front 1 Reproduction of gametes is known as | back 1 Meiosis and has half the complement of dna (sex cells) |
front 2 Reproduction of cells other than gametes is called | back 2 mitosis and they have the full complement of dna. cytokinesis |
front 3 The cell cycle has 5 phases | back 3 G0, G1, S, G2, M |
front 4 G0 | back 4 the resting state of a cell |
front 5 Checkpoints in the cell cycle occur at | back 5 G1 / S phase G2 / M phase |
front 6 What is the role of the checkpoints | back 6 the check points make sure there are no issues, and they can halt the cycle if there are any issue Failure at a check point halting the cycle is associated with cancer non-cancerous cells: abnormalities detected and corrected or cell destroyed problem cancer cells, avoid destruction and proliferate |
front 7 Control of cell division is controlled by | back 7 checkpoints and stimulation by hormones or nutrients (cell division can be stimulated or enhanced) |
front 8 What is cancer | back 8 a disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells in a part of the body. |
front 9 Cancer refers to | back 9 a malignant tumor (neoplasm) |
front 10 A malignant tumor is charicterised by | back 10 rapid growth, anaplasia, nuclear irregularities, loss of normal tissue structure. |
front 11 Anaplasia is | back 11 loss of cell differentiation. |
front 12 Benign tumors are | back 12 not cancerous but can develop into cancer. Grow slow well defined capsule Not invasive well differentiated low mitotic index do not metastasise (spread) |
front 13 Cancer is a chronic disease that can be characterised by | back 13 remission and relapse. |
front 14 Carcinomas | back 14 arise from endothelial and epithelial tissues (hepatocellular carcinoma) |
front 15 Sarcomas | back 15 arise from connective tissues (osteogenic sarcoma) |
front 16 Adenoma | back 16 benign tumor arising from glandular or ductal epithelium |
front 17 Adenocarcinomas | back 17 carcinomas arising from glandual or ductal epithelium (breast cancer) |
front 18 Terato- | back 18 arise from germ cells (teratocarcinoma) |
front 19 HIV or immunosuppressant drugs can substantially increase the incidence of some cancers including Lymphoma, herpes virus-caused cervical cancer | back 19 Lymphoma, herpes virus-caused cervical cancer |
front 20 Organ transplant recipients on immunosuppressants | back 20 don’t have higher rates of cancer (breast, prostate, colon), so immune surveillance not significant in preventing all types of cancer. |
front 21 Immune system can work on | back 21 small number of cancer cells but unable to destroy large growths |
front 22 The immune system has what to start fighting the cancer | back 22 Tumor specific antigens (TSA) Tumor associated antigens (TAA) phagocytes, NK cells, NK T cells, cytotoxic T cells, specific antibodies and complement eliminate cells. |
front 23 Hep C virus is the | back 23 most common cause of chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular cancer |
front 24 Cancer of the liver is | back 24 usually secondary to metastases and is the most common site of metastatic tumors. |
front 25 Risk factors for cancer of the liver | back 25 chronic hep b, c and lesser extent D. Cirrhosis, dietary exposure to aflatoxin moulds and drinking water contaminated with arsenic. |
front 26 Immune systems role | back 26 to react to infections and tissue damage to keep cells in control. |
front 27 Bacterial causes of cancer is from | back 27 Helicobacter pylori usually asymptomatic those susceptible H Pylori can cause stomach ulcers that in turn can turn cancerous. |
front 28 Risk factors for cancer | back 28 Smoking Diet Obesity Alcohol Ultraviolet radiation enviornment (working, air) Ionising radiation (xrays etc) Electromagnetic fields (high voltage power lines) |
front 29 Chargrilled meat produces | back 29 heterocyclic aromatic amines which are known carcinogens |
front 30 Other issues with diet `as a risk factor for cancer is | back 30 Aflatoxin is produced by mould and contaminate foods in humid climates High fat / low fibre western diets can increase colon cancer by 30 – 40 % pickled and salty foods |
front 31 What is a carcinogen | back 31 a substance capable of causing cancer in living tissue. |
front 32 Alcohol risk factors for what cancer | back 32 oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, oesophagus and liver cancers Alcohol and cigarette combination increase risk. |
front 33 Ultraviolent radiation | back 33 Principle source is sunlight caused by basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma and melanoma. |
front 34 Occupational hazards include | back 34 asbestos, diesel fumes and dyes. cancers include respiratory tract, lungs and bladder. |
front 35 Gene enviornment interation | back 35 is envionmental factors cause genetic mutations, there is increasing evidence that enviornment and lifestyle exposure to genes are critical in preventing cancer. |
front 36 Preventing cancer | back 36 increasing physical activity improve diet avoid UV radiation Decrease alcohol consumption Cease smoking. |
front 37 Physical activity does what? | back 37 Decreasing insulin levels, obesity, inflammatory mediators, Increased gut motility. Decreased exposure to sex hormones |
front 38 Clinical manifestations of cancer | back 38 Infection Leucopenia Thrombocytopenia Anemia Pain Fatigue Paraneoplastic syndromes Cachexia |
front 39 Infection in cancer | back 39 risk increases when neutrophil and lymphocyte counts fall. other ways to get infections - hospital acquired infections, bugs from staff, visitors and procedures re IDC, cannulas and wound management. increased risk following surgery Those with temperatures, we cover with prophylactic antibiotics. |
