notecards = 38 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Chapter 17 Special Senses

front 1

1) Olfactory glands

  1. A) house the sense of smell.
  2. B) support the olfactory epithelium.
  3. C) react to aromatic molecules.
  4. D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.
  5. E) group as olfactory bulbs

back 1

D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus

front 2

2) Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain?

  1. A) frontal lobe
  2. B) cerebellum
  3. C) parietal lobe
  4. D) cerebrum
  5. E) medulla oblongata

back 2

D) cerebrum

front 3

3) Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to

  1. A) contact a basal cell.
  2. B) bind to receptors in olfactory cilia.
  3. C) open ion channels.
  4. D) respond to applied pressure.
  5. E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs

back 3

B) bind to receptors in olfactory cilia

front 4

4) Which of the following is true of olfactory discrimination?

  1. A) There are 6 primary smells known.
  2. B) The number of olfactory receptors decline as we age.
  3. C) All odorants require the same concentration to activate an olfactory receptor.
  4. D) There are different types of olfactory receptor cells to detect each type of odorant.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

back 4

B) The number of olfactory receptors decline as we age.

front 5

5) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except which one?

  1. A) They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus.
  2. B) Neurons from the olfactory epithelium synapse in the olfactory bulb.
  3. C) Information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system.
  4. D) They reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus.
  5. E) The limbic system-olfactory pathway connection means that there are close ties between experiences and memories with smell

back 5

A) They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus

front 6

6) Some neural tissues retain stem cells and thus the capacity to divide and replace lost neurons. Which of these special senses can replace its damaged neural receptors?

  1. A) olfaction
  2. B) hearing
  3. C) equilibrium
  4. D) proprioception
  5. E) vision

back 6

A) olfaction

front 7

7) A normal, relaxed inhalation carries about ________ of the inhaled air to the olfactory organs.

  1. A) 50 percent
  2. B) 8 percent
  3. C) 2 percent
  4. D) 35 percent
  5. E) 10 percent

back 7

C) 2 percent

front 8

8) How would a molecule that mimics cAMP affect an olfactory receptor?

  1. A) It would increase sodium permeability.
  2. B) It would open chemically-gated sodium channels.
  3. C) It would depolarize the olfactory receptor.
  4. D) It could trigger an afferent action potential.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

back 8

E) All of the answers are correct

front 9

9) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the

  1. A) medulla oblongata.
  2. B) medial geniculate.
  3. C) cerebral cortex.
  4. D) olfactory bulb.
  5. E) olfactory tract.

back 9

D) olfactory bulb

front 10

10) Gustatory receptors are located

  1. A) in the eye.
  2. B) in the ear.
  3. C) on the surface of the tongue.
  4. D) in the nose.
  5. E) on the skin.

back 10

C) on the surface of the tongue

front 11

11) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of

  1. A) light receptors in the eye.
  2. B) mechanoreceptors in the ear.
  3. C) olfactory receptors.
  4. D) lamellated corpuscles.
  5. E) Meissner corpuscles.

back 11

C) olfactory receptors

front 12

12) Which of the following lingual papillae has the largest number of taste buds?

  1. A) pharynx
  2. B) larynx
  3. C) filiform papillae
  4. D) fungiform papillae
  5. E) circumvallate papillae

back 12

E) circumvallate papillae

front 13

13) Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result in

  1. A) inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue.
  2. B) a reduction in ability to identify sour and bitter foods.
  3. C) anosmia, also called nose blindness.
  4. D) perceiving taste sensations where is no real stimulus.
  5. E) identifying all foods as too salty.

back 13

B) a reduction in ability to identify sour and bitter foods

front 14

14) Stimulation of nociceptive receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of

  1. A) intensely sweet.
  2. B) intensely sour.
  3. C) quite salty.
  4. D) peppery hot.
  5. E) bitter.

back 14

D) peppery hot

front 15

15) Taste receptors are distributed in which of the following places?

  1. A) portions of the larynx
  2. B) anterior tip of the tongue
  3. C) portions of the pharynx
  4. D) surface of the tongue
  5. E) All of the answers are correct

back 15

E) All of the answers are correct

front 16

16) An adult has approximately ________ taste buds.

  1. A) 100
  2. B) 5,000
  3. C) 4,000,000
  4. D) 300
  5. E) 30,000

back 16

C) 4,000,000

front 17

17) All of the following are terms describing the epithelial projections found on the tongue except ________ papillae.

  1. A) fungiform
  2. B) circumvallate
  3. C) filiform
  4. D) gustatory
  5. E) lingual

back 17

D) gustatory

front 18

18) Taste buds are monitored by which cranial nerve(s)?

  1. A) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
  2. B) vagus nerve (X)
  3. C) facial nerve (VII)
  4. D) trigeminal nerve (V)
  5. E) facial nerve (VII), vagus nerve (X), and glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

back 18

E) facial nerve (VII), vagus nerve (X), and glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

front 19

19) A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to cranial nerve

  1. A) VII.
  2. B) III.
  3. C) IX.
  4. D) V.
  5. E) XII.

back 19

D) V

front 20

20) Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations?

