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exam 4 BIOL213

front 1

Consider the process that a cell uses to replicate its double-stranded DNA before undergoing cell division. Which statement describes the DNA in the resulting daughter cells?

back 1

The double helix in each daughter cell consists of one parent strand and one newly synthesized strand.

front 2

When is homologous recombination, which can flawlessly repair double-strand DNA breaks, most likely to occur?

back 2

after the cell’s DNA has been replicated

front 3

DNA mismatch repair typically corrects what percentage of replication errors?

back 3

99%

front 4

What is true of eukaryotic mRNAs?

back 4

They are translated after they are exported from the nucleus.

front 5

An RNA chain is synthesized in which direction?

back 5

5′-to-3′ only

front 6

In eukaryotes, which parts of a gene are transcribed into RNA?

back 6

introns and exons

front 7

How many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases do most organisms have?

back 7

one for each amino acid

front 8

What is false regarding codons in mRNA molecules?

back 8

Some codons code for more than one amino acid.

front 9

It is thought that, early in the history of life, RNAs not only stored information but acted as catalysts in cells. Which reaction is catalyzed by a ribozyme in present-day cells?

back 9

peptide bond formation during translation

front 10

Which of the following statements is NOT true about liver cells and kidney cells in the same organism?

back 10

They contain different genes.

front 11

Which of the following would be the best method for determining which genes are being transcribed in a particular cell type?

back 11

RNA sequencing

front 12

In eukaryotes, where do transcription regulators bind?

back 12

upstream, downstream, or within the genes they control

front 13

What is an operon?

back 13

a set of genes transcribed as a single mRNA from a single promoter

front 14

Which is NOT an example of epigenetic inheritance?

back 14

the inheritance of a single point mutation in a gene

front 15

Which does NOT affect gene expression at the post-transcriptional level?

back 15

DNA methylation

front 16

A scientist prepared 1.2 liters of a 250 mM sodium chloride (NaCl) solution. However, after preparing the solution (but not using it), she determines that the experiment setup needs 20% more solution than originally planned. Because it is critical that the solution concentration be exactly 250 mM NaCl, she decides to:1. Increase the volume of the solution to 1.5 liters.
2. Correct the NaCl concentration by calculating the amount of NaCl required to
reach the desired concentration.
Considering that the molecular weight of NaCl is 58.44 g/mol, select the correct answer below:

back 16

She needs to add 4.38 g NaCl to the existing solution and then complete the volume to 1.5 liters.

front 17

A chemist needs to prepare 350 ml of a 100 mM potassium nitrate (KNO3) solution. However, after preparing the solution, the chemist realizes that the experiment requires the final concentration to be 150 mM. Because it is critical that the solution concentration be exactly 150 mM KNO3, the chemist decides to:
1. Increase the volume of the solution to 0.5 liters.
2. Correct the KNO3 concentration by calculating the amount of KNO3 required to reach the desired concentration.

Considering the molecular weight of KNO3 is 101.10 g/mol, select the correct answer below:

back 17

The chemist needs to add 4.08 g KNO3 to the existing solution and then complete the volume to 0.5 liters.

front 18

A scientist initially prepared 2.0 liters of a 150 mM potassium chloride (KCl) solution. After reviewing the experiment setup, she realizes that she now needs to increase the solution volume by 30%, maintaining the same concentration of 150 mM. To ensure accuracy:
1. She increases the volume to 2.6 liters.
2. She recalculates the amount of KCl needed to reach the correct concentration
in the new volume.
Given that the molecular weight of KCl is 74.55 g/mol, how much KCl should she add?

back 18

She needs to complete the volume to 2.6 liters and then add 6.72 g KCl to the solution.

front 19

A chemist prepared 750 ml of a 400 mM magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) solution. Upon realizing that the experiment now requires 20% more solution, the chemist decides to increase the volume while keeping the concentration exactly at 400 mM. The chemist:
1. Increases the volume to 900 ml.
2. Adjusts the amount of MgSO4 required to maintain the proper concentration.
Given that the molecular weight of MgSO4 is 120.37 g/mol, how much more MgSO4 should be added to achieve the target concentration?

