5. Daily fluctuations in the rhythmical movement of plant leaves come from:
A) temperature changes.
B) conditions within the plant.
C) sunlight changes.
D) changes in the electromagnetic field.

B

6. The time required for a complete cycle of activity is called a(n):
A) biological rhythm.
B) cycle.
C) period.
D) epoch.

C

7. Migratory cycles of birds are examples of:
A) circannual rhythms.
B) circadian rhythms.
C) ultradian rhythms.
D) infradian rhythms.

A

8. Daily body-temperature changes are an example of:
A) circannual rhythm.
B) circadian rhythm.
C) ultradian rhythm.
D) infradian rhythm.

B

9. Eating behavior is an example of:
A) circadian rhythm.
B) ultradian rhythm.
C) infradian rhythm.
D) circannual rhythm.

B

10. Ultradian rhythms have a period of _____, while infradian rhythms have a period of
_____.
A) less than one day; more than one day but less than one year
B) more than one day but less than one year; less than one day
C) one day; less than one day
D) less than one day; one day

A

11. When all external cues are removed, animals develop a free-running rhythm. The
free-running rhythm of a human is:
A) 24 hours.
B) more than 24 hours.
C) less than 24 hours.
D) inconsistent and vastly different for all people.

B

12. A free-running rhythm is:
A) determined by temperature.
B) determined by light.
C) determined from within the body.
D) determined by temperature and light and from within the body.

C

13. When all external cues are removed (e.g., living in a dark, windowless basement)
humans will start:
A) going to bed earlier and earlier every night.
B) going to bed later and later each night.
C) eating less and less.
D) There is no change in sleep–wake cycle.

B

14. A biological clock that is entrained:
A) is a free-running rhythm.
B) has been reset by a Zeitgeber.
C) has been temporarily terminated by a hormonal change.
D) is the same as a sequence of rhythms.

B

15. If sparrows are tested in constant light, their free-running periods are _____, whereas if
they are tested in constant darkness, their free-running periods are _____.
A) more than 24 hours; less than 24 hours
B) less than 24 hours; more than 24 hours
C) absent; extended
D) extended; absent

A

16. The clock on most computers is continually updated and reset via an Internet connection
to a time server. In this example the time server acts as a(n):
A) circadian rhythm.
B) Zeitgeber.
C) free-running rhythm.
D) infradian rhythm.

B

17. Which of the following is likely the most potent Zeitgeber?
A) eating times
B) darkness
C) light
D) temperature

C

18. Cues that maintain rhythmicity are known as:
A) circadian rhythms.
B) cyclers.
C) pacemakers.
D) Zeitgebers.

D

19. Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for your friend who
seems to develop seasonal affective disorder during the winter?
A) alcohol
B) a high-carbohydrate diet
C) phototherapy
D) vitamin C

C

20. One of the most common treatments for the control of seasonal affective disorder is:
A) benzodiazepines.
B) white light.
C) seconal.
D) sodium amytal.

B

21. Research has shown that Zeitgebers are most effective:
A) at sunrise.
B) at sunset.
C) during the night.
D) at sunrise and sunset.

D

22. Morning light resets the biological clock by _____, whereas evening darkness resets the
biological clock by _____.
A) moving it backward; moving it forward
B) moving it forward; moving it forward again
C) moving it backward; moving it backward again
D) moving it forward; moving it backward

D

23. Shift workers (e.g., working 7 p.m. to 3 a.m.) tend to develop:
A) insomnia.
B) hypersomnia.
C) metabolic syndrome.
D) anxiety problems.

C

24. David routinely works shift work (e.g., from 10 p.m. to 6 a.m.). Recently he has noticed
that he is gaining a lot of weight, is restless and irritable most of the time, and has had a
lot of trouble sleeping. Given these symptoms David may have:
A) depression.
B) metabolic syndrome.
C) a vitamin D deficiency.
D) SAD.