front 40 Leucopenia | back 40 decrease in white blood cells by invading and affecting the bone marrow. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy also damages the bone marrow. risk of infection due to decrease in WBC. |
front 41 Thrombocytopenia | back 41 A low platelet count is a major cause of haemorrhage in people with cancer. It usually results from chemotherapy or bone marrow involvement by the malignancy. |
front 42 Anaemia is | back 42 a decrease in haemoglobin in the blood |
front 43 First sign of anaemia is | back 43 fatigue |
front 44 In bowel cancer, | back 44 occult bleeding resulting from anaemia. Chronic bleeding causes iron deficiency,malabsorption or iron and severe malnutrition. |
front 45 Anaemia is associate with | back 45 Reduced treatment effectiveness Increased mortaity Increased transfusion requirements Reduced performance and quality of life |
front 46 Treatment for anaemia includes | back 46 Synthetic EPO Blood transfusions |
front 47 Anaemia predisposes to hypoxia | back 47 to hypoxia. If a tumor become hypoxic its has been shown to promote tumour resistance to radiotherapy and some chemotherapies. |
front 48 Severe aneamia can | back 48 delay surgery if presurgical transfusions are required, and low haemoglobin before or during chemo may require dose reductions or delays in administration. These things contribute to a decrease in overall treatment effectiveness. |
front 49 Pain | back 49 as a rule late stage cancer strongly linked with pain, 60-80% in those terminally ill with cancer. |
front 50 Painless nodes | back 50 can be very serious and should be checked. |
front 51 Pain is | back 51 influenced by fear, anxiety, sleep loss, fatigue, and overall physical deterioration. The way pain is perceived and its impact are completely individual. |
front 52 Mechanisms of pain include | back 52 Pressure, obstruction, stretching, tissue destruction and inflammation |
front 53 Other mechanisms of pain include | back 53 Effusions they are common: pleural, pericardial or peritoneal spaces are often the presenting sign of some tumours (lung cancer, breast cancer, lymphomas). They present with chest pain, SOB, cough. |
front 54 Priorities with regards to pain include | back 54 Control pain rapidly Continue to evaluate and prevent recurrence Combination therapies worK: traditional analgesics, novel agents Match to person psychological response Deal with depression and sleep disturbances |
front 55 Fatigue and sleep disturbances | back 55 is subjective (fatigue) Tired, Weak, lack of energy: consequence of cancer itself and treatment May be an early symptom of malignancy Cause is largely unknown, but probably mutifactorial: physiological, biochemical and psychological Suggested lack of ATP and buildup of metabolic products like lactic acid. Insomnia may be self-perpetuating: napping, going to bed earlier, getting out of bed later |
front 56 Paraneoplastic syndromes | back 56 symptom complexes that cannot be explained by the local aor distant spread of the tumour |
front 57 Some cancers cause paraneoplastic syndromes and | back 57 make substances that mimic bodies hormones or trigger an immune response |
front 58 (Paraneoplastic syndromes) Oat cell carcinoma releases Pancreatic cancer has Fibrosarcoma has | back 58 ADH like substance that causes fluid retention and SIADH and hyponatraemia ACTH like substance that causes Cushing syndrome insulin like substance that causes hypoglycaemia It is often the symptoms of these syndromes that leads to diagnosis of the cancer |
front 59 Cachexia | back 59 the most severe form of malnutrition. –Can lose 80% of adipose and skeletal muscle mass |
front 60 Signs and symptoms of cachexia | back 60 anorexia, early satiety, weight loss, taste alterations and altered metabolism. |
front 61 Early satiety is | back 61 a condition marked by feeling full after you have eaten a small amount of food, or before you finish a normal-sized meal. |
front 62 Cachexia is | back 62 More common in children and older adults, more pronounced as the disease progresses. They respond less well to chemotherapy, more prone to toxic side effects. |
front 63 Tumour markers are | back 63 substances produced by cancer cells or that are found on plasma cell membranes, in the blood, CSF or urine may be Hormones, Enzymes, Genes, Antigen. |
front 64 Tumour markers are used to: | back 64 –screen and identify individuals at high risk for cancer –diagnose specific types of tumours –observe clinical course of cancer |
front 65 Tumour cell markers have limitations: | back 65 Nearly all markers elevated in benign conditions Not usually elevated early in malignancy Limited value as screening tests Not specific enough to diagnose malignancy, but good for assessing response to therapy Extremely high levels indicate poor prognosis and possible more aggressive treatment Most markers decrease with treatment and increase with recurrence or spread of the tumour |
front 66 TNM staging is | back 66 Tissue, Nodes and Matastises |
front 67 T0 T1 T2 T3 | back 67 (With regards to breast tumour) Free of tumour Lesion less than 2cm Lesion 2 - 5cm Skin and or chest wall involved by invasion |
front 68 N0 N1 N2 | back 68 No axcillary nodes involved. Mobile nodes involved Fixed nodes involved. |
front 69 M0 M1 M2 | back 69 No metastases Demonstrable metastases Suspected metastases |
front 70 Stages of cancer include | back 70 Stage 1 - 4 |
front 71 Stage 1 cancer | back 71 cancer is confined to an organ or tissue of origin |
front 72 Stage 2 cancer | back 72 is locally invasive |