back 19

8.64 g

front 20

A biologist is preparing a 500 ml solution of 0.5 M calcium chloride (CaCl2) for an experiment. Later, she realizes that she needs an additional 40% volume, while the concentration must remain exactly 0.5 M. The solution’s volume is increased to 700 ml. To correct the concentration:
1. The biologist needs to calculate how much more CaCl2 is required.
2. The molecular weight of CaCl2 is 110.98 g/mol.
How much additional CaCl2 should the biologist add to the solution to maintain
the desired concentration?

back 20

11.10 g

front 21

A technician prepared 1 liter of a 300 mM lithium chloride (LiCl) solution. The experiment calls for an additional 50% volume increase, while the concentration must remain exactly 300 mM. The technician decides to increase the volume to 1.5 liters. To correct the concentration:
1. The technician calculates the amount of LiCl needed to reach the desired
concentration.
2. The molecular weight of LiCl is 42.39 g/mol.
How much more LiCl should be added to the solution?

back 21

6.36 g

front 22

What is the function of primase in RNA primer synthesis?

back 22

It uses ribonucleoside triphosphates to create RNA primers.

front 23

How does primase differ from DNA polymerase?

back 23

Primase does not require a base-paired 3’ end to start synthesis.

front 24

What type of chemical modification commonly results from UV radiation and can
lead to permanent mutations if left unrepaired?

back 24

Formation of thymine dimers

front 25

Which of the following mutations is caused by the deamination of cytosine?

back 25

Cytosine is converted into uracil

front 26

If a guanine base undergoes oxidation, what type of mutation can occur if the damage is not repaired?

back 26

conversion of guanine into 8-oxoguanine

front 27

What happens when 8-oxoguanine is mispaired during DNA replication?

back 27

It pairs with adenine, leading to a G:C to T:A transversion

front 28

Which of the following is a consequence of the methylation of cytosine in DNA?

back 28

Increased likelihood of spontaneous deamination to thymine

front 29

How does deamination of adenine lead to mutations if left unrepaired?

back 29

Adenine is converted to hypoxanthine, leading to mispairing with cytosine

front 30

Which of the following best describes the mutation caused by the oxidation of
thymine?

back 30

It causes thymine to form 5-hydroxymethyluracil, which can pair incorrectly
during replication

front 31

Which of the following is true regarding the formation of abasic sites (loss of a
base) in DNA?

back 31

DNA polymerase inserts random bases opposite the abasic site, leading to mutations

front 32

What is the primary function of the excision step in DNA repair?

back 32

Removal of the damaged DNA strand

front 33

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the re-synthesis step in DNA repair?

back 33

DNA polymerase

front 34

What role does DNA ligase play in the DNA repair process?

back 34

It seals the nick between the newly synthesized DNA and the existing strand.

front 35

Which of the following best describes nucleotide excision repair (NER)?

back 35

It repairs damage caused by thymine dimers and other bulky lesions.

front 36

What is the primary function of base excision repair (BER)?

back 36

It removes and replaces damaged bases like oxidized or deaminated bases.

front 37

Which enzyme recognizes and removes the damaged base in base excision repair?

back 37

DNA glycosylase

front 38

During mismatch repair (MMR), what recognizes the mismatch and distinguishes the newly synthesized strand from the template strand?

back 38

MutS and MutL proteins

front 39

How does the repair of double-strand breaks by homologous recombination (HR) occur?

back 39

It uses the sister chromatid as a template to accurately repair the break.

front 40

What is the function of DNA helicase during DNA replication?

back 40

It unwinds the DNA double helix.

front 41

Which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer required for DNA replication?

back 41

Primase

front 42

In what direction does DNA polymerase synthesize new DNA strands?

