1) A necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a marine sea star that died after it was mistakenly placed in fresh water would likely show that it died because
A) it was stressed and needed more time to acclimate to the new conditions.
B) it was so hyperosmotic to the fresh water that it could not osmoregulate.
C) the sea star's kidneys could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the fresh water.
D) its contractile vacuoles ruptured.
E) its cells dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize.

B

2) Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely
A) found in freshwater lakes and streams.
B) marine.
C) amphibious.
D) found in arid terrestrial environments.
E) found in terrestrial environments with adequate moisture.

B

3) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment.
A) hyperosmotic; freshwater
B) isotonic; freshwater
C) hyperosmotic; saltwater
D) isoosmotic; saltwater
E) hypoosmotic; saltwater

D

4) Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are
A) hyperosmotic.
B) hypoosmotic.
C) isoosmotic.
D) hyperosmotic and isoosmotic.
E) hypoosmotic and isoosmotic.

C

7) Osmoconforming sharks take in water, as needed,
A) by migrating to freshwater rivers to drink fresh water.
B) via osmosis, as their body cells are slightly hyperosmotic to seawater.
C) via active transport of water across the cells on their gills.
D) by water diffusion from seawater, which is hyperosmotic to the fluids in their cells.
E) by selective transport of water molecules across the wall of the gut.

B

10) Unlike most bony fishes, sharks maintain body fluids that are isoosmotic to seawater, so they are considered by many to be osmoconformers. Nonetheless, these sharks osmoregulate at least partially by
A) using their gills and kidneys to rid themselves of sea salts.
B) monitoring dehydration at the cellular level with special gated aquaporins.
C) tolerating high urea concentrations that balance internal salt concentrations to seawater osmolarity.
D) synthesizing trimethylamine oxide, a chemical that binds and precipitates salts inside cells.
E) possessing a special adaptation that allows their cells to operate at an extraordinarily high salt concentration

C

12) Urea is produced in the
A) liver from NH₃ and CO₂.
B) liver from glycogen.
C) kidneys from glucose.
D) kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids.
E) bladder from uric acid and H₂O.

A

13) Urea is
A) insoluble in water.
B) more toxic to human cells than ammonia.
C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans.
D) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds.
E) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates

C

14) Which nitrogenous waste has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?
A) ammonia
B) ammonium ions
C) urea
D) uric acid

D

15) Ammonia is likely to be the primary nitrogenous waste in living conditions that include
A) lots of fresh water flowing across the gills of a fish.
B) lots of seawater, such as a bird living in a marine environment.
C) lots of seawater, such as a marine mammal (e.g., a polar bear).
D) a terrestrial environment, such as that supporting crickets.
E) a moist system of burrows, such as those of naked mole rats.

A

16) Among vertebrate animals, urea
A) is made in the kidneys and immediately excreted.
B) is added to the air in the lungs to be exhaled, along with carbon dioxide.
C) is made in the liver by combining two ammonia molecules with one carbon dioxide.
D) is made in the pancreas and added to the intestinal contents, along with bile salts, for excretion.
E) is rarely the nitrogenous waste of choice.

C

17) The nitrogenous waste that requires the most energy to produce is
A) ammonia.
B) ammonium.
C) urea.
D) uric acid.

D

18) Excessive formation of uric acid crystals in humans leads to
A) a condition called diabetes, where excessive urine formation occurs.
B) a condition of insatiable thirst and excessive urine formation.
C) gout, a painful inflammatory disease that primarily affects the joints.
D) the absence of urea in the urine.
E) osteoarthritis, an inevitable consequence of aging.

C

20) The advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that
A) urea can be exchanged for Na+.
B) urea is less toxic than ammonia.
C) urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia.
D) urea does not affect the osmolar gradient.
E) less nitrogen is removed from the body.

B

27) Excretory structures known as protonephridia are present in
A) flatworms.
B) earthworms.
C) insects.
D) vertebrates.
E) cnidarians.

A

28) Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in
A) earthworms.
B) flatworms.
C) insects.
D) jellyfish.
E) sea stars.

C

28) Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in
A) earthworms.
B) flatworms.
C) insects.
D) jellyfish.
E) sea stars.

C

32) The osmoregulatory/excretory system of an earthworm is based on the operation of
A) protonephridia.
B) metanephridia.
C) Malpighian tubules.
D) nephrons.
E) ananephredia.