front 73 Stage 3 cancer | back 73 has spread to nearby structures such as lymph nodes |
front 74 Stage 4 cancer | back 74 has metastasized to distant parts of the body |
front 75 Diagnosis and evaluation of cancer involve | back 75 Tumour markers imaging techniques biopsy sentinel nodes Clinical staging (TNM system) |
front 76 Imaging techniques include | back 76 xray, CT scan, Pet and SPECT, Ultrasound, MRI, Digital mammography, virtual colonoscopy and sentinal node mapping for breast cancer staging. |
front 77 Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) | back 77 not just for screening for cervical cancer, but also body secretions, nipple drainage, anal washings, pleural or peritoneal fluid and gastic washings. |
front 78 Tissue biopsy | back 78 excisional, needle, bronchoscopy, endoscope, cystoscope and may involve a frozen section. |
front 79 Immunohistochemistry | back 79 use antibiodies to identify cancer source, especially metastitic tumours |
front 80 Syndrome associated with end stage malignancies | back 80 cachexia |
front 81 A type of tumour that is capable of secreting hormone like substances | back 81 paraneoplastic |
front 82 screening tool for breast cancer | back 82 mamogram |
front 83 term used to describe an increase in cell number | back 83 hyperplasia |
front 84 last stage of carcinogenesis | back 84 progression |
front 85 What are the stages of carcinogenesis | back 85 tumor initiation, tumor promotion, malignant conversion, and tumor progression |
front 86 Term used to describe distant spread of malignancy | back 86 metastasis |
front 87 normal cell death | back 87 apoptosis |
front 88 another term for tumour | back 88 neoplasm |
front 89 malignancy of connective tissue | back 89 sarcoma |
front 90 this causes cell injury and damage | back 90 hypoxia |
front 91 this type of neoplasm is usually encapsulated | back 91 benign |
front 92 cells that are pre neoplastic often appear this way | back 92 dysplasic |
front 93 Dysplasic / dysplasia | back 93 abnormal growth or development of cells, tissue, bone, or an organ |
front 94 Common complication of a malignancy | back 94 hypercalcaemia |
front 95 anaerobic pathogen know to cause gangren | back 95 clostridium |
front 96 term used to describe an increase in size of skeletal muscle cells | back 96 hypertorphy |
front 97 Term used to describe the process of a cell type changing its characteristics | back 97 Metaplasia |
front 98 Screening tool for cancer of cervix | back 98 Papanicolaou (pap smear) |
front 99 an activated oxygen species | back 99 superoxide |
front 100 these substances cause oncogenesis | back 100 carcinogenes |
front 101 aggressive type of skin cancer | back 101 melanoma |
front 102 term used to describe viruses capable of causing a malignancy | back 102 oncogenic |
front 103 this type of radiation damages cell structure and contents | back 103 ionising |
front 104 A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which of the following growth types could it be? | back 104 Neoplasm |
front 105 Which of the following is the most significant cause of complications and death in cancer patients? | back 105 Infection |
front 106 Human papillomavirus vaccines; | back 106 partially protect against cervical cancer |
front 107 Individuals with cancer are often at risk of infections because of | back 107 leucopenia |
front 108 A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. This cancer would be stage: | back 108 3 |
front 109 Oncogenes are: | back 109 Body cells are not immortal and can only divide a limited number of times. Telomeres are protective caps on each chromosome and are held in place by telomerase. Telomeres become smaller and smaller with each cell division. Cancer cells become immortal by repairing telomeres. |
front 110 Which of the following checkpoints determines that chromosomes are intact before allowing the cycle to proceed to mitosis? | back 110 G2/M |
front 111 The most important environmental risk factor for cancer is exposure to: | back 111 cigarette smoke |
front 112 A 25-year-old female develops a tumour of the breast glandular tissue. This type of tumour is classified as: | back 112 adenocarcinoma |
front 113 Which feature is characteristic of malignant tumour? | back 113 invades local tissues and structures |
front 114 A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. She reports a sexual history of numerous partners. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer? | back 114 human papilloma virus |
front 115 Genital warts; | back 115 is often an asymptomatic infection; are caused by papillomaviruses; are strongly linked with cervical carcinoma; |
front 116 Which of the following compounds has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with smoking? | back 116 Alcohol |
front 117 Common sites for metastasis of prostate cancer include | back 117 spine and liver |
front 118 Cell chromosomes are duplicated during the: | back 118 s phase |
front 119 Metastasis is: | back 119 the ability to establish a secondary neoplasm at a new site |
front 120 The best explanation for higher rates of cancer in older populations is: | back 120 the development of cancer requires several mutations over time |
front 121 Tumour cells can evade the immune system by: | back 121 changing their antigens over time; having antigens that are weak immunogens; secreting immunosuppressive substances; replicating very quickly; |
front 122 A 50-year-old female is suffering from anorexia, anemia, severe tissue wasting and weight loss. She was previously diagnosed with cancer. Which of the following describes her symptoms? | back 122 Cachexia |
front 123 Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer? | back 123 Painless lump |