back 42

5’ to 3’ direction

front 43

What is the name of the fragments synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA
replication?

back 43

Okazaki fragments

front 44

Which enzyme is responsible for joining Okazaki fragments together?

back 44

DNA ligase

front 45

What is the role of single-stranded binding proteins (SSBs) in DNA replication?

back 45

They stabilize the single-stranded DNA and prevent reannealing.

front 46

Which enzyme relieves the tension ahead of the replication fork by breaking and rejoining the DNA strands?

back 46

Topoisomerase

front 47

What is the leading strand in DNA replication?

back 47

The strand synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction toward the replication fork

front 48

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for adding new nucleotides to the growing DNA strand during replication?

back 48

DNA polymerase

front 49

How does replication of the lagging strand differ from replication of the leading strand?

back 49

The lagging strand is synthesized in short fragments that are later joined together, while the leading strand is synthesized continuously.

front 50

What is the role of the origin of replication in DNA replication?

back 50

It is the specific sequence of DNA where replication begins.

front 51

What is the main function of telomerase?

back 51

It adds repetitive nucleotide sequences to the ends of chromosomes.

front 52

Why is telomerase important for the replication of eukaryotic chromosomes?

back 52

It extends the 3’ ends of chromosomes, preventing their shortening during
replication.

front 53

Which type of cells typically express high levels of telomerase?

back 53

Cancer cells

front 54

What happens to chromosomes in most somatic cells when telomerase is not
active?

back 54

The telomeres shorten with each round of cell division.

front 55

Which of the following is a component of the telomerase enzyme?

back 55

An RNA template that is complementary to the telomere sequence

front 56

What is the correct sequence of information flow according to the central dogma
of molecular biology?

back 56

DNA → RNA → Protein

front 57

What process describes the conversion of DNA into RNA?

back 57

Transcription

front 58

Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing RNA from a DNA template?

back 58

RNA polymerase

front 59

What is the process by which RNA is translated into a protein?

back 59

Translation

front 60

Which type of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome for
protein synthesis?

back 60

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

front 61

Which cellular organelle is the site of protein synthesis?

back 61

Ribosome

front 62

What is the role of transfer RNA (tRNA) during translation?

back 62

It brings amino acids to the ribosome based on the mRNA sequence.

front 63

Which of the following best describes the genetic code?

back 63

It is universal and redundant, with multiple codons encoding the same amino
acid.

front 64

Which codon serves as the start signal for translation in most organisms?

back 64

AUG

front 65

What is the process by which RNA is converted back into DNA in some viruses?

back 65

Reverse transcription

front 66

What is the primary function of messenger RNAs (mRNAs)?

back 66

They code for proteins.

front 67

Which type of RNA forms the core of the ribosome’s structure and catalyzes
protein synthesis?

back 67

Ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs)

front 68

Which RNA type is primarily involved in regulating gene expression?

back 68

MicroRNAs (miRNAs)

front 69

What role do transfer RNAs (tRNAs) play in protein synthesis?

back 69

They serve as adaptors between mRNA and amino acids.

front 70

Which type of RNA provides protection from viruses and proliferating
transposable elements?

back 70

Small interfering RNAs (siRNAs)

front 71

What is one function of long noncoding RNAs (lncRNAs)?

back 71

They act as scaffolds and serve other diverse functions.

front 72

Which of the following RNA types is involved in RNA splicing, gene regulation,
and telomere maintenance?

back 72

Other noncoding RNAs

front 73

Which RNA type does not directly code for proteins but instead serves a
structural and catalytic role in the ribosome?

back 73

Ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs)v

front 74

Which type of RNA can regulate gene expression by interfering with the
translation of specific mRNAs?

back 74

MicroRNAs (miRNAs)

front 75

95.Which of the following RNAs is not involved in coding for proteins but plays
important roles in gene regulation, RNA splicing, and other cellular processes?

back 75

Other noncoding RNAs

front 76

96.Which type of RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing most rRNA genes?