  1. A) sweet
  2. B) peppery
  3. C) sour
  4. D) salty
  5. E) umami

back 20

B) peppery

front 21

21) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as

  1. A) sweet.
  2. B) umami.
  3. C) salty.
  4. D) peppery.
  5. E) sour.

back 21

B) umami

front 22

22) Which of the following is false concerning lacrimal glands?

  1. A) They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid.
  2. B) They produce most of the volume of tears.
  3. C) They produce lysozyme.
  4. D) They produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions.
  5. E) They are located in recesses in the frontal bones

back 22

A) They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid

front 23

23) All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye except that it

  1. A) consists of the sclera, limbus, and cornea.
  2. B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye.
  3. C) produces aqueous humor.
  4. D) contributes substantial focusing power.
  5. E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert

back 23

C) produces aqueous humor

front 24

24) What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision?

  1. A) aqueous humor
  2. B) ciliary body
  3. C) iris
  4. D) extrinsic eye muscles
  5. E) None; the lens is rigid.

back 24

B) ciliary body

front 25

25) Which of the following is true of the vascular tunic of the eye?

  1. A) provides a route for blood vessels that supply tissues of the eye
  2. B) regulates the amount of light entering the eye
  3. C) secretes and reabsorbs the aqueous humor
  4. D) controls the shape of the lens
  5. E) All of the answers are correct

back 25

E) All of the answers are correct

front 26

26) The palpebrae

  1. A) are controlled by a cranial nerve.
  2. B) contain tarsal glands.
  3. C) cover and protect the eye.
  4. D) are lined with a conjunctiva.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

back 26

E) All of the answers are correct

front 27

27) The palpebrae are connected at the

  1. A) eyelids.
  2. B) canthus.
  3. C) lacrimal caruncle.
  4. D) chalazion.
  5. E) conjunctiva.

back 27

B) canthus

front 28

28) The space between the iris and ciliary body and the lens is the

  1. A) anterior chamber.
  2. B) posterior chamber.
  3. C) pupil.
  4. D) canal of Schlemm.
  5. E) vitreous body.

back 28

B) posterior chamber

front 29

29) The neural tunic of the eye

  1. A) contains ganglion cells.
  2. B) contains the photoreceptor cells.
  3. C) contains bipolar cells.
  4. D) is the deepest layer of the eyeball.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct

back 29

E) All of the answers are correct

front 30

30) The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by

  1. A) moving up and down.
  2. B) moving in and out.
  3. C) changing shape.
  4. D) opening and closing.
  5. E) dilating and constricting

back 30

C) changing shape

front 31

31) A structure that is located at the medial canthus and contains glands that contribute to a gritty deposit is the

  1. A) palpebra.
  2. B) lacrimal caruncle.
  3. C) chalazion.
  4. D) Meibomian gland.
  5. E) conjunctiva.

back 31

B) lacrimal caruncle

front 32

32) Which of the following produces a lipid-rich secretion that prevents the upper and lower eyelids from sticking together at their edges?

  1. A) palpebra
  2. B) lacrimal caruncle
  3. C) chalazion
  4. D) tarsal gland
  5. E) conjunctiva

back 32

D) tarsal gland

front 33

33) The vitreous body

  1. A) fills the posterior chamber.
  2. B) helps to stabilize the eye and holds the retina up against the eyewall.
  3. C) is replaced at the rate of 20 percent per year until middle age.
  4. D) circulates through the pupil.
  5. E) holds the retina against the lens for proper refraction

back 33

B) helps to stabilize the eye and holds the retina up against the eyewall

front 34

34) The space between the cornea and the iris is the

  1. A) anterior chamber.
  2. B) posterior chamber.
  3. C) canal of Schlemm.
  4. D) aqueous humor.
  5. E) pupil.

back 34

A) anterior chamber

front 35

35) The shape of the lens is controlled by the

  1. A) pupillary sphincter muscles.
  2. B) pupillary radial muscles.
  3. C) ciliary muscles.
  4. D) iris.
  5. E) cornea.

back 35

C) ciliary muscles

front 36

36) The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye.