front 124 In cancer, vascular endothelial growth factor stimulates; | back 124 angiogenesis. |
front 125 Physical activity was shown to reduce the risk of which of the following types of cancer? | back 125 Colon |
front 126 A 21-year-old female is infected with HPV following unprotected sexual intercourse with a male she recently met. She is now at higher risk of developing which of the following cancers? | back 126 Cervical |
front 127 A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass. He is diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following abnormal cells would be expected with this disease? | back 127 Reed-Sternberg cell |
front 128 Which of the following malignant skin lesions is the most serious? | back 128 malignant melanoma |
front 129 Which of the following is the most significant cause of complications and death in cancer patients? | back 129 infection. |
front 130 A 50-year-old male develops melanoma. One potential reason for development of this condition is: | back 130 exposure to UV radiation |
front 131 Which hormone promotes breast development during puberty? | back 131 oestrogen. |
front 132 A 62-year-old female tells her healthcare provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers? | back 132 Hodgkin’s lymphoma |
front 133 The most common childhood cancer is: | back 133 acute lymphoblastic leukaemia |
front 134 A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain. Testing reveals a peptic ulcer. Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is of concern for this patient? | back 134 gastric cancer |
front 135 Prostate cancer: | back 135 is the leading type of cancer in men. |
front 136 A 25-year-old female develops a tumour of the breast glandular tissue. This type of tumour is classified as: | back 136 adenocarcinoma |
front 137 A 60-year-old male with a 40-year history of smoking presents with chest pain, cough and an atypical Cushing’s syndrome. Tests reveal widespread metastatic cancer. Which of following is the most likely type of cancer? | back 137 small cell carcinoma |
front 138 Known causes of acute leukaemia include: | back 138 chemotherapy treatment for other cancers |
front 139 A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. She reports a sexual history of numerous partners. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer? | back 139 human papilloma virus |
front 140 Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) | back 140 Indicates colorectal cancer and / or breast cancer |
front 141 CA 15-3 | back 141 Indicates breast cancer |
front 142 Neuron specific enolase | back 142 Indicates lung cancer |
front 143 a fetoprotein (AFP) | back 143 Indicates Hepatic cancer |
front 144 CA 125 | back 144 Indicates ovarian cancer |
front 145 Common cancers include | back 145 Breast, prostate, colorectal, melanoma, lung, testicular, liver, cervical, childhood, leukaemia and lymphoma. |
front 146 What is the most common cancer in men | back 146 prostate cancer |
front 147 What is the most common cancer in women | back 147 breast cancer |
front 148 What is the breast structure | back 148 Fat, fibrous connective tissue and glandular tissue |
front 149 Factors affecting variations in shape of breasts | back 149 hormonal, genetic, nutritional, endocrine, muscle tone, age and pregnancy |
front 150 Risk factors of breast cancer | back 150 Sex, Age, history of breast cancer, hormonal influences, obesity, long term use of postmenopausal hormone therapy, alcohol, physical inactivity. Most women don't actually have any identifiable risk factors that have breast cancer. |
front 151 Examinations for detecting breast cancer | back 151 Mammography and self examination |
front 152 Most inherited forms of breast cancer are caused by | back 152 BRCA 1(chromosome 17) and BRCA2 (chromosome 13) |
front 153 BRCA1 is known as | back 153 a tumor suppressor gene but a mutation in BRCA1 has a lifetime risk of 60 - 85% chance of breast cancer or elevated chance of ovarian cancer |
front 154 Treatment options | back 154 Prophylactic surgery: bilateral mastectomy, bilateral oophrectomy or both Surveillance |
front 155 CM of breast cancer | back 155 painless lump bone pain retraction of breast tissue |
front 156 Treatment for breast cancer | back 156 Surgery Radiation Chemotherapy Hormonal drugs and other modulators |
front 157 Screening program mainly for | back 157 people over the age of 50 |
front 158 Average age for death of breast cancer is | back 158 68yrs |
front 159 Risk factors of prostate cancer | back 159 Age Family history increase intake of dietary fats decrease intake of fruit and vegetables Increased risk in african decents |
front 160 Prostate cancer is | back 160 typically slow growing cancer with alterations to urinary flow which occurs much later than BPH |
front 161 CM of prostate cancer | back 161 Urgency, frequency, nocturia, hestancy, haematuria, blood ejaculate. Weight loss, anaemia and SOB when metastatic, lower back pain or pathological #. DRE prostate feels hard and lumpy |
front 162 Treatment for prostate cancer | back 162 Expectant therapy (watchful waiting) Surgery Radiotherapy Hormone therapy with LH blocking drugs to reduce testosterone levels Orchiectomy Chemotherapy has limited effectiveness |
front 163 Two types of radiation therapy for prostate cancer | back 163 Brachytherapy - implantation of isotopes external beam therapy |
front 164 Risk factors of colorectal cancer | back 164 Advanced age over 50 Family history of cancer, crohns disease, ulcerative colitis and familial adenomatous polyposis Diet - high fat, high sugar, low fibre Refined diets lacking in Vit A, C and K |