B

25. Jet lag would be the worst if you were flying:
A) from Boston to London.
B) from Paris to Rome.
C) from London to New York.
D) from Paris to London.

A

26. According to a study by Curt Richter, running, eating, and drinking no longer occurred
at appropriate times following lesions to the:
A) orbitofrontal cortex.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) tectum.

C

27. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is located in the:
A) optic chiasm.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebellum.

C

28. The brain's master clock is housed in the:
A) pineal gland.
B) caudate nucleus.
C) pituitary gland.
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus.

D

29. If inputs and outputs from the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) are severed, its neurons:
A) increase their rates of firing.
B) decrease their rates of firing.
C) cease firing altogether.
D) continue to fire at the same rate as before.

D

30. Which of the following would describe the electrical activity of neurons in a rat's
suprachiasmatic nucleus if it were removed and placed in a dish?
A) The rhythm of the neurons would speed up.
B) The rhythm of the neurons would slow down.
C) There would be no change in the rhythm of the neurons.
D) It would lose all rhythm.

C

31. If you separated the neurons of the suprachiasmatic nucleus, put them in a dish, and then
recorded from the cells:
A) all rhythmicity would be gone.
B) each of the cells would have a slightly different rhythm.
C) all of the cells would have the same rhythm.
D) there would be no activity because all the inputs would be gone.

B

32. Light information reaches the suprachiasmatic nucleus via the:
A) lateral geniculate pathway.
B) occipital cortex.
C) thalamic pathway.
D) retinohypothalamic pathway.

D

33. Cells in the suprachiasmatic nucleus use the neurotransmitter _____ to help them act in
synchrony.
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) glutamate
D) GABA

D

34. The suprachiasmatic nucleus receives light-related inputs from retinal ganglion cells
containing:
A) melanopsin.
B) rhodopsin.
C) retinol.
D) vitamin A.

A

35. Greg had a stroke in both sides of his occipital lobe and is now cortically blind. How
will complete cortical blindness affect Greg's circadian rhythm?
A) His circadian rhythm will cease functioning and he will get his days and nights
confused.
B) There will be no change in his circadian rhythm.
C) His circadian rhythm will speed up.
D) His circadian rhythm will slow down.

B

36. Which of the following structures does NOT send inputs to the suprachiasmatic
nucleus?
A) intergeniculate leaflet
B) raphe nucleus
C) retinohypothalamic tract
D) tectopulvinar tract

D

37. The effects of lesioning the suprachiasmatic nucleus can be reversed by:
A) intense exposure to light.
B) electrical stimulation.
C) transplants of SCN cells.
D) stem cell transplants.

C

38. Steven is often referred to as a morning person because he wakes up at 5 a.m. and goes
to sleep at 10 p.m., whereas Jennifer is described as a night owl because she wakes up at
10 a.m. but stays up until 3 a.m. Steven's and Jennifer's sleeping and waking habits may
differ because of the differences in:
A) diet.
B) exercise.
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus core neurons.
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus shell neurons.

D

39. If a female rat is lesioned in the suprachiasmatic nucleus, so her behavior is no longer
rhythmic, and she subsequently becomes pregnant, her pups will:
A) fail to develop a circadian rhythm.
B) have to learn rhythmic behavior by watching intact rats.
C) develop a normal circadian rhythm.
D) adopt nocturnal rhythms.

C

40. Rhythmicity in the suprachiasmatic nucleus likely:
A) is learned.
B) originated elsewhere in the brain.
C) is genetically determined.
D) developed as the result of sunlight.

C

41. Eating, body temperature, and motor activity are hypothesized to be driven by:
A) pacemakers.
B) slave oscillators.
C) entrainment cells.
D) phase modulators.

B

42. Lesions to the suprachiasmatic nucleus:
A) abolish eating.
B) abolish sleep.
C) disrupt the timing of sleep and eating.
D) have no effect on either eating or sleeping.