back 76

RNA polymerase I

front 77

What does RNA polymerase II primarily transcribe?

back 77

Protein-coding genes and miRNA genes

front 78

Which of the following is transcribed by RNA polymerase III?

back 78

tRNA genes and 5S rRNA gene

front 79

Which RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing noncoding RNAs such as
those involved in the spliceosome?

back 79

RNA polymerase II

front 80

What is the function of RNA polymerase I in eukaryotic cells?

back 80

It transcribes most rRNA genes.

front 81

Which polymerase transcribes the genes for many small RNAs, including
tRNA and 5S rRNA?

back 81

RNA polymerase III

front 82

RNA polymerase II is primarily involved in transcribing genes that encode
what?

back 82

Protein-coding genes and small noncoding RNAs

front 83

Which polymerase is involved in the transcription of spliceosome-related
genes?

back 83

RNA polymerase II

front 84

Which type of RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing tRNA genes?

back 84

RNA polymerase III

front 85

What is the role of RNA polymerase II in the production of noncoding RNAs?

back 85

It transcribes noncoding RNAs such as those for the spliceosome.

front 86

Which of the following is a key difference between bacterial and eukaryotic
mRNAs?

back 86

Bacterial mRNAs are often polycistronic, encoding multiple proteins.

front 87

What is a characteristic of eukaryotic mRNAs that is absent in bacterial
mRNAs?

back 87

Presence of a poly-A tail at the 3’ end

front 88

How do bacterial mRNAs differ from eukaryotic mRNAs in terms of
post-transcriptional modifications?

back 88

Bacterial mRNAs do not have a 5’ cap or a poly-A tail.

front 89

Which of the following is true regarding the structure of eukaryotic mRNAs?

back 89

Eukaryotic mRNAs have a 5’ cap and a 3’ poly-A tail.

front 90

What is the significance of a 5’ cap in eukaryotic mRNAs?

back 90

It is required for ribosome binding and initiation of translation.

front 91

How are bacterial and eukaryotic mRNAs different in terms of introns and
exons?

back 91

Eukaryotic mRNAs typically contain introns that are spliced out before translation.

front 92

Where does transcription and translation occur in bacterial cells?

back 92

Both occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm

front 93

What is the lifespan of bacterial mRNAs compared to eukaryotic mRNAs?

back 93

Bacterial mRNAs are typically degraded rapidly, with a short half-life.

front 94

In eukaryotic cells, what processing step is involved in converting pre-mRNA to mature mRNA?

back 94

Splicing out of introns and joining of exons

front 95

What is a polycistronic mRNA?

back 95

An mRNA that codes for multiple proteins, typically found in bacteria

front 96

What is the first step in the process of translation?

back 96

The ribosome assembles at the start codon of mRNA.

front 97

Which codon signals the start of translation in most organisms?

back 97

AUG

front 98

Which of the following molecules brings amino acids to the ribosome during
translation?

back 98

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

front 99

What happens during the elongation phase of translation?

back 99

tRNA anticodons pair with mRNA codons, adding amino acids to the growing peptide chain.

front 100

Which of the following is the function of the ribosome during translation?

back 100

It catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids.

front 101

What is the role of the E site on the ribosome?

back 101

It binds the tRNA that has released its amino acid and is about to exit the
ribosome.

front 102

Which type of bond forms between amino acids during translation?

back 102

Peptide bond

front 103

What happens when a stop codon is encountered during translation?

back 103

The ribosome disassembles, and the polypeptide chain is released.

front 104

What is the mechanism of action of tetracycline?

back 104

Prevents the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site of the ribosome

front 105

Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by preventing the transition from initiation to elongation?

back 105

Streptomycin

front 106

How does chloramphenicol inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

back 106

Blocks peptidyl transferase reaction on ribosomes

front 107

Which antibiotic binds to the exit channel of the ribosome and inhibits elongation of the peptide chain?