front 165 What is being looked for when screening for colorectal cancer | back 165 stools with occult blood - aneamia is the CM that sends patient to seek investigations. |
front 166 CM of colorectal cancer | back 166 Bleeding Change in bowel habits (diarrhoea or constipation) Sense of urgency, incomplete emptying of bowel Pain - very late symptom |
front 167 Diagnosis for colorectal cancer | back 167 DRE, faecal occult blood test Barium enema and xray Sigmoidoscopy |
front 168 Treatment of bowel cancer / colorectal cancer | back 168 Surgery Radiation and chemotherapy |
front 169 Melanoma ABCDE rule | back 169 Asymmetry Borders irregular Colours different Diameter change in size Evolution |
front 170 Risk factors for melanoma | back 170 Fair skinned people (blond, red hair who sunburn and freckle easily) Family history of malignant melanoma Presence of marked freckling on upper back History of three or more blistering sunburns before 20 yrs of age Presence of actinic keratoses Lowest risk in asians and pacific islanders |
front 171 Treatment of melanoma | back 171 Excision, sentinel lymph node sampling Systemic adjuvant therapy |
front 172 Lung cancer risk factors | back 172 Smoking Asbestos especially if a smoker Family history if in presence of smoking as well |
front 173 CM for lung cancer | back 173 Chronic cough, SOB and wheezing Haemoptysis Chest pain when breathing Hoarseness, difficulty swallowing Pleural effusion, atelectasis and dysponea Paranoeplastic disorders |
front 174 Diagnosis and treatment of lung cancer | back 174 Xray, bronchoscipy, lung biopsy, lymph biopsy, CT, MRI,US or PET scan Surgery - Lovectomy, pneumonectomy, segmental Radiotherapy - main treatment or palliation of symptoms Chemotherapy - usually for metastases |
front 175 Two types of testicular cancer | back 175 Semionmas and non-seminomas |
front 176 Seminomas | back 176 from the seminiferous epithelium of the testes, most common |
front 177 Non-seminomas | back 177 usually contain mixed cells, teratomas or choriocarcinoma (highly malignant) |
front 178 CM of testicular cancer | back 178 Slightly enlarged testes without pain initially Daull heaviness in groin Abdominal, groin or testicular pain from haemorrhage of the tumour |
front 179 Testicular cancer is diagnosed by | back 179 physical exam Ultrasound, CT scan Tumour markers AFP, hCG and LDH |
front 180 Stage 1 of testicular cancer | back 180 Tumour confined to testes prognosis is often 5yrs survival 95% |
front 181 Stage 2 testicular cancer | back 181 Tumour spread to lymph nodes |
front 182 Stage 3 testicular cancer | back 182 Metastases to other organs, sperm banking should be considered |
front 183 Treatment for testicular cancer | back 183 Orchiectomy Radiotherapy for seminomas Chemotherapy for non-seminomas |
front 184 Liver cancers include | back 184 Hepatocellular carcinoma Cholangiocarcinoma Metastatic tumours |
front 185 Hepatocellular carcinoma | back 185 arises from the liver cells most common increased incidence related to Hep C infections |
front 186 Cholangiocarcinoma | back 186 Primary cancer of bile duct cells |
front 187 Metastatic tumours | back 187 more common than primary tumours |
front 188 CM for Hepatocellular cancer | back 188 weakness, anorexia, weight loss, fatigue Bloating, fullness Abdominal pain Ascites, often obscures weight loss Mild jaundice Increased in liver size |
front 189 Diagnosis of hepatocellular cancer | back 189 Often well advanced when diagnosed Ultrasound, CT Scan Liver biopsy Altered LFTs CM |
front 190 Treatment for hepatocellular cancer | back 190 Subtotal hepatectomy Palliative chemo and radiotherapy Transplant |
front 191 Liver cancer is usually | back 191 secondary to another cancer |
front 192 Ascites | back 192 accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. |
front 193 Cancer of the Cervix | back 193 Also known as Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), usually no CM |
front 194 Risk factors of cervical cancer | back 194 Smoking Human papiloma virus (HPV) |
front 195 Diagnosis of cervical cancer | back 195 Pap smear Colposcopy - biopsy Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia |
front 196 CIN1 | back 196 mild dysplasia |
front 197 CIN2 | back 197 moderate dysplasia |
front 198 CIN3 | back 198 Sever dysplasia - cancer insitu |
front 199 Treatment for cervical cancer | back 199 depends on extent from cone resection to hysterectomy |
front 200 Prevention of cervical cancer | back 200 Screening - pap smears HPV vaccination - Gardasil |
front 201 What is the most common childhood cancer | back 201 Leukaemia with Acute lymphoblastic leukeamia being the biggest (ALL_ |
front 202 Aetiology of childhood cancer | back 202 Unknown Genetics Radiation, chemicals, human T cell leukaemia virus Higher risk if twin with leukaemia |
front 203 Signs and symptoms of ALL | back 203 Febrile illness pallor bleeding (petechiae, purpura) bone pain anorexia respiratory distress testicular enlargement |
front 204 White blood cell cancers | back 204 Leukaemia Lymphoma |
front 205 Leukaemia comes from | back 205 bone marrow but spreads through blood and lymph nodes |
front 206 Lymphoma comes from | back 206 lymphatic tissue and spreads throughout the body throat, gut, epithelium. |
front 207 Different types of leukaemia | back 207 Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) Chronic lymphocytic (CLL) Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) |
front 208 What infections can predispose patient to leukemia | back 208 HIV, Hepatitis C and Malaria |