C

43. Which of the following neural structures functions as a pacemaker?
A) lateral geniculate nucleus
B) amygdala
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus
D) hypothalamic nucleus

C

44. The suprachiasmatic nucleus entrains slave oscillators via connection(s) with the:
A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) pituitary.
D) All of the answers are correct.

D

45. _____ promote(s) rest and relaxation, whereas _____ promote(s) arousal.
A) Glucocorticoids; melatonin
B) Melatonin; glucocorticoids
C) GABA; melatonin
D) Glucocorticoids; GABA

B

46. The suprachiasmatic nucleus controls the release of the hormone(s):
A) melatonin.
B) glucocorticoid.
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone.
D) melatonin and glucocorticoid.

D

47. Melatonin is released primarily during the _____ of the circadian cycle.
A) dark
B) light
C) midday portion
D) early morning portion

A

48. Which of the following sequences accurately depicts the process by which rhythms are
linked to hormones?
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus, slave oscillators, hormone release
B) slave oscillators, suprachiasmatic nucleus, hormone release
C) hormone release, suprachiasmatic nucleus, slave oscillators
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus, hormone release, slave oscillators

A

49. Melatonin is secreted by the:
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B) pineal gland.
C) gonads.
D) hypothalamus.

B

50. Male hamsters who are exposed to _____ light levels have enlarged gonads, whereas
male hamsters who are exposed to _____ light levels have smaller gonads.
A) increased; decreased
B) decreased; increased
C) constant; decreased
D) increased; constant

A

51. Rats trained to associate a particular place with the delivery of a small electric shock
tend to show poorest recall for the association when they are tested at:
A) a consistent time of day.
B) varying times of day.
C) a consistent location.
D) both a consistent location and a consistent time of day.

B

52. Electromyography (EMG) measures:
A) brain wave activity.
B) muscle activity.
C) eye movements.
D) heart rate.

B

53. Electrooculography (EOG) measures:
A) brain wave activity.
B) muscle activity.
C) eye movements.
D) heart rate.

C

54. Sleep is commonly measured using an:
A) electroencephalograph.
B) electromyograph.
C) electrooculograph.
D) All of the answers are correct.

D

55. What is the correct order of EEG patterns, from lowest to highest frequency?
A) alpha, beta, delta
B) beta, alpha, delta
C) delta, alpha, beta
D) delta, beta, alpha

C

56. A waking EEG rhythm is the same as:
A) alpha rhythm.
B) beta rhythm.
C) delta rhythm.
D) theta rhythm.

B

57. Which of the following rhythms occurs during sleep?
A) alpha rhythm
B) beta rhythm
C) delta rhythm
D) theta rhythm

C

58. John is participating in a sleep study. While examining John's EEG pattern, the
researcher notices that the waves are extremely regular, with a frequency of 7 to 11 Hz.
Based on this observation the researcher can conclude that:
A) John is still wide awake and alert.
B) John is asleep.
C) John is dreaming.
D) John is awake but relaxed, with his eyes closed.

D

59. Sarah is participating in a sleep study. Although she appears to be sleeping, her EEG
pattern exhibits fast brain wave activity, and the recording from the electrooculogram
seems to indicate that she is moving her eyes. This suggests that Sarah:
A) is having a seizure.
B) is lying with her eyes closed and is relaxed but not actually sleeping.
C) has a sleep disorder.
D) is in REM sleep.

D

60. The EEG patterns taken from skull recordings of REM sleep are characterized by:
A) low-frequency waves, as if the person were awake.
B) low-frequency waves similar to those found in stage 4 sleep.
C) high-frequency waves, as if the person were awake.
D) high-frequency waves similar to those found in stage 2 sleep.

C

61. The data collected when subjects are awakened at various times suggest that _____ is
the deepest sleep.
A) stage 1
B) stage 2
C) stage 3
D) stage 4

D

62. REM (rapid eye movement) sleep occurs during:
A) stage 1.
B) stage 2.
C) stages 3 and 4.
D) None of the answers is correct.

