front 1 What is chemically defined and give an example. | back 1 media is composed of exact amounts of chemically pure, specifically identified organic or inorganic components. -glucose salt broth -inorganic synthetic broth |
front 2 What is complex media and give an example. | back 2 composed of organic materials that are not chemically pure and not specifically identified chemical components -nutrient broth/agar -tryptic soy broth/agar -blood agar |
front 3 What is enriched media and give an example. Why is it necessary for growing fastidious bacteria? | back 3 -composed of general purpose media that has something added to help fastidious bacteria (those that require specific nutrients in order to grow, "picky eaters") to grow better -blood agar, nutrient broth with yeast extract |
front 4 What is the relationship between the amount of bacteria in a culture and the absorbance? | back 4 -directly related -as the amount of bacteria increases, the amount of turbidity increases, therefore the absorbance is increased. |
front 5 What is the relationship between the amount of bacteria in a culture and the transmittance? | back 5 -indirectly related -100% transmittance would be your reading with zero cells |
front 6 Would heterotrophic organisms grow well in inorganic salt media? Why or why not? | back 6 -heterotrophic organisms require organic compound for their energy and carbon source. -without any organic molecules in the media, the bacteria will have nothing for energy or carbon. -the bacteria will not grow in this media |
front 7 Why is complex media generally used to cultivate microorganisms? | back 7 -it has lots of nutrients which would be required for the growth of most microorganisms. -for most microbes, this is enough for growth |
front 8 Describe the minimum, optimal and maximum growth temperatures. | back 8 minimal-the lowest temperature at which a bacterial population can survive optimal-the temperature at which bacteria thrive (greatest rate of metabolism and reproduction) maximum-the highest temperature at which a bacterial population can survive |
front 9 list the temperature range for Psychrophiles | back 9 0oC - 15oC (with a range of -15o C - 20oC) |
front 10 List the temperature range for Mesophiles | back 10 20oC - 40oC (with a range of 10oC - 50oC) |
front 11 List the temperature range for thermophiles | back 11 45oC - 80oC (with a range of 45oC - 80oC) |
front 12 List the temperature range for hyperthermophiles | back 12 80oC and up |
front 13 Differentiate between aerobes, anaerobes, facultatives and microaerophiles | back 13 obligate aerobes-have the ability to live in oxygen and require oxygen for metabolism obligate anaerobes-are not able to live in oxygen and do not require oxygen for metabolism facultative-have to preference, growth is seen in both aerobic and anaerobic environments microaerophiles-can grow in oxygen, but only require a small amount for metabolism |
front 14 Describe how the anaerobic chamber achieves an anaerobic environment. | back 14 anaerobic chambers take oxygen out of the air, combine it with hydrogen, and produce water |
front 15 Describe the indicator that an anaerobic environment is present | back 15 condensation on the inside of the container |
front 16 What is fermentation? | back 16 anaerobic metabolism in which organic molecules are the end electron receptor |
front 17 What is being distinguished in the carbohydrate fermentation test? | back 17 Whether the bacteria ferment this sugar to an acid, or an acid and a gas |
front 18 What is the indicator used in the carbohydrate fermentation test? | back 18 phenol red indicator -yellow when acidic and hot pink when basic |
front 19 What is the appearance of a positive result for a carbohydrate fermentation to an acid? To a gas? | back 19 -yellow -a bubble is present in the durham tube |
front 20 What is the appearance of a negative result for carbohydrate fermentation to an acid? To a gas? | back 20 -red -no bubble in the durham tube |
front 21 What sugar is in the MR-VP broth? | back 21 glucose |
front 22 What is being distinguished in the MR and VP test? | back 22 MR-fermentation results in mixed acids VP-glucose fermentation results in acetoin production |
front 23 What reagents are used in the MR and VP test? | back 23 MR-Methyl Red Indicator VP-alpha naphthol, 40% potassium hydroxide |
front 24 What is the appearance of a positive result for the MR and VP tests: | back 24 both are red |
front 25 What is the appearance of a negative result for the MR and VP tests | back 25 both are coppery or have no color change |
front 26 Explain why you would expect no growth on the LB/amp/-DNA plate | back 26 the bacteria is sensitive to ampicillin and ampicillin is present in the media |
front 27 Explain why you would expect isolated colonies to grow on the LB/amp/+DNA plate. | back 27 -not all bacteria obtained the plasmid containing the ampicillin resistant gene, therefore you get isolated colonies instead of a lawn of growth |
front 28 Explain the purpose of the arabinose on the LB/amp/ara/+DNA plate | back 28 Arabinose is a sugar that acts as an inducer to the gfp gene. When arabinose is present it removes the inhibitor from the section of the plasmid containing the gfp gene and allows transcription and translation to take place. The gfp gene produces the green fluorescent protein and causes colonies of bacteria to have a green fluorescent glow when exposed to UV light |
