40) Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus Loxodonta and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Assuming this classification reflects evolutionary relatedness, which of the following is the most accurate phylogenetic tree?

D

41) How many separate species, both extant and extinct, are depicted in this tree?
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
E) six

E

43) Which of the five common ancestors, labeled V-Z, has given rise to the greatest number of species, both extant and extinct?
A) V
B) W
C) Z
D) Both W and Z can be considered to have given rise to the greatest number of extant and extinct species.
E) Both X and Y can be considered to have given rise to the greatest number of extant and extinct species.

E

46) Which pair would probably have agreed with the process that is depicted by this tree?
A) Cuvier and Lamarck
B) Lamarck and Wallace
C) Aristotle and Lyell
D) Wallace and Linnaeus
E) Linnaeus and Lamarck

B

The legless condition that is observed in several groups of extant reptiles is the result of
A) their common ancestor having been legless.
B) a shared adaptation to an arboreal (living in trees) lifestyle.
C) several instances of the legless condition arising independently of each other.
D) individual lizards adapting to a fossorial (living in burrows) lifestyle during their lifetimes.

C

9) The best classification system is that which most closely
A) unites organisms that possess similar morphologies.
B) conforms to traditional, Linnaean taxonomic practices.
C) reflects evolutionary history.
D) reflects the basic separation of prokaryotes from eukaryotes.

C

7) The term homoplasy is most applicable to which of the following features?
A) the legless condition found in various lineages of extant lizards
B) the five-digit condition of human hands and bat wings
C) the β hemoglobin genes of mice and of humans
D) the fur that covers Australian moles and North American moles
E) the bones of bat forelimbs and the bones of bird forelimbs

A

if, someday, an archaean cell is discovered whose rRNA sequence is more similar to that of humans than the sequence of mouse rRNA is to that of humans, the best explanation for this apparent discrepancy would be
A) homology.
B) homoplasy.
C) common ancestry.
D) retro-evolution by humans.
E) coevolution of humans and that archaean.

B

16) When using a cladistic approach to systematics, which of the following is considered most important for classification?
A) shared primitive characters
B) analogous primitive characters
C) shared derived characters
D) the number of homoplasies
E) overall phenotypic similarity

C

Cladograms (a type of phylogenetic tree) constructed from evidence from molecular systematics are based on similarities in
A) morphology.
B) the pattern of embryological development.
C) biochemical pathways.
D) habitat and lifestyle choices.
E) mutations to homologous genes.

E

There is some evidence that reptiles called cynodonts may have had whisker-like hairs around their mouths. If true, then what can be properly said of hair?
A) It is a shared derived character of mammals, even if cynodonts continue to be classified as reptiles.
B) It is a shared derived character of the amniote clade, and not of the mammal clade.
C) It is a shared ancestral character of the amniote clade, but only if cynodonts are reclassified as mammals.
D) It is a shared derived character of the mammals, but only if cynodonts are reclassified as mammals.

D

A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of
A) archaeans and bacteria.
B) fungi and animals.
C) chimpanzees and humans.
D) sharks and dolphins.
E) mosses and ferns.

C

The most important feature that permits a gene to act as a molecular clock is
A) having a large number of base pairs.
B) having a larger proportion of exonic DNA than of intronic DNA.
C) having a reliable average rate of mutation.
D) its recent origin by a gene-duplication event.
E) its being acted upon by natural selection.

C

30) Neutral theory proposes that
A) molecular clocks are more reliable when the surrounding pH is close to 7.0.
B) most mutations of highly conserved DNA sequences should have no functional effect.
C) DNA is less susceptible to mutation when it codes for amino acid sequences whose side groups (or R groups) have a neutral pH.
D) DNA is less susceptible to mutation when it codes for amino acid sequences whose side groups (or R groups) have a neutral electrical charge.
E) a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection.