  1. A) conjunctiva
  2. B) cornea
  3. C) iris
  4. D) anterior chamber
  5. E) canthus

back 36

A) conjunctiva

front 37

37) The transparent portion of the fibrous tunic is the

  1. A) conjunctiva.
  2. B) cornea.
  3. C) iris.
  4. D) pupil.
  5. E) canthus.

back 37

B) cornea

front 38

38) The part of the eye that determines eye color is the

  1. A) conjunctiva.
  2. B) cornea.
  3. C) iris.
  4. D) pupil.
  5. E) canal of Schlemm.

back 38

C) iris

front 39

39) The opening in the iris through which light passes is the

  1. A) conjunctiva.
  2. B) cornea.
  3. C) pupil.
  4. D) anterior chamber.
  5. E) posterior chamber

back 39

C) pupil

front 40

40) In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the

  1. A) iris.
  2. B) cornea.
  3. C) lens.
  4. D) aqueous humor.
  5. E) vitreous humor.

back 40

B) cornea

front 41

41) The ciliary muscle contracts to

  1. A) control the amount of light reaching the retina.
  2. B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision.
  3. C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision.
  4. D) control the production of aqueous humor.
  5. E) adjust the shape of the cornea and vitreous.

back 41

C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision

front 42

42) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term aqueous humor?

  1. A) gelatinous fluid that fills anterior chamber
  2. B) secreted in bright light
  3. C) excessive production may lead to glaucoma
  4. D) converts to vitreous humor with age
  5. E) provides the liquid component of lacrimal secretions

back 42

C) excessive production may lead to glaucoma

front 43

43) Which of the following is true concerning a sty?

  1. A) often caused by bacteria
  2. B) is a blocked gland on the eyelid
  3. C) may involve a sebaceous gland
  4. D) may involve a tarsal gland
  5. E) All of the answers are correct

back 43

E) All of the answers are correct

front 44

44) Which of the following is a function of tears?

  1. A) lubricate the eye
  2. B) wash away debris
  3. C) provide oxygen
  4. D) nourish the cornea and conjunctiva
  5. E) All of the answers are correct

back 44

E) All of the answers are correct

front 45

45) An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the

  1. A) outer segment.
  2. B) inner segment.
  3. C) fovea.
  4. D) optic disc.
  5. E) tapetum lucidum.

back 45

C) fovea

front 46

46) Which of the following description applies to the term myopia?

  1. A) farsightedness
  2. B) nearsightedness
  3. C) normal vision
  4. D) astigmatism
  5. E) age-related decline in accommodation

back 46

B) nearsightedness

front 47

47) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order?

  1. A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina
  2. B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → cornea
  3. C) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retina
  4. D) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina
  5. E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid

back 47

A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina

front 48

48) The cornea is part of the

  1. A) iris.
  2. B) fibrous tunic.
  3. C) neural tunic.
  4. D) uvea.
  5. E) choroid.

back 48

B) fibrous tunic

front 49

49) The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the

  1. A) vitreous humor.
  2. B) aqueous humor.
  3. C) ora serrata.
  4. D) perilymph.
  5. E) posterior cavity.

back 49

A) vitreous humor

front 50

50) Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary ________, and sympathetic activation causes ________.

  1. A) dilation; constriction
  2. B) dilation; dilation
  3. C) constriction; dilation
  4. D) constriction; constriction
  5. E) vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction

back 50

C) constriction; dilation

front 51

51) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can see

  1. A) 20-point type at 15 feet.
  2. B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet.
  3. C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet.
  4. D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet.
  5. E) objects that are 20 feet or less away

back 51

B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet

front 52

52) Trace the circulation of aqueous humor from the site of production to the site of where it is reabsorbed.

  1. posterior chamber
  2. anterior chamber
  3. ciliary body
  4. canal of Schlemm
  5. pupil
  1. A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
  2. B) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
  3. C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
  4. D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
  5. E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3

back 52

D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

front 53

53) Why must accommodation occur to view objects closer than 20 feet from the eye?

  1. A) The light rays are convergent and must be bent more.
  2. B) It moves the retina into position to focus on the close object.
  3. C) The light rays are divergent instead of parallel and require more refraction.
  4. D) The iris is too dilated causing the light rays to be out of focus.
  5. E) None of the answers are correct. Accommodation occurs when looking at distant objects 20 feet or farther from the eye

back 53

C) The light rays are divergent instead of parallel and require more refraction

front 54

54) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ and the suspensory ligaments become ________ which, in turn, cause the lens to become ________.

  1. A) contracts; loose; flat
  2. B) relaxes; loose; flat
  3. C) contracts; tight; round
  4. D) contracts; loose; round
  5. E) relaxes; tight; flat

back 54

D) contracts; loose; round

front 55

55) What structure regulates the amount of light that passes to the photoreceptors of the eye?

  1. A) vitreous body
  2. B) cornea
  3. C) ciliary muscle
  4. D) iris
  5. E) lens

back 55

D) iris

front 56

56) The optic disc is a blind spot because

  1. A) there are no photoreceptors in that area.
  2. B) the retina lacks nerves in the optic disc.
  3. C) humans are unable to focus light on that area of the retina.
  4. D) the vitreous body is too thick in this area for the passage of light.
  5. E) the fovea prevents light from striking the optic disc

back 56

A) there are no photoreceptors in that area

front 57

57) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ causing the ciliary body to move ________ and apply ________ tension on the lens.