back 107

Erythromycin

front 108

What is the target of rifamycin in bacterial cells?

back 108

Inhibition of RNA polymerase

front 109

What is the function of the trp operon in Escherichia coli?

back 109

To regulate the production of tryptophan

front 110

How is the trp operon regulated when tryptophan levels are high?

back 110

The trp repressor binds to the operator, preventing transcription.

front 111

What is the role of tryptophan in the regulation of the trp operon?

back 111

It acts as a co-repressor, enabling the trp repressor to bind the operator.

front 112

Where does the trp repressor bind when tryptophan levels are high?

back 112

The operator region

front 113

What happens to the trp operon when tryptophan is scarce in the
environment?

back 113

The trp operon is fully transcribed, leading to the synthesis of enzymes for tryptophan production.

front 114

What role does RNA polymerase play in the trp operon when tryptophan is
low?

back 114

It binds to the promoter and initiates transcription of the trp operon.

front 115

What is the role of attenuation in the regulation of the trp operon?

back 115

It allows fine-tuning of transcription based on tryptophan levels.

front 116

How does the leader peptide sequence affect the trp operon in E. coli?

back 116

It forms secondary structures that can terminate transcription prematurely when tryptophan is abundant.

front 117

137. What happens when the trp repressor is inactivated?

back 117

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and transcription of the trp operon begins.

front 118

What does the trp operon code for?

back 118

Enzymes involved in tryptophan biosynthesis

front 119

What is the primary function of the lac operon in Escherichia coli?

back 119

To regulate the metabolism of lactose

front 120

Which gene in the lac operon codes for beta-galactosidase, the enzyme that breaks down lactose?

back 120

lacZ

front 121

What is the role of the lacI gene in the lac operon?

back 121

It encodes the repressor protein that binds to the operator.

front 122

What happens when lactose is present in the environment of Escherichia
coli?

back 122

Lactose binds to the lac repressor, causing it to release from the operator and allowing transcription of the lac operon.

front 123

In the absence of lactose, what happens to the lac operon?

back 123

The repressor binds to the operator, blocking transcription

front 124

Which molecule acts as an inducer for the lac operon?

back 124

Lactose

front 125

What happens to the lac operon when both glucose and lactose are present
in the environment?

back 125

Transcription of the lac operon is repressed by the presence of glucose through catabolite repression.

front 126

What is the role of the CAP-cAMP complex in the regulation of the lac
operon?

back 126

It enhances the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter, increasing transcription in the absence of glucose.

front 127

What is the effect of glucose on the lac operon?

back 127

It decreases the concentration of cAMP, preventing activation of the lac operon.

front 128

Which of the following conditions would result in maximum expression of the lac operon?

back 128

No glucose and high lactose

front 129

How do the mechanisms of repression differ between the trp operon and the lac operon in Escherichia coli with respect to their interaction with their repressor proteins and environmental signals?

back 129

The trp repressor requires a co-repressor (tryptophan) to bind to the operator, while the lac repressor binds to the operator in the absence of lactose and is inactivated when lactose is present.

front 130

The DNA sequence shown below includes the beginning of a sequence that codes for a protein. What would be the result of a mutation that changed the underlined bold C to an A?

5'-ATCATGAATGTAGCACGCATTCACATAAGGTTT-3'

back 130

M-N-V-A-S-I-H-I-R-F

front 131

In a DNA double helix, _____

back 131

the two DNA strands run antiparallel

front 132

Which of the following sequences can fully base-pair with itself?

back 132

5’-GGATATCC-3’

front 133

Which of the following best represents the total number of chromosomes found in each of the somatic cells in your body?

back 133

46

front 134

Which of the following histone proteins does not form part of the octameric core?

back 134

H1

front 135

What is the most likely explanation for the similarity in the coding sequences
that direct the sequence of amino acids in the enzyme phosphofructokinase between skinks and Komodo dragons, despite variation in the surrounding sequences?