E

23) Which kind of DNA should provide the best molecular clock for determining the evolutionary relatedness of several species whose common ancestor became extinct billions of years ago?
A) that coding for ribosomal RNA
B) intronic DNA belonging to a gene whose product performs a crucial function
C) paralogous DNA that has lost its function (i.e., no longer codes for functional gene product)
D) mitochondrial DNA
E) exonic DNA that codes for a noncrucial part of a polypeptide

A

What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom?
A) molecular
B) behavioral
C) nutritional
D) anatomical
E) ecological

A

Which kingdom has been replaced with two domains?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
E) Monera

E

Which eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic, and therefore unacceptable, based on cladistics?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
E) Monera

D

Which of these variables is likely to undergo the largest change in value as the result of a mutation that introduces a brand-new allele into a population's gene pool at a locus that had formerly been fixed?
A) average heterozygosity
B) nucleotide variability
C) geographic variability
D) average number of loci

A

he higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's
A) nucleotide variability only.
B) genetic polyploidy only.
C) average heterozygosity only.
D) nucleotide variability, average heterozygosity, and genetic polyploidy.
E) nucleotide variability and average heterozygosity only.

E

Rank the following one-base point mutations (from most likely to least likely) with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide:
1. insertion mutation deep within an intron
2. substitution mutation at the third position of an exonic codon
3. substitution mutation at the second position of an exonic codon
4. deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 2, 1, 4, 3
D) 3, 1, 4, 2
E) 2, 3, 1, 4

B

Which of the following is a true statement concerning genetic variation?
A) It is created by the direct action of natural selection.
B) It arises in response to changes in the environment.
C) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.
D) It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes.
E) A population that has a higher average heterozygosity has less genetic variation than one with a lower average heterozygosity.

C

Whenever diploid populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at a particular locus
A) the allele's frequency should not change from one generation to the next, but its representation in homozygous and heterozygous genotypes may change.
B) natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are acting equally to change an allele's frequency.
C) this means that, at this locus, two alleles are present in equal proportions.
D) the population itself is not evolving, but individuals within the population may be evolving.

A

In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the 2 in the term 2pq is necessary because
A) the population is diploid.
B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways.
C) the population is doubling in number.
D) heterozygotes have two alleles.

B

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele?
A) 0.09
B) 0.49
C) 0.9
D) 9.0
E) 49.0

D

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.1. What is the frequency of individuals with AA genotype?
A) 0.20
B) 0.32
C) 0.42
D) 0.81
E) Genotype frequency cannot be determined from the information provided.

D

Which of the following is most likely to produce an African butterfly species in the wild whose members have one of two strikingly different color patterns?
A) artificial selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) disruptive selection
E) sexual selection

D

The recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU) is harmful, except when an infant's diet lacks the amino acid phenylalanine. What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a population's gene pool?
A) heterozygote advantage
B) stabilizing selection
C) diploidy
D) balancing selection

C

Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following?
A) sexual selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) random selection
D) directional selection
E) disruptive selection

B

In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population?
A) disruptive selection
B) directional selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

B

When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of
A) sexual selection.
B) disruptive selection.
C) balancing selection.
D) stabilizing selection.
E) frequency-dependent selection.

E

A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. The actual forelimbs of these mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged because
A) natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case, but will do so given enough time.
B) in many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype, but by the environment as well.
C) though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best design.
D) natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations and in previous species.

D

There are those who claim that the theory of evolution cannot be true because the apes, which are supposed to be closely related to humans, do not likewise share the same large brains, capacity for complicated speech, and tool-making capability. They reason that if these features are generally beneficial, then the apes should have evolved them as well. Which of these provides the best argument against this misconception?
A) Advantageous alleles do not arise on demand.
B) A population's evolution is limited by historical constraints.
C) Adaptations are often compromises.
D) Evolution can be influenced by environmental change.

A

Blue light is that portion of the visible spectrum that penetrates the deepest into bodies of water. Ultraviolet (UV) light, though, can penetrate even deeper. A gene within a population of marine fish that inhabits depths from 500 m to 1,000 m has an allele for a photopigment that is sensitive to UV light, and another allele for a photopigment that is sensitive to blue light. Which of the following graphs best depicts the predicted distribution of these alleles within a population if the fish that carry these alleles prefer to locate themselves where they can see best? (SEE IMAGE)

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

B

HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR.