  1. A) relaxes; forward; more
  2. B) contracts; forward; less
  3. C) contracts; back; more
  4. D) relaxes; inward; less
  5. E) contracts; back; less

back 57

B) contracts; forward; less

front 58

63) A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause

  1. A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles.
  2. B) contraction of the radial pupillary muscles.
  3. C) conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis
  4. D) a decrease in the size of the pupil.
  5. E) parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil

back 58

A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles

front 59

64) When a rod is stimulated by light,

  1. A) the plasma membrane becomes hyperpolarized.
  2. B) the retinal changes from the 11-cis to the 11-trans
  3. C) less neurotransmitter is released.
  4. D) cGMP decreases and sodium channels close.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct

back 59

E) All of the answers are correct

front 60

65) In the light-adapted state,

  1. A) photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation.
  2. B) photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation.
  3. C) we can only see color, and not black and white.
  4. D) we would see better in the dark.
  5. E) colors are dull

back 60

B) photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation

front 61

66) Under which condition would the release of neurotransmitter by photoreceptors be greatest?

  1. A) under normal room light
  2. B) in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes
  3. C) immediately after going outside in bright sunlight
  4. D) focusing intently on a close object
  5. E) focusing intently on a distant object

back 61

B) in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes

front 62

67) There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated

  1. A) red, yellow, blue.
  2. B) red, green, blue.
  3. C) red, green, yellow.
  4. D) yellow, red, blue.
  5. E) red, white, blue

back 62

B) red, green, blue

front 63

68) The cell of the retina that produces an action potential that goes to the brain is a(n)

  1. A) bipolar cell.
  2. B) photoreceptor.
  3. C) ganglion cell.
  4. D) amacrine cell.
  5. E) horizontal cell

back 63

C) ganglion cell

front 64

69) When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive

  1. A) red.
  2. B) blue.
  3. C) green.
  4. D) white.
  5. E) blackness.

back 64

D) white

front 65

70) The first step in the process of photoreception is

  1. A) the bleaching of rods.
  2. B) the bleaching of cones.
  3. C) absorption of a photon by a visual pigment.
  4. D) inhibition of the sodium pumps.
  5. E) release of neurotransmitter

back 65

C) absorption of a photon by a visual pigment

front 66

71) Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound

  1. A) retinal.
  2. B) opsin.
  3. C) rhodopsin.
  4. D) transducin.
  5. E) cGMP.

back 66

C) rhodopsin

front 67

72) A pigment synthesized from vitamin A is

  1. A) retinal.
  2. B) opsin.
  3. C) rhodopsin.
  4. D) transducin.
  5. E) cGMP.

back 67

A) retinal

front 68

73) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps?

  1. Membrane sodium channels close.
  2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP.
  3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form.
  4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.
  5. Opsin activates transducin.
  6. Opsin activation occurs.
  1. A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3
  2. B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4
  3. C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
  4. D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4
  5. E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2

back 68

B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4

front 69

74) Which of the following is true about rhodopsin?

  1. A) called visual purple
  2. B) bleached during photoreception
  3. C) the visual pigment in rods
  4. D) consists of opsin + retinal
  5. E) All of the answers are correct

back 69

E) All of the answers are correct

front 70

75) Which of the following statements about the retina is true?

  1. A) Ganglion cells send axons to the brain as cranial nerve II.
  2. B) Axons carrying its output synapse in the thalamus.
  3. C) It has photoreceptors that do not respond to dim light.
  4. D) Cones and rods are not equally distributed across the retina.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

back 70

E) All of the answers are correct

front 71

76) Having to adjust to a dark room after walking in from bright light is because

  1. A) the breakdown of rhodopsin to opsin occurs slowly.
  2. B) the lens requires time to accommodate dim light.
  3. C) rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin.
  4. D) rhodopsin does not function in dim light.
  5. E) only cones function in dim light

back 71

C) rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin

front 72

77) Where are the visual pigments located in the rods and cones?

  1. A) in the inner segment of photoreceptors
  2. B) in mitochondria located in the outer segment
  3. C) inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment
  4. D) inside a photosensitive nucleus
  5. E) sandwiched in the cell membrane of the photoreceptors

back 72

C) inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment

front 73

78) The ________ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the ________ ear, which contains auditory ossicles.

  1. A) inner; middle
  2. B) outer; middle
  3. C) outer; inner
  4. D) middle; inner
  5. E) superficial; deep

back 73

B) outer; middle

front 74

79) The external acoustic meatus ends at the

  1. A) tympanic membrane.
  2. B) auditory ossicles.
  3. C) cochlea.
  4. D) pinna.
  5. E) vestibule.

back 74

A) tympanic membrane

front 75

80) Which of the following anatomical sequences is correct?

  1. A) tympanum incus malleus stapes oval window round window
  2. B) tympanum incus malleus stapes round window oval window
  3. C) tympanum malleus incus stapes oval window round window
  4. D) tympanum incus stapes malleus oval window round window
  5. E) tympanum malleus incus stapes round window oval window

back 75

C) tympanum malleus incus stapes oval window round window

front 76

81) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane?