back 135

Mutations in coding sequences are more likely to be deleterious to the organism than mutations in noncoding sequences.

front 136

Which of the following does not occur before a eukaryotic mRNA is exported from the nucleus?

back 136

The ribosome binds to the mRNA.

front 137

Why is the lagging strand synthesized discontinuously at the replication fork?

back 137

DNA polymerase can polymerize nucleotides only in the 5′-to-3′ direction.

front 138

Which chromatin components are not retained when the classic “beads-on-a-string” structure is generated?

back 138

30-nm fiber

front 139

Which amino acid would you expect a tRNA with the anticodon 5’-CCA-3’ to carry?

back 139

tryptophan

front 140

Which protein is responsible for the recruitment of splicing factors to the CTD of RNA Polymerase during transcription initiation in eukaryotes?

back 140

snRNP

front 141

Which of the following correctly identifies the nucleosomal core histones?

back 141

H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

front 142

The DNA from two different species can often be distinguished by a difference in the:

back 142

ratio of A + T to G + C.

front 143

DNA replication is considered semiconservative because:

back 143

Each daughter DNA molecule consists of one strand from the parent DNA molecule and one new strand.

front 144

Which of the following sequences can fully base-pair with itself?

back 144

5′-AAGCGCTT-3′

front 145

If the genome of a bacterium requires about 20 minutes to replicate, how can the genome of the fruit fly be replicated in only three minutes?

back 145

The fruit fly genome contains more origins of replication than the bacterial genome.

front 146

Which of the following statements is true?

back 146

rRNA contains the catalytic activity that joins amino acids together.

front 147

In eukaryotes, but not prokaryotes, ribosomes find the start site of translation by:

back 147

scanning along the mRNA from the 5′ end.

front 148

The distinct characteristics of different cell types in a multicellular organism are produced mainly by the differential regulation of the:

back 148

transcription of genes transcribed by RNA polymerase II.

front 149

How are most eukaryotic gene regulatory proteins able to affect transcription when their binding sites are far from the promoter?

back 149

By looping out the intervening DNA between their binding site and the promoter

front 150

Which amino acid would you expect a tRNA with the anticodon 5′-CUU-3′ to carry?

back 150

lysine (lys)

front 151

What would be the outcome of the Hershey-Chase experiment if protein (and not DNA) was the carrier of the genetic information?

back 151

The infected bacteria would be positive for S35 radioactive labeling, and not P32.

front 152

What are the major and minor grooves?

back 152

Spaces between the turns of the DNA double helix

front 153

The complementary strand for the sequence 5’-GCACTTCG-3’ is:

back 153

3’-CGTGAAGC-5’

front 154

What happens to genes present in a part of DNA folded into heterochromatin?

back 154

They will not be expressed.

front 155

DNA replication origin is a segment of DNA that is most likely to be:

back 155

Rich in A-T base pairthe

front 156

DNA replication is:

back 156

semi-conservative

front 157

A replication fork is:

back 157

an open site in the DNA double helix where DNA replication occurs

front 158

The enzyme that digests the primers made by primase is called:

back 158

ribonuclease

front 159

In their 1953 paper on the double-helical structure of DNA, Watson and Crick famously wrote: “It has not escaped our notice that the specific pairing we have postulated immediately suggests a possible copying mechanism for the genetic material.” What did they mean?

back 159

Each strand in a DNA double helix contains all the information needed to produce a complementary partner strand.

front 160

When are chromosomes in their most compact form?

back 160

during mitosis

front 161

Which statement is true about the association of histone proteins and DNA?

back 161

Histone proteins have a high proportion of positively charged amino acids, which bind tightly to the negatively charged DNA backbone.

front 162

Where is heterochromatin not commonly located?

back 162

chromosomal regions carrying genes that encode ribosomal proteins

front 163

Consider the process that a cell uses to replicate its double-stranded DNA before undergoing cell division. Which statement describes the DNA in the resulting daughter cells?