51) Which of the following represents the treatment option most likely to avoid the production of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side effects)?
A) using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week
B) using a single PI, but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week
C) using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed one day
D) using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several months

D

HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR.

54) Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules. If two genes from one RNA molecule become detached and then, as a unit, get attached to one end of the other RNA molecule within a single HIV particle, which of these is true?
A) There are now fewer genes within the viral particle.
B) There are now more genes within the viral particle.
C) A point substitution mutation has occurred in the retroviral genome.
D) The retroviral equivalent of crossing over has occurred, no doubt resulting in a heightened positive effect.
E) One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of translocation.

E

You are studying three populations of birds. Population A has ten birds, of which one is brown (a recessive trait) and nine are red. Population B has 100 birds, of which ten are brown. Population C has 30 birds, and three of them are brown.

59) In which population would it be least likely that an accident would significantly alter the frequency of the brown allele?
A) population A
B) population B
C) population C
D) They are all the same.
E) It is impossible to tell from the information given.

B

You are studying three populations of birds. Population A has ten birds, of which one is brown (a recessive trait) and nine are red. Population B has 100 birds, of which ten are brown. Population C has 30 birds, and three of them are brown.

60) Which population is most likely to be subject to the bottleneck effect?
A) population A
B) population B
C) population C
D) They are all equally likely.
E) It is impossible to tell from the information given.

A

You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory by transferring the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation. After several generations, you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased greatly. Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to decreased viability, the best way to reverse this trend is to
A) cross your flies with flies from another lab.
B) reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation.
C) transfer only the largest flies.
D) change the temperature at which you rear the flies.
E) shock the flies with a brief treatment of heat or cold to make them more hardy.

A

What is true of macroevolution?
A) It is the same as microevolution, but includes the origin of new species.
B) It is evolution above the species level.
C) It is defined as the evolution of microscopic organisms into organisms that can be seen with the naked eye.
D) It is defined as a change in allele or gene frequency over the course of many generations.
E) It is the conceptual link between irritability and adaptation.

B

Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, is (are) correct?
I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation.
II. Biological species are the model used for grouping extinct forms of life.
III. The biological species is the largest unit of population in which successful interbreeding is possible.
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III

B

Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation is most similar to which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms?
A) reduced hybrid fertility
B) hybrid breakdown
C) mechanical isolation
D) habitat isolation
E) gametic isolation

D

Rank the following from most general to most specific:

1. gametic isolation
2. reproductive isolating mechanism
3. pollen-stigma incompatibility
4. prezygotic isolating mechanism

A) 2, 3, 1, 4
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 4, 1, 2, 3
D) 4, 2, 1, 3
E) 2, 1, 4, 3

B

Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring fail to develop and hatch. What is the mechanism for keeping the two frog species separate?
A) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability
B) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown
C) the prezygotic barrier called hybrid sterility
D) gametic isolation

A

Dogs (Canis lupus familiaris) and gray wolves (Canis lupus) can interbreed to produce viable, fertile offspring. These species shared a common ancestor recently (in geologic time) and have a high degree of genetic similarity, although their anatomies vary widely. Judging from this evidence, which two species concepts are most likely to place dogs and wolves together into a single species?
A) ecological and morphological
B) ecological and phylogenetic
C) morphological and phylogenetic
D) biological and morphological
E) biological and phylogenetic

E

What does the biological species concept use as the primary criterion for determining species boundaries?
A) geographic isolation
B) niche differences
C) gene flow
D) morphological similarity
E) molecular (DNA, RNA, protein) similarity

C

Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species, then which of these terms are applicable?

1. sympatric species
2. prezygotic isolation
3. postzygotic isolation
4. allopatric species
5. habitat isolation
6. reduced hybrid fertility

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 4
C) 1, 3, and 6
D) 2, 4, and 5
E) 1, 2, 5, and 6

A

In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on pronghorn antelopes. In rangelands of the western United States, pronghorns and cattle often associate with one another. If some of these fleas develop a strong preference for cattle blood and mate only with other fleas that prefer cattle blood, then over time which of these should occur, if the host mammal can be considered as the fleas' habitat?