  1. A) moves up and down due to currents in the perilymph
  2. B) transmits movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
  3. C) supports the olfactory organ
  4. D) tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
  5. E) covers over the oval window

back 76

A) moves up and down due to currents in the perilymph

front 77

82) The ________ convey(s) information about head position with respect to gravity.

  1. A) cochlea
  2. B) utricle
  3. C) ampulla
  4. D) saccule
  5. E) utricle and the saccule

back 77

E) utricle and the saccule

front 78

83) A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would

  1. A) be very loud.
  2. B) be barely audible.
  3. C) be high-pitched.
  4. D) be low-pitched.
  5. E) damage the tympanic membrane

back 78

C) be high-pitched

front 79

84) A loud noise causes

  1. A) a large movement of the tympanic membrane.
  2. B) an alerting reaction leading to sympathetic activation.
  3. C) reflex contractions of middle ear muscles.
  4. D) a big pressure pulse entering the cochlear duct at that oval window.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

back 79

E) All of the answers are correct

front 80

85) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term otoliths?

  1. A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth
  2. B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
  3. C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells
  4. D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
  5. E) seal the oval window

back 80

D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium

front 81

86) The auditory ossicles connect the

  1. A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
  2. B) tympanic membrane to the round window.
  3. C) oval window to the round window.
  4. D) stapedius to the tympanic membrane.
  5. E) otitis to the media

back 81

A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.

front 82

87) The vibrations received by the tympanic membrane are transferred to the oval window by the

  1. A) auditory ossicles.
  2. B) cochlea.
  3. C) oval window.
  4. D) tensor tympani.
  5. E) stapedius muscle

back 82

A) auditory ossicles

front 83

88) The middle ear communicates with the nasopharynx through the

  1. A) auricle.
  2. B) membranous labyrinth.
  3. C) bony labyrinth.
  4. D) auditory tube or Eustachian tube.
  5. E) auditory meatus

back 83

D) auditory tube or Eustachian tube

front 84

89) The senses of equilibrium and hearing are provided by receptors in the

  1. A) membranous endolymph.
  2. B) organ of Schlemm.
  3. C) Organ of Corti.
  4. D) bony labyrinth.
  5. E) perilymph

back 84

C) Organ of Corti

front 85

90) The structure that forms the "roof" of the organ of Corti is the

  1. A) basilar membrane.
  2. B) tectorial membrane.
  3. C) stapedius.
  4. D) perilymph.
  5. E) endolymph

back 85

B) tectorial membrane

front 86

91) The structure that supports the organ of Corti is the

  1. A) tectorial membrane.
  2. B) basilar membrane.
  3. C) membranous labyrinth.
  4. D) vestibular duct.
  5. E) tympanic membrane

back 86

B) basilar membrane

front 87

92) Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the

  1. A) semicircular canals.
  2. B) cochlea.
  3. C) statoconia.
  4. D) saccule and utricle.
  5. E) organ of Corti

back 87

D) saccule and utricle

front 88

93) When an external force bends the stereocilia of the inner ear hair cells,

  1. A) the force is converted into mechanical energy.
  2. B) the hair cells are temporarily damaged.
  3. C) there is a change in the transmembrane potential of the hair cells.
  4. D) dizziness results.
  5. E) the cells become unresponsive

back 88

C) there is a change in the transmembrane potential of the hair cells.

front 89

94) The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the

  1. A) saccules.
  2. B) ampullae.
  3. C) perilymph.
  4. D) utricles.
  5. E) cupulae

back 89

B) ampullae

front 90

95) The region of the ampulla that contains the receptors for rotational (dynamic) equilibrium are called

  1. A) utricles.
  2. B) cristae.
  3. C) ampullae.
  4. D) fovea.
  5. E) maculae

back 90

B) cristae

front 91

96) The superficial hard part of the inner ear is called the ________ and contains ________.

  1. A) bony labyrinth; perilymph
  2. B) membranous labyrinth; perilymph
  3. C) membranous labyrinth; endolymph
  4. D) cochlea; perilymph
  5. E) bony labyrinth; endolymph

back 91

A) bony labyrinth; perilymph

front 92

97) Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals

  1. A) produces a rushing sound.
  2. B) allows us to hear low tones.
  3. C) signals rotational movements.
  4. D) signals body position with respect to gravity.
  5. E) signals linear acceleration

back 92

C) signals rotational movements

front 93

98) The structure attached to the oval window that transmits vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is the

  1. A) malleus.
  2. B) basilar membrane.
  3. C) incus.
  4. D) stapes.
  5. E) auditory tube

back 93

D) stapes

front 94

99) Low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells on which part of the basilar membrane?