B

33) The osmoregulatory/excretory system of an insect is based on the operation of
A) protonephridia.
B) metanephridia.
C) Malpighian tubules.
D) nephrons.
E) ananephredia.

C

34) Which of the following pairs of organisms excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid?
A) mice and birds
B) insects and birds
C) lions and horses
D) humans and frogs
E) fish and turtles

B

47) If ATP production in a human kidney was suddenly halted, urine production would
A) come to a complete halt.
B) decrease, and the urine would be hypoosmotic compared to plasma.
C) increase, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma.
D) increase, and the urine would be hyperosmotic compared to plasma.
E) decrease, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma.

C

64) Unlike an earthworm's metanephridia, a mammalian nephron
A) is intimately associated with a capillary network.
B) forms urine by changing fluid composition inside a tubule.
C) functions in both osmoregulation and excretion.
D) receives filtrate from blood instead of coelomic fluid.
E) has a transport epithelium.

D

69) African lungfish, which are often found in small stagnant pools of fresh water, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this adaptation?
A) Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia.
B) Small stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.
C) The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors.
D) Urea forms an insoluble precipitate.
E) Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool.

B

8) Palm trees and subtropical plants are commonplace in Land's End, England, whose latitude is the equivalent of Labrador in coastal Canada where the local flora is subarctic. Which statement best explains why this apparent anomaly exists between North America and Europe?
A) Labrador does not get enough rainfall to support the subtropical flora found in Land's End.
B) Warm ocean currents interact with England, whereas cold ocean currents interact with Labrador.
C) Rainfall fluctuates greatly in England; rainfall is consistently high in Labrador.
D) Labrador is too windy to support tall plants, such as palm trees.
E) Labrador receives sunlight of lower duration and intensity than does Land's End.

B

12) Deserts typically occur in a band at 20 degrees north and south latitude because
A) descending air masses tend to be cool and dry.
B) trade winds have a little moisture.
C) moisture-laden air is heavier than dry air and is not carried to these latitudes.
D) ascending air tends to be moist.
E) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth.

A

17) The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by
A) whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores.
B) their tolerance to shade.
C) their seed dispersal rate.
D) their size.
E) their growth rate.

C

18) As climate changes because of global warming, species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward, using effective reproductive adaptations to disperse their seeds. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that
A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals.
B) have thin seed coats.
C) produce well-provisioned seeds.
D) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire.
E) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree.

A

19) Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by
A) rising, warm, moist air masses that cool and release precipitation as they rise and then, at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics.
B) air masses that are dried and heated over continental areas that rise, cool aloft, and descend over oceanic areas followed by a return flow of moist air from ocean to land, delivering high amounts of precipitation to coastal areas.
C) polar, cool, moist high-pressure air masses from the poles that move along the surface, releasing precipitation along the way to the equator where they are heated and dried.
D) the revolution of Earth around the sun.
E) mountain ranges that deflect air masses containing variable amounts of moisture.

A

21) If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take the place of the coniferous forest (taiga)?
A) tundra and polar ice
B) temperate broadleaf forest and grassland
C) desert and chaparral
D) tropical forest and savanna
E) chaparral and temperate broadleaf forest

B

22) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities?
A) precipitation, wind
B) nutrient availability, soil pH
C) predation, competition
D) temperature, water
E) light intensity, seasonality

C

27) What is the limiting factor for the growth of trees in the tundra?
A) low precipitation
B) cold temperatures
C) insufficient minerals in bedrock
D) pH of soils
E) permafrost

E

35) Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true?
A) The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next "frontier" for feeding humanity.
B) Because it is so immense, the pelagic ocean biome is globally uniform.
C) Globally, more photosynthesis occurs in the ocean neritic biome than in the pelagic biome.
D) Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome.
E) The most abundant animals are vertebrate fishes.

D

40) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?
A) Average annual temperature and precipitation are sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area.
B) Seasonal fluctuation of temperature is not a limiting factor in biome distribution if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means.
C) Not only is the average climate important in determining biome distribution but so is the pattern of climatic variation.
D) Temperate forests and grasslands are different biomes because they receive a different quality and quantity of sunlight, even though they have essentially the same annual temperature and precipitation.
E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns.

C

41) In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others?
A) the species of colonizing animals
B) prevailing temperature
C) prevailing rainfall
D) mineral nutrient availability
E) soil structure

A

42) Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of
A) parallel evolution.
B) convergent evolution.
C) allopatric speciation.
D) introgression.
E) gene flow.

