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QUIZ 1

front 1

What is spectrophotometry?

back 1

It is a method to measure how much a chemical substance absorbs light by measuring the intensity of light as a beam of light passes through a sample solution.

front 2

What is chromatography in simple words?

back 2

is a process for separating components of a mixture. To get the process started, the mixture is dissolved in a substance called the mobile phase, which carries it through a second substance called the stationary phase.

front 3

What is a chromatogram?

back 3

is the trace generated by the detector signal and requires a carefully controlled flow rate of the carrier gas (mobile phase) and a carefully controlled temperature of the column (stationary phase) to yield repeatable results.

front 4

What are the 4 types of chromatography?

back 4

  1. gas chromatography
  2. high-performance liquid chromatography
  3. thin-layer chromatography
  4. paper chromatography

front 5

Paper Chromatography

back 5

compound spotted directly on cellulose paper

front 6

Method of paper Chromatography

back 6

separating a mixture of different colors. The liquid soaks through the paper and carries the mixture with it. Some substances are carried faster than others so the substances are separated along the paper

front 7

Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)

back 7

-rapid check of reactions or mixtures

-is a method for separating non-volatile mixtures.

-the experiment is carried out on a sheet of glass, plastic, or aluminum foil that has been lightly covered in an adsorbent substance. Typically, silica gel, cellulose, or aluminum oxide are the materials used.

front 8

What are the 3 main types of liquid chromatography?

back 8

1. thin layer chromatography
2. paper chromatography
3. column chromatography

front 9

what is liquid chromatography or LC?

back 9

chromatographic technique in which the mobile phase is a liquid

front 10

What is the mobile phase and the stationary phase of liquid chromatography?

back 10

The mobile phase is a solution (such methanol, acetone, acetonitrile, water,… ) which transport our components to column (stationary phase)

front 11

What are hydrates?

back 11

substances that contain water in the form of H2O molecules.

front 12

What are anhydrous?

back 12

substances that contain no water

front 13

what is a hygroscopic material?

back 13

a substance that has the ability to adsorb and absorb moisture or water from the surrounding environment

front 14

what is a desiccant material?

back 14

drying agents

front 15

Beer-Lambert law formula

Au X (Cs/As) = Cu

back 15

Au = absorbance of unknown

Cu = concentration of unknown

As = absorbance of standard

A = absorbance

This formula is applied to assays that exhibit linear relationships between changes in absorbance with changes in concentration to calculate the concentration of the unknown sample.

front 16

what is the beer-lambert law?

back 16

states that there is a linear relationship between the concentration and the absorbance of the solution, which enables the concentration of a solution to be calculated by measuring its absorbance.

front 17

what is an anticoagulant?

back 17

commonly added to collection tubes either to maintain blood in the fluid state for hematological testing or to obtain suitable plasma for coagulation and clinical chemistry analyses.

front 18

what is a class A fire?

back 18

involve ordinary combustible materials, such as cloth, wood, paper, rubber, and many plastics.

front 19

what is a class B fire?

back 19

fires are ones where flammable liquids and/or gases are involved. They are the fuel source in the fire triangle (fuel, heat, oxygen + chemical reaction).

front 20

what is a class C fire?

back 20

fires involve electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring, circuit breakers and outlets.

front 21

The mean is considered the________?

back 21

the average

front 22

The median is considered the_______?

back 22

the middle

front 23

the mode is considered the_____?

back 23

the most common number that appears in your set of data.

front 24

the total allowable error is

back 24

is a pre-determined number that can be tolerated without invalidating the clinical usefulness of the analytic result.

front 25

Which of the following lamps provides a continuous spectrum of radiant energy in the visible, near IR, and near UV regions of the spectrum?

back 25

Tungsten-filament

front 26

Which of the following isolates light within a narrow region of the spectrum?

back 26

Monochromator

front 27

A monochromator is a ____________

back 27

device for selecting a narrow band of wavelengths from a continuous spectrum.

front 28

Which of the following is not descriptive of a photomultiplier tube?