front 209 Manifestations leukaemia | back 209 presence of blast cell: immature and undifferentiated. bone marrow crowding and suppression reducing RBC (anaemia) Decrease platelets: thrombocytopenia (bleeding) Decrease neutrophils - leukopenia (increase infections) Bone erosion - causing pain Lymphadenopathy - spills and resides in lymph Splenomegaly - made its way to spleen Hepatomegaly - in liver Brain - causing neuro s&s Anorexia: weightloss and difficulty swallowing. |
front 210 Diagnosis of leukemia | back 210 blood and bone marrow |
front 211 Treatment for leukaemia | back 211 Chemotherapy treatment of choice various combinations with supportive measures blood transfusions antimicrobials, antivirals allopurinol decreases uric acid level from increase DNA breakdown CNS prophylaxis - prefer not to do chemo to brain Bone marrow or stem cell tranplantation |
front 212 Imatinib is | back 212 a tyrosine kinase inhibitor it has a good effect but not curative - reducing philadelphia chromosome in CML |
front 213 Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia | back 213 is the most common form of leukaemia in adults |
front 214 Stem cell transplants | back 214 taken from bone marrow, peripheral blood and umbilical blood (best) |
front 215 Donors of stem cells | back 215 Your own - autologous Sibling Unrelated (given by IV infusion) |
front 216 Main treatments for leukaemias | back 216 Chemotherapy and bone marrow transplantation exception Imatinib for CML as it has the tyrosine kinase inhibitor. |
front 217 Graft versus host doner | back 217 donors immune system attacks recipiend due to poor HLD matching my require immunosuppresent drugs. |
front 218 Lymphomas are | back 218 A diverse group of meoplams that develp from the proliferation of malignant lymphocytes in the lymphatic system (lymphoid tissue; nodes, sub mucosa lymphatic tissue) |
front 219 2 catergories of lymphoms | back 219 non hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) - originates from lymph tissue hodgkins lymphoma (HL) - originates from lymph nodes |
front 220 Non hodgkins lymphoma can be from what cells | back 220 B or T cells and classified depending on maturity (immature or mature) and site. Each lymphoma may also be describes as low-grade, aggressive or very aggressive. |
front 221 Slow growing (indolent) lymphomas signs and symptoms | back 221 painless usually disseminated (spread from lymph to bone marrow eventually transform into aggressive tumours |
front 222 More aggressive lymphomas signs and symptoms | back 222 fever, night sweats and weight loss increase risk of infections due to diminished antibody response high tumour growth increased susceptibility to chemotherapy |
front 223 Diagnosis of Non hodgkin lymphoma | back 223 Lymph biopsy Blood exam, marrow biopsy, CT MRI and bone scans to determine stage or spread of disease |
front 224 Treatment of NHL | back 224 Localised - radiation Disseminated disease (Combination radiation and chemotherapy) Monoclonal antibodies |
front 225 Hodgkin lymphoma | back 225 originates from lymph nodes which tend to be B cells they have a diagnositc cell called the Reed-Sternberg giant cell. |
front 226 HL generally occurs in | back 226 adulthood and commonly involved the cervical, axillary, inguinal and retroperitoneal lymph nodes. |
front 227 Treatment stage 1 HL | back 227 irradiated individual nodes |
front 228 Treatment stage 3 - 4 HL | back 228 Chemotherapy |
front 229 Concerns about radiation | back 229 has risk of developing leukaemia - if localised reduces risk. |
front 230 Surgery in relation to cancer is used for | back 230 Diagnosis Staging Curative Debulking Palliative |
front 231 Ionizing radiation | back 231 damages the cancer cells DNA and components of the microenviornment. |
front 232 Radiotherapy can be administered | back 232 Externally (Beam) or internally (brachytherapy) |
front 233 Radiation is used fro | back 233 primary or adjuvant therapy palliative to reduce symptoms Oncologic emergencies |
front 234 How does radiation work | back 234 Rapidly proliferating or poorly differentiated cells of cancerous tumours are more likely to be injured than are the more slowly proliferating cells of normal tissue. |
front 235 Administration of radiation | back 235 external beam (teletherapy) Brachytherapy (radioactive implant) may be sealed or unsealed Oral or radioisotopes or injected directly into tumour site Sterotactic radiotherapy Gamma knife surgery |
front 236 Adverse effects | back 236 Anorexia, nausea, emess and diarrhoea fatigue bone marrow suppression radiation burns to skin, alopecia pain and difficulty eating - poor nutrition Impotence, erectile dysfunction, vaginal dryness, discharge, dyspareunia, stenosis |
front 237 Radioresponsiveness | back 237 how a tumor responds to irradiation. The more hypoxic the tumour, the more resistent to radition that normal or well-oxygenated cells. Maintaining adequate oxygen delivery, haemoglobin levels are important from a nursing perspective. |
front 238 Radiosensitivity of the tumour | back 238 fast growing respond better than slow growing. |
front 239 Sterotactic radiotherapy is used | back 239 for brain tumours (narrow directed beams) |
front 240 Hormone therapy such as tamoxifen | back 240 blocks the receptor eg tamoxifen blocks oestrogen in Breast Ca |
front 241 Receptor agonist in hormone therapy | back 241 bind to receptor causing growth effects of the hormone, stimulates cancer cells to grow and become more vulnerable to chemotherapy |
front 242 Antiestrogens | back 242 block estrogen receptors (tamoxifen) only works on ER positive patients should not take fluoxetine, etc to suppress hotflushes because they are strong inhibitors of CYP2D6 which prevent tamoxifen activation. |