1. reproductive isolation
2. sympatric speciation
3. habitat isolation
4. prezygotic barriers

A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 2, 3, and 4
E) 1 through 4

E

Among known plant species, which of these have been the two most commonly occurring phenomena that have led to the origin of new species?

1. allopatric speciation
2. sympatric speciation
3. sexual selection
4. polyploidy

A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4

D

The most likely explanation for the high rate of sympatric speciation that apparently existed among the cichlids of Lake Victoria in the past is
A) sexual selection.
B) habitat differentiation.
C) polyploidy.
D) pollution.
E) introduction of a new predator.

A

The phenomenon of fusion is likely to occur when, after a period of geographic isolation, two populations meet again and
A) their chromosomes are no longer homologous enough to permit meiosis.
B) a constant number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of generations.
C) the hybrid zone is inhospitable to hybrid survival.
D) an increasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of generations.
E) a decreasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of generations.

D

A hybrid zone is properly defined as
A) an area where two closely related species' ranges overlap.
B) an area where mating occurs between members of two closely related species, producing viable offspring.
C) a zone that features a gradual change in species composition where two neighboring ecosystems border each other.
D) a zone that includes the intermediate portion of a cline.
E) an area where members of two closely related species intermingle, but experience no gene flow.

B

Which of these should decline in hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring?
A) gene flow between distinct gene pools
B) speciation
C) the genetic distinctness of two gene pools
D) mutation rate
E) hybrid sterility

A

The most likely explanation for the recent decline in cichlid species diversity in Lake Victoria is
A) reinforcement.
B) fusion.
C) stability.
D) geographic isolation.
E) polyploidy.

B

According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, the "sudden" appearance of a new species in the fossil record means that
A) the species is now extinct.
B) speciation occurred instantaneously.
C) speciation occurred in one generation.
D) speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time.
E) the species will consequently have a relatively short existence, compared with other species.

D

Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species, then which of these terms is applicable?
A) behavioral isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) hybrid breakdown
D) reduced hybrid viability

B

In order for speciation to occur, what must be true?
A) The number of chromosomes in the gene pool must change.
B) Changes to centromere location or chromosome size must occur within the gene pool.
C) Large numbers of genes that affect a single phenotypic trait must change.
D) Large numbers of genes that affect numerous phenotypic traits must change.
E) At least one gene, affecting at least one phenotypic trait, must change.

E

You sample a population of butterflies and find that 56% are heterozygous at a particular locus. What should be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?
A) 0.07
B) 0.08
C) 0.09
D) 0.70
E) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.

E

In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r = white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36 purple-flowering plants and 64 white-flowering plants. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population?
A) 0.36
B) 0.64
C) 0.75
D) 0.80

D

Although each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence?
A) mutation
B) nonrandom mating
C) genetic drift
D) natural selection
E) gene flow

C

Evolution
A) must happen, due to organisms’ innate desire to survive.
B) must happen whenever a population is not well-adapted to its environment.
C) can happen whenever any of the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are not met.
D) requires the operation of natural selection.
E) requires that populations become better suited to their environments.

C

Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing
A) nonrandom mating.
B) geographic isolation.
C) genetic drift.
D) gene flow.

D

What is true of natural selection?
A) Natural selection is a random process.
B) Natural selection creates beneficial mutations.
C) The only way to eliminate harmful mutations is through natural selection.
D) Mutations occur at random; natural selection can preserve and distribute beneficial mutations.
E) Mutations occur when directed by the good of the species; natural selection edits out harmful mutations and causes populations to adapt to the beneficial mutations.

D

Arrange the following from most general (i.e., most inclusive) to most specific (i.e., least inclusive):
1. natural selection
2. microevolution
3. intrasexual selection
4. evolution
5. sexual selection

A) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
B) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
E) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

C

Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of
A) pansexual selection.
B) stabilizing selection.
C) intrasexual selection.
D) intersexual selection.
E) artificial selection.

D

33) During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following terms are appropriately applied to this situation?
A) sexual selection
B) mate choice
C) intersexual selection
D) Three of the responses are correct.
E) Two of the responses are correct.

D