A. Emits electrons proportionally to initial light absorbed
B. Must be shielded from stray light
C. Cannot be used with a chopper
D. Amplifies the initial signal received

back 28

C. Cannot be used with a chopper

front 29

What is a photomultiplier tube?

back 29

are extremely sensitive detectors of light in the ultraviolet, visible, and near-infrared ranges of the electromagnetic spectrum

front 30

Which of the following is false about a photomultiplier tube?

A. Converts radiant energy (light) to electrical energy (current)
B. Amplifies the current significantly
C. Has a very rapid response time
D. Is composed of an iron plate and a layer of selenium

back 30

D. Is composed of an iron plate and a layer of selenium

front 31

Which type of photodetector employs a linear arrangement that allows it to respond to a specific wavelength resulting in complete UV/visible spectrum analysis?

A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Phototube
C. Barrier layer cell
D. Photodiode array

back 31

D. Photodiode array

front 32

what is a photodiode?

back 32

it is a form of light sensor that converts light energy into electrical energy (voltage or current)

front 33

When performing spectrophotometer quality assurance checks, what is the holmium oxide glass filter used to assess?

A. Linearity
B. Stray light
C. Absorbance accuracy
D. Wavelength accuracy

back 33

D. Wavelength accuracy

front 34

In spectrophotometric analysis, what is the purpose of the reagent blank?

A. Correct for interfering chromogens
B. Correct for lipemia
C. Correct for protein
D. Correct for color contribution of the reagents

back 34

D. Correct for color contribution of the reagents

front 35

In regard to bichromatic analysis, which of the following is false?

A. Absorbance is measured at the spectral absorbance peak for a blank
and the sample using the same wavelength.
B. Eliminates background interferences
C. Sample concentration determined from difference in two measured absorbances
D. Functions as a reference blank for each sample

back 35

A. Absorbance is measured at the spectral absorbance peak for a blank and the sample using the same wavelength.

front 36

The bandpass of a spectrophotometer is 10 nm. If an instalment is set at 540 nm, the wavelengths that are permitted to impinge on the sample will be within what wavelength range?

A. 530-540 nm
B. 530-550 nm
C. 535-545 nm
D. 540-550 nm

back 36

C. 535-545 nm

540 ± 5 nm (10-nm bandpass) will be equivalent to a wavelength range of 535-545 nm.

front 37

Which of the following formulas is an expression of the Beer-Lambert law that is routinely applied to spectrophotometric analysis?

A. Au X (Cs/As) = Cu
B. Cu X (Cs/As)= Au
C. As X (Cs/Cu) = Au
D. A = 2 - log %T

back 37

A. Au X (Cs/As) = Cu

front 38

In spectrophotometry, which of the following is a mathematical expression of the relationship between absorbance and transmittance?

A. A = abc
B. Au/Cu = As/Cs
C. A = 2 - log %T
D. A = log %T

back 38

C. A = 2 - log %T

front 39

Which of the following is not a problem inherent in turbidimetry?

A. Variation in particle size of samples
B. Variation in particle size of standards
C. Rate of aggregation or settling of particles
D. Need to maintain a constant and specific temperature

back 39

D. Need to maintain a constant and specific temperature

front 40

Turbidimetry is the ___________________

back 40

measurement of the amount of light blocked by particulate matter in passing through a turbid solution.

front 41

Which of the following may be associated with reflectance spectrophotometry as it relates to the dry reagent slide technique?

A. Light projected to the slide at 180-degree angle
B. Dye concentration directly proportional to reflectance
C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected by photodetector
D. Reflectance values are linearly proportional to transmission values

back 41

C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected by photodetector

front 42

Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the exciting light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design?