D

63. Body temperature _____ during NREM sleep and _____ during REM sleep.
A) decreases; increases
B) stays constant; decreases
C) stays constant; increases
D) increases; decreases

A

64. In the first part of a night's sleep, _____ sleep is prominent, whereas in the second part,
_____ sleep dominates.
A) REM; NREM
B) NREM; REM
C) stage 1; stage 3
D) stage 3; stage 1

B

65. REM sleep is most frequent in:
A) children.
B) adolescents.
C) middle age.
D) the elderly.

A

66. Adults spend _____ in REM sleep than children.
A) more time
B) less time
C) the same amount of time
D) Children do not engage in REM sleep.

B

67. Someone who feels tingling and pain in the legs at night when trying to sleep may have:
A) poor blood circulation.
B) had too much caffeine during the day.
C) restless legs syndrome.
D) sleep dystonia.

C

68. Restless legs syndrome is most common in:
A) men.
B) women.
C) teenagers.
D) seniors.

B

69. Restless legs syndrome is sometimes treated with:
A) l-dopa
B) SSRIs
C) benzodiazepines
D) haloperidol

A

70. Sleepwalking can occur in:
A) all stages of NREM sleep.
B) stage 4 sleep.
C) REM sleep.
D) stage 1 sleep.

B

71. Victoria is watching her cat sleep on the floor. The cat is sprawled out and its legs seem
to be twitching. It would appear that her cat is in _____.
A) stage 2 sleep
B) stage 3 sleep
C) stage 4 sleep
D) REM sleep

B

72. Dreaming occurs most commonly during:
A) stage 1 and 2 sleep.
B) stage 3 and 4 sleep.
C) REM sleep.
D) all five stages of sleep.

C

73. Night terrors, or brief, frightening dreams, occur during:
A) REM sleep.
B) stage 2 and 3 sleep.
C) stage 3 and 4 sleep.
D) stage 2, 3, and 4 sleep.

D

74. Studies of dream content revealed that most dreams are associated with:
A) sex.
B) happiness.
C) sadness and anger.
D) sensations of falling.

C

75. The theory that dreams signify distant human memories was expounded by:
A) Sigmund Freud.
B) Carl Jung.
C) J. Allan Hobson.
D) Anttio Revonsuo.

B

76. According to psychoanalysts, the _____ of dreams was important, as it might reveal
insight into the patient's problems.
A) manifest content
B) sexual content
C) latent content
D) frequency

C

77. According to the _____ hypothesis, dreams are taken from an individual's personal
memories and experience but have no meaning.
A) Freudian
B) activation–synthesis
C) Jungian
D) evolutionary

B

78. The coping hypothesis of dreams was expounded by:
A) Sigmund Freud.
B) Carl Jung.
C) J. Allen Hobson.
D) Anttio Revonsuo.

D

79. As a general rule _____ tend to sleep more than _____.
A) predators; prey
B) prey; predators
C) humans; cats
D) dogs; cats

A

80. Which of the following sleeps the most?
A) opossum
B) human
C) cat
D) donkeY

A

81. For humans, the basic rest–activity cycle is approximately:
A) 1 hour.
B) 1.5 hours.
C) 3.5 hours.
D) 4 hours.

B

82. Sleep-deprived subjects:
A) show adverse physiological consequences.
B) show poor cognitive performance.
C) cannot complete complex tasks.
D) All of the answers are correct.

B

83. The most likely function of sleep is:
A) the restoration of tissue.
B) still not definitively known.
C) the consolidation of memories.
D) the expression of repressed feelings.

B

84. A brief period of sleeping lasting a second or so is known as:
A) a minisleep.
B) a nap.
C) a microsleep.
D) passing out.

C

85. People who are deprived of REM sleep:
A) show an increased tendency to enter REM sleep later.
B) become mentally unstable.
C) sleepwalk.
D) need to sleep for twice as long as normal.

A

86. REM sleep can be abolished by:
A) lower brainstem damage.
B) tricyclic antidepressants.
C) serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
D) All of the answers are correct.