front 29 Explain why you would expect a lawn of growth on the LB/-DNA plate | back 29 There is no ampicillin present in the media to inhibit the growth of the bacteria on the plate |
front 30 What is selective media? | back 30 media that prevent the growth of one type of bacteria so that only one kind of bacteria grows on the plate |
front 31 What is differential media? | back 31 media that differentiates one kind of bacteria from another by a color change |
front 32 Can a media be both selective and differential? | back 32 yes |
front 33 BAP plate | back 33 -enriched with 5% sheep's blood -differential for type of hemolysis |
front 34 MSA plate | back 34 -selective with 7.5% salt for salt tolerant bacteria (gram +) -differential for mannitol fermentation -indicator is Phenol Red -pH <7 is yellow |
front 35 EMB plate | back 35 -selective with Eosin and Methylene Blue for Gram- bacteria -differential for lactose fermentation -indicator is Eosin and Methylene Blue -lots of acid accumulated=green metallic sheen |
front 36 MAC plate | back 36 -selective with bile salts and crystal violet for Gram- bacteria -differential for lactose fermentation -indicator is neutral red -pH <7 is pink precipitate |
front 37 PEA plate | back 37 -selective with phenylethanol tolerance for gram+ bacteria |
front 38 Starch hydrolysis (amylase) | back 38 -if starch is hydrolyzed by amylase (produced by bacteria), then no starch will be present around the bacteria -reagent: iodine will detect starch in the media by producing a blue/black precipitate -positive for starch hydrolysis: clear zone around the bacteria |
front 39 Catalase | back 39 -catalase (enzyme) breaks down hydrogen peroxide (substrate) into water and oxygen -oxygen bubbles: effervescence is a positive result for catalase production |
front 40 Phenylalanine Deaminase | back 40 Phenylalanine deaminase (enzyme) will work on phenylalanine by removing the amine group to produce phenylpyruvic acid and ammonia -Reagent: ferric chloride combined with phenylpyruvic acid to produce a green color = a positive for phenylalanine deaminase enzyme |
front 41 SIM: Hydrogen Sulfide (Sulfur) | back 41 -amino acids that are metabolized, theosulfates, sulfates and sulfites are reduced by the bacteria to produce hydrogen sulfide -presence is a black precipitate in medium = positive result for H2S production |
front 42 SIM: Indole | back 42 - Tryptophanase is the enzyme that hydrolyzes Tryptophan. Indole is a product of Tryptophan hydrolysis. -Reagent: Kovac’s reagent - Dark pink color = positive for Indole production |
front 43 SIM: Motility | back 43 -medium is semi-solid and allows the bacteria to move throughout the medium if it is motile. -Motile bacteria will make the entire medium look cloudy or opaque. |
front 44 Urease | back 44 -Urease (enzyme) breaks down urea (substrate) producing ammonia. -Indicator: phenol red; -Positive for urease production = hot pink |
front 45 Simmon's Citrate | back 45 -Tests for the ability of the bacteria to utilize the citrate in the media as the sole source of carbon with the citrase enzyme. -Bacteria that do this then use the ammonium hydroxide and ammonium phosphate as a sole source of nitrogen. When they break down the ammonium phosphate and ammonium hydroxide, they release ammonia. This raises the pH to produce a basic environment. -Bromthymol blue in the medium is the indicator which will turn Prussian blue (KU blue) when it is basic and yellow when it is acidic. So a positive result for Citrate Utilization = Prussian blue (KU blue) color. A Negative result for Citrate Utilization = forest green color (no change in the color) |
front 46 Define transient microbiota | back 46
This is the bacteria that have been picked up throughout the
day as we are exposed to them. They have not (yet)
colonized the body and if pathogens, have not breached the
|
front 47 Define normal microbiota | back 47 Normal microbiota are bacteria that have colonized the body (not just the skin). They are normally commensals which do not harm us, or mutualists which help us while they help themselves |
front 48 Name 4 locations where normal microbiota is present on the host | back 48 -Skin -Upper Respiratory Tract -Lower Respiratory Tract -Digestive Tract (Oral Cavity, Large Intestine and Rectum) -Urinary Tract (External Urethra) -Genital Tract (Vagina). |
front 49 Describe the ecological relationship between most normal microbiota and the host | back 49 Most are commensals (win/null (no affect) or have a mutualism (win/win) relationship. Some can be pathogenic, if given the opportunity (opportunistic pathogens). |
front 50 Explain how normal microbiota can sometimes be an opportunistic pathogen | back 50 If microbiota crosses physical barriers into normally sterile compartments of the body, or if the host is immuncompromised, the microbe can cause disease |
front 51 Use "texture" to describe a colony on a plate. | back 51 can be smooth, rough, shiny and/or dull |
front 52 Use "shapes" to describe a colony on a plate: | back 52 -punctiform: a pin point small colony -circular -filamentous: fuzzy or thin extensions coming from the center -irregular -rhizoid: root-like extensions come from the center -spindle: football shaped |
front 53 Use "elevation" to describe a colony on a plate | back 53 -flat -raised -convex -pulvinate: like a water droplet on a surface -umbonate: raised area in the center |