A. Prevent loss of emitted light
B. Prevent loss of the excitation light
C. Focus emitted and excitation light upon the detector
D. Prevent excitation light from reaching the detector

back 42

D. Prevent excitation light from reaching the detector

Because the right-angle configuration does not prevent loss of the exciting or the emitted light.

front 43

Which of the following represents a primary advantage of performing fluorometric over absorption spectroscopic methods of analysis?

A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity
B. Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity
C. Purity of reagents used not as critical
D. Ease of performing assays

back 43

A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity

front 44

Which of the following may be associated with fluorescence polarization?

A. Plane-polarized light is used for sample excitation.
B. Small molecular complexes show a greater amount of polarization.
C. It is a heterogeneous technique employed in fluorophore-ligand immunoassays.
D. Polarized light detected is directly proportional to concentration of ligand in sample.

back 44

A. Plane-polarized light is used for sample excitation.

front 45

Which of the following may be associated with bioluminescence?

A. Light emission produced due to enzymatic oxidation of a substrate
B. Less sensitive than direct fluorescent assays
C. Electron excitation caused by radiant energy
D. Employs a radioactive label

back 45

A. Light emission produced due to enzymatic oxidation of a substrate

front 46

Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is

A. Absorbed by particles in suspension
B. Scattered by particles in suspension
C. Produced by fluorescence
D. Produced by excitation of ground-state atoms

back 46

B. Scattered by particles in suspension

front 47

Which of the following instruments is used in the clinical laboratory or in
reference laboratories to detect beta and gamma emissions?

A. Fluorometer
B. Nephelometer
C. Scintillation counter
D. Spectrophotometer

back 47

C. Scintillation counter

front 48

Which of the following best describes chemiluminescence?

A. Electron excitation caused by radiant energy
B. Enzymatic oxidation of a substrate produces light emission
C. Chemical energy excites electrons that emit light upon return to ground state
D. Employs a fluorescent label that produces light

back 48

C. Chemical energy excites electrons that emit light upon return to ground state

front 49

In assaying an analyte with a single-beam atomic absorption spectrophotometer, what is the instrument actually measuring?

A. Intensity of light emitted by the analyte on its return to the ground state
B. Intensity of light that the analyte absorbs from the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Intensity of light that the analyte absorbs from the flame
D. Intensity of the beam from the hollowcathode lamp after it has passed through the analyte-containing flame

back 49

D. Intensity of the beam from the hollowcathode lamp after it has passed through the analyte-containing flame

front 50

What is the function of the flame in atomic absorption spectroscopy?

A. Absorb the energy emitted from the metal analyte in returning to ground state
B. Supply the thermal energy needed to excite the metal analyte
C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground state
D. Supply the light that is absorbed by the metal analyte

back 50

C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground state

front 51

Most atomic absorption spectrophotometers incorporate a beam chopper and a tuned amplifier. The purpose of these components is to avoid errors that would be caused by

A. Variations in flame temperature
B. Deterioration of the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Stray light from the hollow-cathode lamp
D. Measurement of light emitted by the analyte

back 51

D. Measurement of light emitted by the analyte

front 52

In potentiometry, which of the following is considered the standard electrode?

A. Hydrogen electrode
B. Calcium electrode
C. Potassium electrode
D. Copper electrode

back 52

A. Hydrogen electrode

front 53

In an electrolytic cell, which of the following is the half-cell where reduction takes place?

A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Combination electrode
D. Electrode response

back 53

B. Cathode

front 54

Mercury covered by a layer of mercurous chloride in contact with saturated potassium chloride solution is a description of which of the following types of electrodes?

A. Sodium
B. Calomel
C. Calcium
D. Silver/silver chloride

back 54

B. Calomel

front 55

When a pH-sensitive glass electrode is not actively in use, in what type of solution should it be kept?

A. Tap water
B. Physiologic saline solution
C. The medium recommended by the manufacturer
D. A buffer solution of alkaline pH

back 55

C. The medium recommended by the manufacturer

front 56

When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of a liquid ionexchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?