D

87. Loss of REM sleep can result from damage to the:
A) lower brainstem.
B) hippocampus.
C) upper brainstem.
D) cerebellum.

A

88. Sleep spindles and K complexes are associated with:
A) REM sleep.
B) NREM sleep.
C) dreaming.
D) daydreaming.

B

89. Some researchers have suggested that NREM sleep is critical for _____, whereas REM sleep is critical for _____.
A) habitual memory consolidation; implicit memory consolidation
B) explicit memory consolidation; implicit memory consolidation
C) motor memory; factual memory
D) restorative processes; memory
Pag

B

90. Stimulation of the reticular activating system results in _____ in the EEG.
A) desynchronization
B) spindle activity
C) rhythmic activity
D) large, slow waves

A

91. Damage to the brainstem can result in: A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) coma.
D) hyperactivity.

C

92. Which of the following neurotransmitters are likely responsible for waking?
A) serotonin and dopamine
B) serotonin and acetylcholine
C) acetylcholine and dopamine
D) acetylcholine and GABA

B

93. _____ is responsible for the waking associated with being still and alert, whereas _____ is responsible for the waking associated with movement.
A) Serotonin; norepinephrine
B) Norepinephrine; serotonin
C) Acetylcholine; serotonin D) Serotonin; acetylcholine

C

94. You are driving on the highway at night and you are getting very sleepy. To keep yourself awake you can stimulate your serotonergic neurons by:
A) drinking coffee.
B) listening to music.
C) shaking your head or stretching.
D) having a snack.

C

95. The _____ initiates REM sleep.
A) medial pontine reticular formation
B) inferior olivary nucleus
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus
D) peribrachial area

D

96. The atonia associated with REM sleep is controlled by the:
A) peribrachial area.
B) medial pontine reticular formation.
C) subcoerulear nucleus.
D) raphe nuclei.

C

97. The _____ initiates the rapid eye movements that occur during REM sleep.
A) peribrachial area
B) medial pontine reticular formation
C) subcoerulear nucleus
D) raphe nuclei

B

98. An insomniac is a person who:
A) sleeps excessively.
B) falls asleep without warning.
C) cannot sleep.
D) sleeps only during the day.

C

99. Insomnia can be caused by:
A) anxiety.
B) depression.
C) sleeping pills.
D) anxiety, depression, and sleeping pills.

D

100. Sleeping pills commonly:
A) become addictive.
B) deprive a person of REM sleep.
C) cause rebound insomnia.
D) All of the answers are correct.

D

101. Narcolepsy can be treated with:
A) opioids.
B) Ritalin.
C) SSRIs.
D) antipsychotic drugs.

B

102. A person who suddenly falls down and is temporarily paralyzed most likely has: A) narcolepsy.
B) cataplexy. C) hypnogogy. D) apnea.

B

103. A person who snores and is very overweight is at risk for developing:
A) restless legs syndrome.
B) narcolepsy.
C) sleep apnea.
D) seasonal affective disorder.

B

104. Hypnogogic hallucinations are associated with:
A) narcolepsy.
B) cataplexy.
C) sleep apnea.
D) REM without atonia.

B

107. Knockout mice that were selectively bred not to have the gene for producing orexin were found to have:
A) sleep apnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) cataplexy.
D) All of the answers are correct.

C

106. Cataplexy is a sleep disorder in which:
A) one cannot go into REM sleep.
B) atonia does not occur during REM and people act out their dreams.
C) atonia suddenly occurs in an awake, alert individual.
D) one is overcome by a sudden urge to sleep.

C

105. Research into the neural basis of cataplexy has shown that during episodes of cataplexy:
A) neurons in the subcoerulear nucleus become inactive.
B) neurons in the magnocellular nucleus of the medulla become active.
C) neurons in the peribrachial area become active.
D)neurons in the subcoerulear nucleus become inactive and neurons in the
magnocellular nucleus of the medulla become active.

D