B

43) In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both parts dependent upon periodic burning?
A) tundra and coniferous forest
B) chaparral and savanna
C) desert and savanna
D) tropical forest and temperate broadleaf forest
E) grassland and tundra

B

47) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes?
A) savanna
B) temperate broadleaf forest
C) temperate grassland
D) tropical rain forest
E) coniferous forest

E

48) Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of
A) insufficient annual precipitation.
B) acidic soils.
C) extreme winter temperatures.
D) overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou.
E) permafrost.

E

67) Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
A) savanna–low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year
B) tundra–long summers, mild winters
C) temperate broadleaf forest–relatively short growing season, mild winters
D) temperate grasslands–relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer
E) tropical forests–nearly constant day length and temperature

E

68) Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?
A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm
B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns
C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes
D) vegetation demonstrating vertical layering
E) cold winter months

D

69) The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except
A) producing a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen.
B) removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
C) moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes.
D) regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater.
E) being the source of most of Earth's rainfall.

D

71) When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes
A) in biomes at different latitudes.
B) at different depths in the ocean.
C) in a community through different seasons.
D) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time.
E) across the United States from east to west.

A

72) Suppose that the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species?
A) tropical rain forest
B) savanna
C) desert
D) temperate broadleaf forest
E) temperate grassland

A

1) Population ecologists are primarily interested in
A) studying interactions among populations of organisms that inhabit the same area.
B) understanding how biotic and abiotic factors influence the density, distribution, size, and age structure of populations.
C) how humans affect the size of wild populations of organisms.
D) how populations evolve as natural selection acts on heritable variations among individuals and changes in gene frequency.
E) the overall vitality of a population of organisms.

B

2) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?

I. inhabiting the same general area
II. belonging to the same species
III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion

A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
E) I, II, and III

C

3) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
A) density
B) dispersion
C) carrying capacity
D) cohorts
E) range

A

6) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?
A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories
B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams
C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree
D) moths, in a city at night
E) lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen

A

11) Which of the following sets of measurements is the most useful when studying populations?
A) density, dispersion, and demographics of a population
B) gene frequency over time and the ratio of reproductive to nonreproductive individuals
C) annual precipitation averages and mean annual temperatures
D) minimum and maximum amounts of precipitation and annual temperature extremes
E) ratio of predators and the number of immigrants and emigrants

A

19) Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt =

A. SEE IMAGE
B. SEE IMAGE
C. SEE IMAGE
D. SEE IMAGE
E. SEE IMAGE

B

21) Which of the following is the equation for zero population growth (ZPG)?
A) R = b - m
B) dN/dt = rN
C) dN/dt =rmax N (K -N)/K
D) dN/dt =rmax N
E) dN/dt = 1.0N

A

28) The Allee effect is used to describe a population that
A) has become so small that it will have difficulty surviving and reproducing.
B) has become so large that it will have difficulty surviving and reproducing.
C) is viable and stable at its carrying capacity.
D) has exceeded its carrying capacity.
E) is in crash decline.

A

29) Carrying capacity is
A) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean.
B) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support.
C) fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time.
D) determined by density and dispersion data.
E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources.

B

41) Which of the following is most likely to contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations?
A) the removal of toxic waste by decomposers
B) intraspecific competition for nutrients
C) earthquakes
D) floods
E) fires

B

42) Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity?
A) Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
B) Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
C) Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations.
D) Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur.
E) The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase.

A

45) Which of the following could be a density-independent factor limiting human population growth?
A) social pressure for birth control
B) earthquakes
C) plagues
D) famines
E) pollution

B

48) Which of the following is most key to understanding the demographic transition in human population growth?
A) education of global famine
B) improved worldwide health care
C) voluntary reduction of family size
D) improved sanitary conditions in the world's hospitals
E) reduction of casualties of war

C

50) Which statement is true with regard to human population growth?
A) It is at a zero reproduction rate.
B) Its rate of increase continues to grow at an exponential rate.
C) Its rate of growth is slowing.
D) Its rate of growth is increasing.
E) There is no scientific prediction that can be made about human population growth.

C

57) Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that has grown to reach a static carrying capacity?

E

70) Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to
A) determine a population's carrying capacity.
B) determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population.
C) determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes.
D) determine the factors that regulate the size of a population.
E) determine if a population's growth is cyclic.

B

71) A population's carrying capacity
A) may change as environmental conditions change.
B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model.
C) generally remains constant over time.
D) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases.
E) can never be exceeded.

A