A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin

back 56

D. Valinomycin

front 57

What are the principles of operation for a chloride analyzer that generates silver ions as part of its reaction mechanism?

A. Potentiometry and amperometry
B. Amperometry and polarography
C. Coulometry and potentiometry
D. Amperometry and coulometry

back 57

D. Amperometry and coulometry

front 58

When quantifying glucose using an amperometric glucose electrode system, which of the following is not a component of the system?

A. Product oxidation produces a current
B. Hydrogen peroxide formed
C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose
D. Platinum electrode

back 58

C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose

front 59

To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/ blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that

A. The barometric pressure be known and used for adjustments
B. Calibrating gases of known high and low concentrations be used
C. The calibration be performed at room temperature
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

back 59

D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

front 60

The measurement of CO2 in blood by means of a PCO2 electrode is dependent on the

A. Passage of H+ ions through the membrane that separates the sample and the electrode
B. Change in pH because of increased carbonic acid in the electrolyte surrounding the electrodes
C. Movement of bicarbonate across the membrane that separates the sample and the electrode
D. Linear relationship between PCO2 in the sample and measured pH

back 60

B. Change in pH because of increased carbonic acid in the electrolyte surrounding the electrodes

front 61

The measurement of oxygen in blood by means of a PO2 electrode involves which of the following?

A. Wheatstone bridge arrangement of resistive elements sensitive to oxygen concentration
B. Direct relationship between amount of oxygen in the sample and amount of current flowing in the measuring system
C. Change in current resulting from an increase of free silver ions in solution
D. Glass electrode sensitive to H+ ion

back 61

B. Direct relationship between amount of oxygen in the sample and amount of current flowing in the measuring system

front 62

Which of the following blood gas parameters are measured directly by the blood gasanalyzer electrochemically as opposed to being calculated by the instrument?

A. pH, HCO-3, total CO2
B. PCO2, HCO-3, PO2
C. pH, PCO2, PO2
D. PO2, HCO-3, total CO2

back 62

C. pH, PCO2, PO2

front 63

Which formula correctly describes the relationship between absorbance and %T ?

A. A = 2 - log %T
B. A = log 1/T
C. A = -log T
D. All of these options

back 63

D. All of these options

front 64

Which of the following techniques is more commonly used to measure vitamins?

A. High-performance liquid chromatography
B. Spectrophotometry
C. Nephelometry
D. Microbiological

back 64

A. High-performance liquid chromatography

front 65

In the United States, most cases of scurvy occur in children between the ages of 7 months to 2 years. Scurvy is a disease caused by a deficiency in which of the following?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

back 65

B. Vitamin C

front 66

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are classified as __________?

back 66

fat-soluble vitamins.

front 67

Vitamin C are classified as ____________?

back 67

water-soluble vitamins and as such are not lipid compounds.

front 68

The term "lipid" encompasses a wide variety of compounds characterized as being insoluble in water but soluble in nonpolar solvents. Which of the following vitamins is not classified as fat soluble?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E

back 68

B. Vitamin C

front 69

Measuring which of the following compounds is useful in the diagnosis
of steatorrhea?

A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin C
C. Carotenoids
D. Folic acid

back 69

C. Carotenoids

front 70

What is steatorrhea?

back 70

it is an increase of fat excretion in the stools. Another term for it is called fat malabsorption.

front 71

Carotenoids are __________?

back 71

a group of fat-soluble compounds that are precursors of vitamin A (retinol). They are not synthesized in humans, and their absorption depends on intestinal fat absorption. Therefore, the serum carotene level is sometimes used as a simple screening test for steatorrhea.

front 72

Which of the following is another name for vitamin B12?

A. Retinol
B. Pyridoxine
C. Cyanocobalamin
D. Riboflavin

back 72

C. Cyanocobalamin

front 73

Which of the following is not associated with vitamin B12?