front 54 Use "margin" to describe a colony on a plate | back 54 -even: entire, smooth regular edge -undulate: wavy -filamentous: thin filaments from the center -lobulate: lobular extensions from center -erose: serrated, like a blade -curled: similar to a bullseye target |
front 55 antiseptic | back 55 a chemical used to control microbes on an animate surface |
front 56 disinfectant | back 56 chemicals used to control microbes on an inanimate surface |
front 57 Give examples of antiseptics | back 57 -hydrogen peroxide -alcohol -iodine |
front 58 Give examples of disinfectants | back 58 -lysol |
front 59 What are the factors that affect the efficiency of the disinfectants and antiseptics? | back 59
|
front 60 What does the zone of inhibition indicate about the bacteria's relationship to the chemical? | back 60 -the zone of inhibition is related to the sensitivity or resistance of the bacteria to an antibiotic -the larger the zone, the more effective the antibiotic |
front 61 Define antibiotic | back 61 a chemical produced by certain species of bacteria and fungi for the purpose of competing better with their competition. The term traditionally refers to the naturally acquired chemotherapeutic agents. However, so many of the naturally occurring antibiotics have been chemically changed in the laboratory that most of the antibiotics are truly “semi-synthetic” and not true antibiotics |
front 62 Define chemotherapeutic | back 62 a general term that describes any chemical that can be used in the treatment or prevention of disease (it thus includes cancer chemotherapeutic agents as well as infectious disease chemotherapeutic agents). |
front 63 What is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) and how is it determined? | back 63 -the most dilute concentration of antibiotics that are still able to kill microbes. -Two methods are used – the MIC test uses several tubes of serially diluted antibiotics (1:2, 1:4, 1:8, etc…), the same concentration/amount of bacteria is added to each tube and incubated. The MIC is then determined by looking at the most dilute solution that is still effective against the bacteria (no growth in the tube). -The second method is the E-Test in which strips with increasing dilutions of the antibiotic on the back side of the strip are placed on an inoculated plate. Wherever the zone of inhibition crosses the strip, that indicates the MIC. |
front 64 What conditions must be controlled to make the MIC test repeatable and accurate? | back 64
|
front 65 What are the modes of action for the antibiotics used in our lab. | back 65 -azithromycin: 50S protein synthesis -PCN: cell wall -ciprofloxacin: nucleic acid-DNA -sulfamethoxazole X trimethroprim: folic acid metabolism -tetracycline: 30S protein synthesis |
front 66 Name the 5 genera of Enterobacteriaciae bacteria tested for in this unknown lab. Why are biochemical tests required to identify bacteria? | back 66
The bacteria all are gram negative rods and without biochemical tests, they are difficult to distinguish. |
front 67 Why are biochemical tests required to identify the genus of these bacteria? | back 67 The biochemical tests indicate a set of unique characteristics |
front 68 How are fermentation tests used to identify bacteria? | back 68 The results of fermentation are unique to each genus and can help identify the microbe |
front 69 What are the five I’s of the microbiology lab and how were they used in this lab? | back 69
|
front 70 What does ELISA mean? | back 70 Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay |
front 71 Why is it better to have and Enzyme-linked antibody rather than Substrate-linked antibodies in this test? | back 71 Enzymes are recycled and only one enzyme linked antibody would be enough to create a visible change in the well to indicate an antigen/antibody reaction had occurred. If only one Substrate-linked antibody was present, that would not be adequate to be able to create a visible change |
front 72 Where did the primary antibody come from in an indirect ELISA test? | back 72 patient's serum (if present) |
front 73 Why should the secondary antibody stick to the primary antibody in an indirect ELISA test? | back 73 It is an anti-IgG antibody and will attach to any antibodies still in the well. |
front 74 Why is it necessary to switch tips or pipettes when removing serum from the wells of different rows (between patients’ serum or between different dilutions). | back 74 To prevent any false positives from mixing of patients’ serum. |
front 75 Why is it necessary to wash between each step? | back 75 This is to wash away any antibodies or antigens that did not stick to the wells or to the known antibodies/antigens. |
front 76 What type of diagnostic test is the Bactistaph Test? | back 76 Passive Agglutinations |
front 77 What is the Bactistaph test testing for to identify Staph bacteria? | back 77 Protein A is a part of the Coagulase enzyme that helps determine if the bacteria is Staphylococcus aureus or not. |
front 78 What type of diagnostic test is the Group A Strep Test? | back 78 It is a type of Direct ELISA test (Sandwich Capture). |
front 79 How are Streptococcus bacteria classified? | back 79 The two main ways that they can be classified are their Lancefield group of Carbohydrate Chain (Group A, B, C, etc….), or by Hemolysis (Beta hemolytic, Alpha hemolytic). |