front 1 What are Antigens? | back 1 Molecules that stimulate a response by T and B cells |
front 2 What are the two features that characterize specific immunity? | back 2 Specificity - antibodies produced and function only against the antigen they were produced in response to Memory - lymphocytes are programmed to "recall" their first encounter with an antigen |
front 3 What are the major functions of receptors | back 3 1. to perceive and attach to "nonself" or foreign molecules 2. to promote the recognition of self-molecules 3. to receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system 4. to aid in cellular development |
front 4 What is the Major Histocompatibility Complex? | back 4 on all cells but RBCs, play a role in recognition of self and rejection of foreign tissue |
front 5 What are Class I Major Histocompatibility Complex genes responsible for? | back 5 markers that display unique characteristics of self molecules and regulation of immune reactions (required for T lymphocytes) |
front 6 What are Class II Major Histocompatibility Complex genes responsible for? | back 6 regulatory receptors found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells (involved in presenting antigen to T-cells). |
front 7 B-cell receptors | back 7 bind free antigens |
front 8 T-cell receptors | back 8 bind processed antigens together with the MHC molecules on the cells that present antigens to them |
front 9 What are the 2 types of T-cells | back 9 Helper T-cells- stimulate B-cells to make antibodies and help killer cells develop Killer T-cells- directly kill cells that have already been infected by pathogen |
front 10 What is Opsonization? | back 10 process of coating microorganisms or other particles with specific antibodies so they are more readily recognized by phagocytes |
front 11 What is Neutralization? | back 11 Abs fill the surface receptors on a virus or the active site on a microbial enzyme to prevent it from attaching. |
front 12 What are the 5 classes of immunoglobulins? GAMDE | back 12 IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE |
front 13 What are Presumptive results | back 13 based on reasonable clinical signs, informed guess |
front 14 What are Confirmatory results | back 14 tests, confirms the presence of microbes |
front 15 What are PCR products called? | back 15 Amplicons |
front 16 What is Serology? | back 16 in vitro (in artificial environment) testing of serum visible reactions include precipitates, color changes, or the release of radioactivity |
front 17 What is Sensitivity | back 17 true positive rate high sensitivity test has low false positive rate |
front 18 What is Specificity | back 18 true negative rate high specificity test has low false negative rate |
front 19 Agglutination testing | back 19 antibodies cross link whole cell antigens, forming complexes that settle out and dorm large visible clumps (you can see them with your naked eye). USES WHOLE ANTIGEN |
front 20 What is the Widal test used for? | back 20 presumptive diagnosis of salmonellosis and undulant fever (Brucellosis) |
front 21 What is an epitope | back 21 antigenic determinant |
front 22 Precipitation testing | back 22 soluble antigen is made insoluble by an antibody |
front 23 Can PCR tell you if a virus is dead or alive? | back 23 No, PCR only detects nucleotides and cannot tell if a virus is dead or alive or if a person is sick or recovering |
front 24 Western Blot | back 24 highly specific and sensitive electrophoresis and immunoassay, 2nd HIV determinate test, good to determine active infections |
front 25 What does ELISA stand for? | back 25 Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay |
front 26 What are 7 ways to test viral infections? | back 26 1. Signs and Symptoms 2. Cells are taken and examined (fluorescent staining) 3. Electron Microscopy 4. Serological testing 5. PCR 6. Culture techniques 7. ELISA method |
front 27 What does PPD stand for? | back 27 purified protein derivative |
front 28 What are the 2 major species of Staphylococcus? | back 28 S. aureus S. epidermidis |
front 29 What does MRSA stand for? | back 29 Methicillin resistance staphylococcus aureus |
front 30 When preforming the coagulase test you notice your bacteria forms clots spontaneously is it S. aureus or S. epidermidis | back 30 S. aureus forms clots |
front 31 You plated your unknown Staphylococcus bacteria on an MSA plate and noticed it fermented mannitol and turned the medium yellow is it S. aureus or S. epidermidis | back 31 S. aureus ferments mannitol |
front 32 Is S. aureus Beta or Gamma hemolytic | back 32 S. aureus is Beta hemolytic |
front 33 Is S. epidermidis Beta or Gamma hemolytic | back 33 Gamma (non) hemolytic |
front 34 Common Staphylococcal diseases | back 34 Folliculitis Furuncle Carbuncle Impetigo |
front 35 Folliculitis (Staphylococcal disease) | back 35 superficial inflammation of hair follicle |
front 36 Furuncle (Staphylococcal disease) | back 36 boil, abscess or pustule |
front 37 Carbuncle (Staphylococcal disease) | back 37 larger and deeper lesion created by aggregation and interconnection of a cluster of furuncles |
front 38 Impetigo (Staphylococcal disease) | back 38 bubble-like swellings that can break and peel away; most common in newborns with poor hygiene |
front 39 Scalded skin syndrome (Staphylococcal disease) | back 39 result of endotoxin produced by S. aureus which induces bright red, flush, blisters then desquamation of the epidermis. |
front 40 Toxic Shock Syndrome (Staphylococcal disease) | back 40 S. aureus colonization of the tampon resulted in large amounts of exotoxin being absorbed into the body |
front 41 Food poisoning (Staphylococcal disease) | back 41 S. aureus grows and produces exotoxins in food that was left out and kills the bacteria in our gut RAPID ONSET INFECTS THE FOOD NOT US |
front 42 What are examples of Universal Precautions | back 42 Hand hygiene, protective barriers, TB tests + vaccinations, confidentiality |
front 43 Describe Staphylococci bacteria | back 43 Gram-positive cocci grape-like clusters facultative anaerobe (with or without oxygen) O/F fermentative |