A. Insoluble in water
B. Intrinsic factor
C. Schilling test
D. Pernicious anemia

back 73

A. Insoluble in water

front 74

Vitamin B12 is a _____________?

back 74

water-soluble vitamin.

front 75

Which of the following tissues is important in vitamin D metabolism?

A. Skin
B. Spleen
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid

back 75

A. Skin

front 76

A deficiency in which of the following leads to increased clotting time and may result in hemorrhagic disease in infancy?

A. Riboflavin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Tocopherols
D. Menaquinone

back 76

D. Menaquinone

front 77

Menaquinone is __________?

back 77

Vitamin K₂

front 78

Tocopherols is _________?

back 78

Vitamin E

front 79

Pyridoxine is ___________?

back 79

Vitamin B-6

front 80

Riboflavin is ___________ ?

back 80

Vitamin B2

front 81

In absorption spectrophotometry:

A. Absorbance is directly proportional to
transmittance
B. Percent transmittance is directly proportional to concentration
C. Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the light path length
D. Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration

back 81

A. Absorbance is directly proportional to
transmittance

front 82

Which wavelength would be absorbed strongly by a red-colored solution?

A. 450 nm
B. 585 nm
C. 600 nm
D. 650 nm

back 82

A. 450 nm

front 83

a solution that looks red in color would probably absorb most strongly in the wavelength range ____________?

back 83

400–600nm

front 84

A green-colored solution would show highest transmittance at:

A. 475 nm
B. 525 nm
C. 585 nm
D. 620 nm

back 84

B. 525 nm

front 85

SITUATION: A technologist is performing an enzyme assay at 340 nm using a visible-range spectrophotometer. After setting the wavelength and adjusting the readout to zero %T with the light path blocked, a cuvette with deionized water is inserted. With the light path fully open and the 100%T control at maximum, the instrument readout will not rise above 90%T. What is the most appropriate first course of action?

A. Replace the source lamp
B. Insert a wider cuvette into the light path
C. Measure the voltage across the lamp terminals
D. Replace the instrument fuse

back 85

A. Replace the source lamp

front 86

Which monochromator specification is required in order to measure the true absorbance of a compound having a natural absorption bandwidth of 30 nm?

A. 50-nm bandpass
B. 25-nm bandpass
C. 15-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass

back 86

D. 5-nm bandpass

Because the narrower the bandpass, the greater the photometric resolution.

front 87

Which photodetector is most sensitive to low levels of light?

A. Barrier layer cell
B. Photodiode
C. Diode array
D. Photomultiplier tube

back 87

D. Photomultiplier tube

front 88

How does photomultiplier tube work?

back 88

The photomultiplier tube uses dynodes of increasing
voltage to amplify the current produced by the photosensitive cathode. It is 10,000 times as sensitive as a barrier layer cell, which has no amplification. A photomultiplier tube requires a DC-regulated lamp because it responds to light fluctuations caused by the AC cycle

front 89

Which condition is a common cause of stray light?

A. Unstable source lamp voltage
B. Improper wavelength calibration
C. Dispersion from second-order spectra
D. Misaligned source lamp

back 89

C. Dispersion from second-order spectra

front 90

Which type of filter is best for measuring stray light?

A. Wratten
B. Didymium
C. Sharp cutoff
D. Neutral density

back 90

C. Sharp cutoff

front 91

Which of the following materials is best suited for verifying the wavelength calibration of a spectrophotometer?

A. Neutral density filters
B. Potassium dichromate solutions traceable to the National Bureau of Standards reference
C. Wratten filters
D. Holmium oxide glass

back 91

D. Holmium oxide glass

front 92

The half-band width of a monochromator is defined by:

A. The range of wavelengths passed at 50% maximum transmittance
B. One-half the lowest wavelength of optical purity
C. The wavelength of peak transmittance
D. One-half the wavelength of peak absorbance

back 92

A. The range of wavelengths passed at 50% maximum transmittance

front 93

The reagent blank corrects for absorbance caused by:

A. The color of reagents
B. Sample turbidity
C. Bilirubin and hemolysis
D. All of these options

back 93

A. The color of reagents

front 94

Which instrument requires a highly regulated DC power supply?