  1. A) area close to the round window
  2. B) the entire membrane
  3. C) the distal end
  4. D) the middle region
  5. E) area close to the oval window

back 94

C) the distal end

front 95

100) The energy from a pressure wave in the cochlear fluids is released by the bulging and stretching of the

  1. A) tectorial membrane.
  2. B) cochlear duct.
  3. C) round window.
  4. D) vestibular membrane.
  5. E) oval window

back 95

C) round window

front 96

101) The function of the auditory tube is to

  1. A) help maintain equilibrium.
  2. B) amplify sounds.
  3. C) equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.
  4. D) redistribute endolymph after hearing a sound.
  5. E) provide a passageway for sound waves to enter the ear

back 96

C) equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane

front 97

102) Standing still in an elevator that suddenly lowers will stimulate receptors in the

  1. A) basilar membrane.
  2. B) spiral organ.
  3. C) semicircular canals.
  4. D) bony labyrinth.
  5. E) utricle and saccule

back 97

E) utricle and saccule

front 98

103) An infection that damages the vestibular nerve could result in a loss of

  1. A) hearing and equilibrium.
  2. B) olfaction.
  3. C) visual acuity.
  4. D) hearing.
  5. E) equilibrium.

back 98

E) equilibrium

front 99

104) The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in

  1. A) ampullae.
  2. B) cristae.
  3. C) cupulae.
  4. D) maculae.
  5. E) otoconia

back 99

D) maculae

front 100

105) The frequency of a perceived sound depends on

  1. A) the frequency of stereocilia vibration.
  2. B) the number of hair cells that are stimulated.
  3. C) which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated.
  4. D) the movement of perilymph in the cochlear duct.
  5. E) the frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane

back 100

C) which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated

front 101

106) The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation. What is the proper sequence for these steps?

  1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window.
  2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus.
  3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve.
  4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes.
  5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the organ of Corti to vibrate against the tectorial membrane
  6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the vestibular duct.
  7. A) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3
  8. B) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1
  9. C) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3
  10. D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3
  11. E) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3

back 101

D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3

front 102

107) Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on

  1. A) changes in the pressure exerted by the cupula on hair cells.
  2. B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells.
  3. C) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae.
  4. D) the movement of endolymph within the semicircular canals.
  5. E) the bending of hair cells in the ampullae

back 102

C) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae

front 103

108) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term malleus?

  1. A) moves up and down when the stapedius muscle contracts
  2. B) attached to the oval window
  3. C) bending it produces receptor potential in hair cells
  4. D) necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
  5. E) attached to the tympanum

back 103

E) attached to the tympanum

front 104

109) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the

  1. A) auditory ossicles.
  2. B) cochlea.
  3. C) oval window.
  4. D) round window.
  5. E) tympanic membrane

back 104

E) tympanic membrane

front 105

110) The cell bodies of sensory neurons that innervate the hair cells of the cochlea form the ________ ganglion.

  1. A) vestibular
  2. B) spiral
  3. C) cochlear
  4. D) acoustic
  5. E) auditory

back 105

B) spiral

front 106

111) The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following except

  1. A) integrating the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head.
  2. B) relaying vestibular information to the cerebellum.
  3. C) relaying vestibular information to the cerebral cortex.
  4. D) sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord.
  5. E) sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear

back 106

E) sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear

front 107

112) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term stereocilia?

  1. A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth
  2. B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
  3. C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells
  4. D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
  5. E) seal the oval window

back 107

C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells

front 108

1) Olfactory organs are located in the nasal cavity inferior to the perforated bony structure known as the

  1. A) cribriform plate.
  2. B) sphenoid bone.
  3. C) sella turcica.
  4. D) vomer.
  5. E) zygomatic process

back 108

A) cribriform plate

front 109

2) The olfactory organ consists of the ________ and the lamina propria.

  1. A) gustatory cells
  2. B) basilar membrane
  3. C) olfactory epithelium
  4. D) hippocampus
  5. E) ethmoid bone

back 109

C) olfactory epithelium

front 110

3) Which of the following statements about smell is true?

  1. A) Basal cells are the supporting cells for the receptors cells of the olfactory receptor.
  2. B) Olfactory epithelium covers the surface of the maxillary bone.
  3. C) Olfactory glands produce saliva.
  4. D) A high concentration of odorant molecules is required to stimulate olfactory cells.
  5. E) None of the statements are true

back 110

A) Basal cells are the supporting cells for the receptors cells of the olfactory receptor

front 111

4) The olfactory receptors are highly modified

  1. A) epithelial cells.
  2. B) interneurons.
  3. C) sensory neurons.
  4. D) motor neurons.
  5. E) fibrocytes

back 111

C) sensory neurons

front 112

5) Olfactory glands secrete a thick, pigmented ________ that absorbs water.