front 243 Amoratase inhibitor | back 243 block estrogen synthesis (Anastrozole) only works on ER positive breast Ca in postmenopausal patients |
front 244 Vesicant chemotherapeutic agents | back 244 Extravasation of this type of drug may result in the need for skin grafts. If an IV line used for a vesicant drug infiltrates, it must be discontinued immediately. This type of drug may not be infused at a site of previous irradiation Administered intravenously |
front 245 A 43-year-old patient with a strong family history of breast cancer considers taking tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for cancer prevention. Which assessment finding is a possible contraindication? | back 245 History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) |
front 246 A premenopausal woman has ER-positive breast cancer, and her prescriber has ordered tamoxifen. She asks the nurse if anastrozole would work better for her. What will the nurse tell her? | back 246 Until she is postmenopausal, anastrozole will not be effective. |
front 247 To be curative, chemotherapy must eradicate: | back 247 enough cancer cells so that the body’s own defenses can kill any remaining cells. |
front 248 A hospitalized patient with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and reports oral pain. Inspection of this patient’s oral mucosa reveals erythema and inflammation without denudation or ulceration. The nurse understands that; | back 248 the patient can use a mouthwash with a topical anesthetic to control pain |
front 249 A nurse is preparing to administer a second infusion of trastuzumab to a patient who has breast cancer. The patient tells the nurse that she experienced chills, fever, pain, and nausea after her first infusion. What will the nurse do? | back 249 Reassure the patient that these symptoms will diminish with each infusion |
front 250 The nurse wants to evaluate a nursing student’s understanding of chemotherapy. The nurse asks, “Which factor would be a major obstacle to successful chemotherapy?” What is the student’s best response? | back 250 The toxicity of anticancer drugs to normal tissues |
front 251 A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking oral cyclophosphamide to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding about how to minimize side effects while taking this drug? | back 251 I should drink plenty of fluids while taking this drug. |
front 252 A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about how cytotoxic anticancer drugs affect normal cells. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of this teaching? | back 252 Cytotoxic drugs lack tissue specificity. |
front 253 Gastrointestinal alterations, such as nausea and mucosal erosions, are common side effects of chemotherapy treatment because: | back 253 chemotherapy agents target rapidly dividing cells in the oral and intestinal linings |
front 254 A patient is receiving intravenous vincristine (Oncovin). The patient complains of pain at the IV insertion site. The nurse examines the site and notes an area of erythema and edema. What will the nurse do? | back 254 Change the IV site and notify the provider of the extravasation |
front 255 A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer and commenced on chemotherapy treatment. Which of the following would help to relieve some of the side effects? | back 255 antiemetics |
front 256 Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment is used: | back 256 after surgical removal of a tumour |
front 257 A nursing student asks the nurse what differentiates antiestrogen drugs from aromatase inhibitors in the treatment of breast cancer. What is the correct response by the nurse? | back 257 Antiestrogen drugs increase the risk for endometrial cancer. |
front 258 A patient with advanced cancer of the prostate begins treatment with leuprolide injections and will receive 7.5 mg IM once per month. After the first injection, the patient experiences an increase in cancer symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient? | back 258 Desensitization to the drug over time will result in a decrease in these symptoms. |
front 259 A patient with advanced prostate cancer will begin treatment with leuprolide. The provider has ordered flutamide to be given as adjunct therapy. The patient asks the nurse why both drugs are necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that: | back 259 flutamide suppresses initial tumor flare caused by leuprolide |
front 260 A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) begins treatment with imatinib. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication? | back 260 Resistance to this drug may develop over time |
front 261 A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy develops a fever. The patient’s chest radiograph is normal. The patient’s neutrophil count is less than 1 x 109/L. The nurse expects the provider to: | back 261 begin empiric therapy with intravenous antibiotics; |
front 262 The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to | back 262 suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors |
front 263 A nursing student asks about the differences between cell-cycle phase–specific chemotherapeutic agents and those that are cell-cycle phase nonspecific. What will the nurse explain? | back 263 Cell-cycle phase–specific drugs do not harm “resting” cells |
front 264 Corticosteroids can be used for | back 264 hodgkins lymphoma, malignant lymphoma, breast cancer, multiple myeloma |
front 265 Glucocorticoids | back 265 in high doses are toxic to lymphatic tissue, causing suppression of mitosis, regression or lymphatic tissue and cell death. they also suppress nausea and vomiting and reduce cerebral oedema, reduce pain, improve appetite and promote weight gain. |