A. A spectrophotometer with a barrier layer cell
B. A colorimeter with multilayer interference filters
C. A spectrophotometer with a photomultiplier tube
D. A densitometer with a photodiode detector

back 94

C. A spectrophotometer with a photomultiplier tube

front 95

What happens If the PH of blood decreases from 7.4 to 7.1?

back 95

[H+] is doubled

front 96

When the measure of an [k] acid strength increase so does __________?

back 96

[H+ ]hydrated hydronium ion

front 97

What happens If the blood increases from 7.4 to 7.7?

back 97

[H+] is halved

front 98

What does a blood pH of 7.4 correspond to in nM?

back 98

40 nM [H+]. This is the mean of the normal range (44 to 36 nM)

front 99

What is the normal pH of blood's range?

back 99

7.36 to 7.44

front 100

What is the condition called when the pH of blood rises above 7.44 ([H+] < 36 nM)?

back 100

alkalemia

front 101

What is the condition called when the pH decreases below 7.36 ([H+] > 44 nM)?

back 101

acidemia

front 102

What does the suffix -emia mean?

back 102

blood; usually to an abnormal concentration in blood.

front 103

Over the pH range of 7.20 to 7.50 what is the change in nM [H+] for every change in 0.01 pH unit?

back 103

1 nm [H+] in the opposite direction.

front 104

Which of the following technique measures light scattered and has a following light source placed at 90 degrees from the incident light?

A. Chemiluminescence

B. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

C. Nephelometry

D. Turbidity

back 104

C. Nephelometry

front 105

Nephelometry is ___________?

back 105

a technique that measures light scattered by particular in suspension with a detector at an angle to the incident light (often 45 or 90 degrees)

front 106

Which of the following may be associated with reflectance spectrophotometry as it relates to the drying reagent slide technique?

A. Light projected to the slide at 180- degree angle

B. Dye concentration directly proportional to reflectance

C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected by photodetector

D. Reflectance values are linearly proportional to transmission value

back 106

C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected by photodetector

front 107

What indicator electrode uses a membrane made of dioxides the combine with result in an ion exchange with the analytes of interest in a patent sample?

A. Glass

B. Liquid

C. Silver-silver chloride

D. Calomel

back 107

A. Glass

An example of glass electrode is the PH electrode.

front 108

Which of the following method allows for the separation for the separation of charged particles based on their rates of migration in an electric field?

A. Rheopheresis

B. Electrophoresis

C. Electroendosmosis

D. Ion Exchange

back 108

B. Electrophoresis

front 109

Electrophoresis is ____________?

back 109

method of separating charged particles by their rates of migration in an electric field.

front 110

Electroendosmosis is ____________?

back 110

the movement of water and the contents within through a porous material when under the influence of an electric charge

front 111

Which of the following techniques is based on electro-osmotic flow?

A. Capillary electrophoresis
B. Zone electrophoresis
C. Iontophoresis
D. Isoelectric focusing

back 111

A. Capillary electrophoresis

front 112

In isoelectric focusing electrophoresis, am-pholytes create a pH gradient where:

back 112

The higher pH gradient is toward the cathode

front 113

In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer solution of pH 8.6 is used, which of the following characterizes the proteins?

A. Exhibit net negative charge
B. Exhibit net positive charge
C. Exhibit charge neutrality
D. Migrate toward the cathode

back 113

A. Exhibit net negative charge

At the alkaline pH, the serum proteins have a net negative charge. Therefore the negatively charged serum proteins migrate toward the anode.

front 114

What is an anode?

back 114

the positively charged electrode

front 115

What is cathode?

back 115

the negatively charged electrode

front 116

Which of the following characteristics will a protein have at its isoelectric point?