  1. A) plasma
  2. B) interstitial fluid
  3. C) serous fluid
  4. D) mucus
  5. E) hypertonic fluid

back 112

D) mucus

front 113

6) The sense of taste is also known as

  1. A) expiation.
  2. B) maculation.
  3. C) gustation.
  4. D) olfaction.
  5. E) sublation

back 113

C) gustation

front 114

7) The membrane structures that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and umami sensations are called

  1. A) gustatory hairs.
  2. B) chemically-gated ion channels.
  3. C) voltage-regulated ion channels.
  4. D) G proteins.
  5. E) papillae.

back 114

D) G proteins

front 115

8) Taste buds are clusters of individual

  1. A) circumvallate papillae.
  2. B) gustatory hairs.
  3. C) epithelial cells.
  4. D) olfactory receptors.
  5. E) gustatory receptors

back 115

E) gustatory receptors

front 116

9) Each gustatory cell extends ________ (called hairs) into the surrounding fluids through a narrow taste pore.

  1. A) microvilli
  2. B) villi
  3. C) papillae
  4. D) palpebra
  5. E) G proteins

back 116

A) microvilli

front 117

10) Taste buds on the tongue are often associated with epithelial projections called

  1. A) macula.
  2. B) lingual papillae.
  3. C) ganglion cells.
  4. D) pharyngeal papillae.
  5. E) ampulla

back 117

B) lingual papillae

front 118

11) A typical gustatory cell survives for only about ________ day(s) before it is replaced.

  1. A) 10
  2. B) 1
  3. C) 60
  4. D) 30
  5. E) 365

back 118

A) 10

front 119

12) Modified sebaceous glands located along the margin of the eyelid that secrete a lipid-rich product are called ________ glands.

  1. A) carpal
  2. B) mucous
  3. C) optic
  4. D) ocular
  5. E) tarsal

back 119

E) tarsal

front 120

13) A(n) ________ is an infection in one of the glands on the eyelids.

  1. A) sty
  2. B) furuncle
  3. C) abscess
  4. D) lesion
  5. E) carbuncle

back 120

A) sty

front 121

14) The abnormality that develops when a lens loses its transparency is known as

  1. A) glaucoma.
  2. B) myopia.
  3. C) macular degeneration.
  4. D) a cataract.
  5. E) Fuch's dystrophy

back 121

D) a cataract

front 122

15) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.

  1. A) Bipolar
  2. B) Ganglion
  3. C) Amacrine
  4. D) Cone
  5. E) Rod

back 122

A) Bipolar

front 123

16) Amacrine and ________ cells facilitate or inhibit communication between photoreceptors and ganglion cells.

  1. A) bipolar
  2. B) ganglion
  3. C) nuclear
  4. D) hair
  5. E) horizontal

back 123

E) horizontal

front 124

17) ________ cells adjust sensitivities at the synapses between photoreceptor cells and ganglion cells.

  1. A) Bipolar
  2. B) Ganglion
  3. C) Nuclear
  4. D) Hair
  5. E) Horizontal

back 124

E) Horizontal

front 125

18) When light encounters a medium of different density, it is

  1. A) refracted.
  2. B) diffracted.
  3. C) reflected.
  4. D) angled.
  5. E) absorbed.

back 125

A) refracted

front 126

19) ________, or pinkeye, results from damage to or irritation of the conjunctival surface.

  1. A) Fuch's dystrophy
  2. B) Conjunctivitis
  3. C) Glaucoma
  4. D) Myopia
  5. E) Uveitis

back 126

B) Conjunctivitis

front 127

20) Where the eyelids join at the medial or lateral edge is called the

  1. A) nasolacrimal duct.
  2. B) palpebral fissure.
  3. C) lacrimal caruncle.
  4. D) optic margin.
  5. E) canthus.

back 127

E) canthus

front 128

21) An irregularity in curvature in the cornea or lens, called ________, causes a reduction in visual acuity.

  1. A) astigmatism
  2. B) glaucoma
  3. C) a cataract
  4. D) macular degeneration
  5. E) cornela atrophy

back 128

A) astigmatism

front 129

22) A person suffering from ________ can see objects that are close, but distant objects appear blurred.

  1. A) myopia
  2. B) hyperopia
  3. C) emmetropia
  4. D) presbyopia
  5. E) diplopia

back 129

A) myopia

front 130

23) A person suffering from ________ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are close.