front 266 Androgens are used | back 266 for breast cancer |
front 267 Estrogens are used for | back 267 breast cancer and prostate cancer |
front 268 Anti-estrogens are used for | back 268 endometrial cancer, breast cancer |
front 269 Anti-androgens are used for | back 269 prostate cancer |
front 270 Anti androgen such as Flutamide | back 270 Blocks effect of androgens, eg denying testosterone in prostate cancer |
front 271 Aromatase inhibiotors prevent | back 271 androgen conversion to estrogen (early breast cancer) |
front 272 Anti-angiogenesis drugs | back 272 Binds with vascular endothelial growth factor, released by many tumours to stimulate blood vessel growth. Eg. bevacizumab which suppresses formation of new blood vessels |
front 273 Imatinib suppresses | back 273 cell proliferation and promotes apoptosis. |
front 274 Chemotherapy is | back 274 a non-selective cytotoxic drug that target vital cellular machinery or metabolic pathways critical to both malignant and normal cell growth and replication. |
front 275 Goal of chemotherapy | back 275 to eliminate enough tumour cells so body's defences can eradicate any remaining cells. |
front 276 Compartment A of the cell cycle | back 276 (S Phase) cells rapidly divide best time to treat with chemotherapy. |
front 277 Compartment C | back 277 cells no longer divide |
front 278 Compartment B | back 278 cells resting phase G0 |
front 279 Combination chemotherapy | back 279 use of several agents, each has effect against a certain cancer. Avoids drug resistance associated with using just one drug. |
front 280 Dose intensity | back 280 the direct relationship between the dose of the chemotherapy and the rate of killing of tumour cells. A small may increase in dose may dramatically increase the killing power, but increasing toxicities need to be considered. |
front 281 Therapeutic index: | back 281 the relative effective dose needed to kill cancer cells as compared to the dose that would be harmful to normal cells. Is generally quite low and is one of the limiting factors in the escalation of chemotherapy use. |
front 282 Adjuvant chemotherapy | back 282 the term to describe the use of drugs after local treatment or surgery/removal of primary tumour. Chemotherapy good for this space, where a person has minimal cancer remaining but who are at high risk for metastasis. Prevents the growth of micrometastatic deposits that are not clinically detectable. |
front 283 Neoadjuvant chemotherapy | back 283 the early use of chemotherapy before definitive local control surgery or irradiation to decrease initial tumour size. |
front 284 As a rule, chemotherapeutic drugs are much more toxic to tissues that | back 284 have a high growth fraction than to tissues that have a low growth fraction, because most cytotoxic agents are more active against proliferating cells than against cells in G0. |
front 285 Solid tumours have a | back 285 low growth fraction and generally respond poorly to cytotoxic drugs. G0 cells do not perform the activities that most anticancer drugs are designed to disrupt. Because G0 cells are not active participants in the cell cycle, they have time to repair drug-induced damage before it can do them serious harm. |
front 286 Cell-cycle (non-specific) | back 286 Effective whether tumour cells are dividing or in dormant phase. Act to sterilize the cell, eg. alkylating agents (cyclophosphamide), anti-tumour antibiotics (doxorubicin). |
front 287 Cell-cycle (specific): | back 287 Must be administered at a time when tumour cells are proliferating, eg. vincristine causes mitotic arrest. |
front 288 Tissue-specific: | back 288 Deprive tissue tumours of a substance necessary for proliferation, eg. antimetabolites (methotrexate). |
front 289 Antibiotic type agents | back 289 bind to DNA to precent transcription from occuring |
front 290 Antimetabolite agents | back 290 cause misreading or fracture of DNA - Methotrexate useful in treating B cell CLL fever chills and secondary infections are all possible as adverse effects |
front 291 Mitotic inhibitors | back 291 act during the M phase to prevent cell divisions Vincristine is bone marrow sparing so ideal for lymphomas, ALL, Kaposis sarcoma, breast cancer and bladder cancer can cause peripheral neuropathy, constipation, urinary hesitancy, vesicant extravasation, alopecia |
front 292 Tyrosine kinase inhibitors | back 292 Imatinib interferes with gene transcription into mRNA Used for CML Stops proliferation and kills cell causes GI disterbances, fluid retention and fatigue |
front 293 Specific cytotoxic drugs for breast cancer | back 293 Doxorubicin - anti cancer antibiotic Cyclophosphamide - alkylating agent Paclitaxel - mitotic inhibitor Can be used prior to surgery to reduce the tumour size to do a lumpectomy rather than mastectomy Can be used following surgery to help kill residual cells at the primary and distant sites. |
front 294 Stomatitis is | back 294 oral ulces |
front 295 What is the problem with bone marrow suppression with WBC | back 295 neutropenia |
front 296 What is the problem with bone marrow suppression with RBC | back 296 Anaemia |
front 297 What is the problem with bone marrow suppression with platelets | back 297 Thrombocytopenia |
front 298 small cell lung cancer | back 298 is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that is aggressive, prone to early metastasis and frequently associated with paraneoplastic disorders such as a syndrome of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production which causes Cushing's syndrome. |