A. Net negative charge
B. Net positive charge
C. Net zero charge
D. Mobility

back 116

C. Net zero charge

front 117

The isoelectric point (pI) of a protein refers ___________?

back 117

to the pH at which the number of positive charges on the protein molecules equals the number of negative charges, causing the protein to have a net charge of zero.

front 118

What dye may be used for staining protein bands following electrophoresis?

A. Fat red 7B
B. Sudan blackB
C. Ponceau S
D. Oil redO

back 118

C. Ponceau S

front 119

When electrophoresis is performed, holes appear in the staining pattern, giving the stained protein band a doughnut-like appearance. What is the probable cause of this problem?

A. Protein denatured and will not stainproperly
B. Ionic strength of the buffer was toohigh
C. Protein reached its isoelectric pointand precipitated out
D. Protein concentration was too high

back 119

D. Protein concentration was too high

front 120

What is the purpose of using ampholytesin isoelectric focusing?

A. Maintain the polyacrylamide gel ina solid state
B. Maintain the protein sample ina charged state
C. Maintain the pH of the buffersolution
D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

back 120

D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

front 121

Which of the following is an electrophoretic technique employing a ph gradient that separates molecules with similar isoelectric points?

A. Zone electrophoresis
B. High-resolution electrophoresis
C. Isoelectric focusing
D. Immunoelectrophoresis

back 121

C. Isoelectric focusing

front 122

Given the following information on a particular compound that has been visualized by means of thin-layer chromatography, calculate the Rf of the compound.
Distance from origin to spot center = 48mm
Distance from spot center to solvent front = 93 mm
Distance from origin to solvent front = 141mm

A. 0.29
B. 0.34
C. 0.52
D. 0.66

back 122

B. 0.34

=origin to spot center/origin to solvent front

=48/141=.34

front 123

To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity, to what type of detector system could a gas chromatograph be coupled?

A. UV spectrophotometer
B. Bichromatic spectrophotometer
C. Mass spectrometer
D. Fluorescence detector

back 123

C. Mass spectrometer

front 124

Which of the following instruments has a sample-introduction system, solvent delivery system, column, and detector as components?

A. Atomic absorption spectrometer
B. Mass spectrometer
C. High-performance liquid chromatograph
D. Nephelometer

back 124

C. High-performance liquid chromatograph

front 125

Which type of elution technique may be used in high-performance liquid chromatography?

A. Amphoteric
B. Isoelectric
C. Gradient
D. Ion exchange

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C. Gradient

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Which of the following statements best describes discrete analysis?

A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled separately in its own reaction vessel.
B. Samples are analyzed in a flowing stream of reagent.
C. Analyzer must be dedicated to measurement of only one analyte.
D. It does not have random access capability.

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A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled separately in its own reaction vessel.

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Which of the following chromatography systems may be described as having a stationary phase that is liquid absorbed on particles packed in a column and a liquid moving phase that is pumped through a column?

A. Thin-layer
B. High-performance liquid
C. Ion-exchange
D. Gas-liquid

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B. High-performance liquid

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Which of the following chromatography systems is characterized by a stationary phase of silica gel on a piece of glass and a moving phase of liquid?

A. Thin-layer

B. Ion-exchange

C. Gas-liquid

D. Partition

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A. Thin-layer

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Which of the following does not apply to gas-liquid chromatography?

A. Separation depends on volatility of the sample.
B. Separation depends on the sample's solubility in the liquid layer of the stationary phase.
C. Stationary phase is a liquid layer adsorbed on the column packing.
D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped through the column.

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D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped through the column.

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Ion-exchange chromatography separates solutes in a sample based on the

A. Solubility of the solutes
B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge
C. Adsorption ability of the solutes
D. Molecular size

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B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge

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Which parameter is used in mass spectrometry to identify a compound?