back 163

The double helix in each daughter cell consists of one parent strand and one newly synthesized strand.

front 164

When is homologous recombination, which can flawlessly repair double-strand DNA breaks, most likely to occur?

back 164

after the cell’s DNA has been replicated

front 165

DNA mismatch repair typically corrects what percentage of replication errors?

back 165

99%

front 166

Which of the following best defines a mutation?

back 166

permanent change in a DNA sequence

front 167

What is true of eukaryotic mRNAs?

back 167

They are translated after they are exported from the nucleus.

front 168

An RNA chain is synthesized in which direction?

back 168

5′-to-3′ only.

front 169

In eukaryotes, which parts of a gene are transcribed into RNA?

back 169

introns and exons.

front 170

How many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases do most organisms have?

back 170

one for each amino acid

front 171

It is thought that, early in the history of life, RNAs not only stored information but acted as catalysts in cells. Which reaction is catalyzed by a ribozyme in present-day cells?

back 171

peptide bond formation during translation

front 172

Which of the following statements is NOT true about liver cells and kidney cells in the same organism?

back 172

They contain different genes.

front 173

In eukaryotes, where do transcription regulators bind?

back 173

RNA sequencing

front 174

In eukaryotes, where do transcription regulators bind?

back 174

upstream, downstream, or within the genes they control.

front 175

What is an operon?

back 175

a set of genes transcribed as a single mRNA from a single promoter.

front 176

Which is NOT an example of epigenetic inheritance?

back 176

the inheritance of a single point mutation in a gene.

front 177

Which does NOT affect gene expression at the post-transcriptional level?

back 177

DNA methylation.

front 178

The chromatin structure of chromosomal centromeric regions is:

back 178

heterochromatic.

front 179

The nucleotide sequence of one DNA strand of a DNA double helix is:
5ʹ-GGATTTTTGTCCACAATCA-3ʹ
What is the sequence of the complementary strand?

back 179

5ʹ-TGATTGTGGACAAAAATCC-3ʹ

front 180

In the DNA of certain bacterial cells, 13% of the nucleotides contain adenine. What are the percentages of the other nucleotides?

back 180

A = 13%, T = 13%, C = 37%, G = 37%

front 181

Which of the following statements are correct?
Each eukaryotic chromosome must contain the following sequence elements:

back 181

many origins of replication, two telomeres, one centromere

front 182

Which of the following statements are correct?

back 182

  • The error rate of DNA replication is reduced both by proofreading by DNA polymerase and by DNA mismatch repair.
  • in the absence of DNA repair, genes become less stable.

front 183

You have a segment of DNA that contains the following sequence:
5’-GGACTAGACAATAGGGACCTAGAGATTCCGAAA-3’ <=Watson
3’-CCTGATCTGTTATCCCTGGATCTCTAAGGCTTT-5’ <=Crick
If you know that the DNA region that is transcribed into RNA from this segment
contains the following sequence:
5’-TTTCGGAATCTCTAGGTCCCTATTGTCTAGTCC-3'
Which of the following choices best describes how transcription occurs?

back 183

The Crick strand is the template strand; RNA pol. moves along the 3' to 5' direction of the template strand.

front 184

back 184

  • A and C correspond to the 3’-end and 5’-end of the coding strand, respectively.
  • B and D correspond to the 5’-end and 3’-end of the template strand, respectively.
  • E corresponds to the 5'-end of the mRNAs being synthesized

front 185

back 185

false

front 186

back 186

A = 5'-end of the mRNA,
B = last Ribosome to initiate translation,
C = amino terminal of the emerging polypeptide,
D = polypeptide produced by the first ribosome engaged in translation,
E = 3'-end of the mRNA

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A = 3'-end of the mRNA
B = polypeptide produced by the first ribosome engaged in translation,
C = last Ribosome to initiate translation,
D = amino terminal of the emerging polypeptide,
E = 5'-end of the mRNA,