  1. A) myopia
  2. B) hyperopia
  3. C) emmetropia
  4. D) presbyopia
  5. E) diplopia

back 130

B) hyperopia

front 131

24) A type of farsightedness that results from a loss of lens elasticity with age is

  1. A) myopia.
  2. B) hyperopia.
  3. C) emmetropia.
  4. D) presbyopia.
  5. E) diplopia

back 131

D) presbyopia

front 132

25) The visible spectrum for humans extends between a wavelength of

  1. A) 700 and 1000 nm.
  2. B) 100 and 200 nm.
  3. C) 200 and 400 nm.
  4. D) 2000 and 2500 nm.
  5. E) 400 and 700 nm

back 132

E) 400 and 700 nm

front 133

26) A young child has been diagnosed with a recessive hereditary disease that results in destruction of the geniculate nucleus. The result of this would be

  1. A) inability to change the focus with your lens.
  2. B) excessive light bouncing around within the posterior portion of the eyeball.
  3. C) total blindness.
  4. D) no production of rhodopsin.
  5. E) partial loss of vision

back 133

E) partial loss of vision

front 134

27) Photoreceptor cells that are most useful in dim light are

  1. A) rods.
  2. B) cones.
  3. C) amacrine cells.
  4. D) horizontal cells.
  5. E) bipolar cells

back 134

A) rods

front 135

28) Photoreceptors that convey our ability to see color are

  1. A) rods.
  2. B) cones.
  3. C) amacrine cells.
  4. D) horizontal cells.
  5. E) bipolar cells

back 135

B) cones

front 136

29) Color blindness is a(n)

  1. A) hereditary disease involving a lack of certain cones.
  2. B) nutritional disease related to a deficiency of vitamin A.
  3. C) progressive deterioration of the ganglion cells of the retina.
  4. D) inflammatory reaction causing damage to the photoreceptors.

E) infection of the retina, resulting in destruction of the cones

back 136

A) hereditary disease involving a lack of certain cones

front 137

30) The purpose of the two small muscles, the tensor tympani and the stapedius, in the ear is to

  1. A) move the ossicles.
  2. B) reduce damage to the earbones.
  3. C) contract quickly when there is a loud sound.
  4. D) protect the tympanic membrane.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct

back 137

E) All of the answers are correct

front 138

31) The secretion commonly called earwax is produced by ________ glands.

  1. A) lacrimal
  2. B) tarsal
  3. C) ceruminous
  4. D) sebaceous
  5. E) eccrine

back 138

C) ceruminous

front 139

32) The elevated ridges within the ampullae of the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as

  1. A) cristae.
  2. B) maculae.
  3. C) canals.
  4. D) cupulae.
  5. E) otoliths

back 139

A) cristae

front 140

33) ________ fills the membranous labyrinth.

  1. A) Perilymph
  2. B) Endoplasma
  3. C) Interstitial fluid
  4. D) Endolymph
  5. E) Blood

back 140

D) Endolymph

front 141

34) The ________ is a region of dense bone that surrounds and protects the membranous labyrinth.

  1. A) sella turcica
  2. B) ossicle
  3. C) auditory canal
  4. D) membranous labyrinth
  5. E) bony labyrinth

back 141

E) bony labyrinth

front 142

35) ________ is a fluid similar to cerebrospinal fluid that fills the space between the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth

  1. A) Perilymph
  2. B) Endoplasma
  3. C) Interstitial fluid
  4. D) Endolymph
  5. E) Blood

back 142

A) Perilymph

front 143

36) The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the

  1. A) organ of Corti.
  2. B) ossicles.
  3. C) crista ampullaris.
  4. D) utricle.
  5. E) saccule

back 143

A) organ of Corti

front 144

37) ________ deafness results from conditions in the outer or middle ear that block the transfer of vibrations from the environment to the tympanic membrane or to the oval window.

  1. A) Sensory
  2. B) Nerve
  3. C) Conductive
  4. D) Mechanical
  5. E) Macular

back 144

C) Conductive

front 145

38) ________ deafness occurs because of a problem in the cochlea or somewhere along the auditory pathway.

  1. A) Vibrational
  2. B) Nerve
  3. C) Conductive
  4. D) Mechanical
  5. E) Macular

back 145

B) Nerve

front 146

39) Abnormal jumpy eye movements that may appear after brain stem or inner ear damage are called

  1. A) tinnitus.
  2. B) vertigo.
  3. C) strabismus.
  4. D) nystagmus.
  5. E) trismus.

back 146

D) nystagmus

front 147

40) The formal term for the sense of balance and equilibrium is the ________ sense.

  1. A) nociception
  2. B) proprioception
  3. C) olfactory
  4. D) gustatory
  5. E) vestibular

back 147

E) vestibular

front 148

41) ________ sensations inform us of the position of the head in space by monitoring gravity, linear acceleration, and rotation.

  1. A) Nociceptor
  2. B) Proprioceptor
  3. C) Olfactory
  4. D) Gustatory
  5. E) Vestibular

back 148

E) Vestibular

front 149

42) When you spin quickly, you may feel dizzy. Which component of the inner ear generates the sensations that can lead to this feeling?

  1. A) organ of Corti
  2. B) maculae
  3. C) otoliths
  4. D) semicircular canal
  5. E) ossicles

back 149

D) semicircular canal

front 150

43) The cochlear receptors that provide our sense of hearing are

  1. A) hair cells.
  2. B) modified interneurons.
  3. C) otoliths.
  4. D) pyramidal cells.
  5. E) mucous cells

back 150

A) hair cells