A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio
B. Molecular size
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Retention time

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A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio

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What is the x-mass on the mass spectrum?

A. Mass

B. Mass/energy

C. Mass/charge

D. Charge

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C. Mass/charge

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A mass spectrum is an __________?

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Intensity vs. mass/ charge ration plot representing an analysis.

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Which chromatography system is commonly used in conjunction with mass spectrometry?

A. High-performance liquid
B. Ion-exchange
C. Partition
D. Gas-liquid

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D. Gas-liquid

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Which of the following may be a sampling source of error for an automated instrument?

A. Short sample
B. Air bubble in bottom of sample cup
C. Fibrin clot in sample probe
D. All the above

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D. All the above

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Checking instrument calibration,temperature accuracy, and electronic parameters are part of

A. Preventive maintenance
B. Quality control
C. Function verification
D. Precision verification

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C. Function verification

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For which of the following laboratory instalments should preventive maintenance procedures be performed and recorded?

A. Analytical balance
B. Centrifuge
C. Chemistry analyzer
D. All the above

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D. All the above

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Which hemoglobin may be differentiated from other hemoglobins on the basis of its resistance to denature in alkaline solution?

A. A1
B. A2
C. C
D. F

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D. F

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In the Clark electrode, for every molecule of oxygen reduced at the cathode, how many electrons of current flow?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

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C. 4

With each molecule of oxygen that is reduced at the cathode, it causes four electrons of the current flow

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When performing electrophoresis at pH 8.6, which hemoglobin molecule migrates the fastest on cellulose acetate toward the anode?

A. A1
B. A2
C. F
D. S

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A. A1

Hemoglobin A migrates the fasts toward anode, followed by hemoglobin F and S. Then A2 and C.

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When using EMIT, the enzyme is coupled to

A. Antibody
B. Antigen
C. Substrate
D. Coenzyme

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B. Antigen

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Which of the following is not associated with the enzyme-multiplied immunoassaytechnique (EMIT)?

A. Is a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay
B. Determines antigen concentration
C. Employs a labeled reactant
D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum sample

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D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum sample

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Which of the following stimulates the production of singlet oxygen at the surface of the sensitizer particle in a luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay?

A. Radiant energy
B. Heat energy
C. Enzymatic reaction
D. Fluorescent irradiation

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A. Radiant energy

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Singlet oxygen reacting with a precursor chemiluminescent compound to form a decay product whose light energizes a fluorophore best describes

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
C. Electrochemiluminescence immunoassay
D. Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay

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D. Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay

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pre-analytical variables in lab testing include:

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specimen acceptability

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which of the following is NOT a potential source of post-analytical errors?

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labeling the specimen at the nurse's station

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a pre-analytical error can be introduced by:

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vigorously shaking the blood tube to prevent clotting

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the most important diagnosis and therapeutic mgmt decision tool used to interpret test results is:

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reference intervals

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a CC (clean-catch) urine is submitted to the lab for routine UA/Culture. the routine UA is done first, and 3 hours later, the specimen is sent to micro for culture. the specimen should:

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rejected for time delay

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Urine samples should be examined within 1 hour of voiding because:

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bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine

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a urine comes to the lab 7 hours after it is collected. it is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored:

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at 4-7C

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which of the following statements about analytical errors is true?

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analytical errors are not obvious to providers

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the first procedure to be followed if the blood gas instrument is out of control for all parameters is:

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recalibrate and repeat controls

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upon completion of a run of cholesterol tests, the tech recognizes that the controls are not within the 2 standard deviations confidence range. what is the appropriate course of action?

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run new set of controls and repeat specimens

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Using a common labeling system for hazardous material identification such as HMIS or NFPA 704, the top red quadrant represents which hazard?
a reactivity
b special reactivity
c health
d flammability

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flammability