Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?

D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Brain injury secondary to high serum bilirubin is called

C. kernicterus.

A patient being treated for hepatic encephalopathy could be expected to receive a(n) ________ diet.

A. low-protein and high-fiber

Diarrhea causes

C. metabolic acidosis.

Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n)

C. communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in

B. fibrinolysis.

To avoid the progression of cutaneous lesions, a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) should

A. avoid sun exposure.

A silent abdomen 3 hours after bowel surgery most likely indicates

D. functional bowel obstruction.

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because

D. GFR declines.

Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?

D. Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)

The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is

C. adhesions.

Surgical removal of a gland may result in

B. hyposecretion.

A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop

D. hypercalcemia.

Somatic death refers to death

B. of the entire organism.

Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by

A. norepinephrine.

Hyperaldosteronism causes

B. ECV excess and hypokalemia.

The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of

D. resistance.

The direct cause of stress incontinence is

B. pelvic muscle weakness.

The primary reason that prolonged seizure activity predisposes to ischemic brain damage is that

D. the lack of airway maintenance can lead to hypoxia.

A major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is

C. noncompliance.

Steatohepatitis is caused by an accumulation of ________ in the liver cells.

A. fat

RhoGAM (an Rh antibody) would be appropriate in an Rh-_____ woman with an _____ Rh-_____ antibody titer carrying an Rh-_____ fetus.

C. negative; negative; positive

Parkinson disease is associated with

D. a deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra.

Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the spinal cord.

A. True

A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is

A. Bence Jones proteins in the urine.

Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism

D. result from decreased serum ionized calcium.

In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?

B. Class II, Compensated Stage

Systemic disorders include

D. rheumatoid arthritis.

It is true that fibrocystic breast disease

B. may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.

The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI) is prevention.

A. True

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction. This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)

A. elderly woman without a previous history of MI.

Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage

B. myasthenia gravis.

A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing

A. dysmenorrhea.

Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include

C. confusion, lethargy, coma, and perhaps seizures.

A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes

D. early menarche and late first pregnancy.

The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in the United States is

D. sepsis.

An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with

D. shift to the left.

The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 1 diabetes is

A. pancreatic β-cell destruction.

In addition to renal colic pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include

A. hematuria.

One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is

B. pelvic tumor.

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is

D. pulmonary embolus.

What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client’s report of dysphagia?

C. Chest pain during meals

The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is

C. bone pain

Administration of which therapy is most appropriate for hypovolemic shock?

A. Crystalloids

The pain of nonarticular rheumatism (“growing pain”) is worse

D. during the night

Reperfusion injury to cells

D. involves formation of free radicals.

The liver is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of VIII.

A. True

A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/minute on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?

C. Ventricular escape rhythm

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases

C. water reabsorption in the collecting tubule of the kidney.

People who have osteoporosis are at risk for

D. bone fractures.

The most definitive diagnostic method for active tuberculosis is acquired via

A. sputum culture.

The major cause of glomerulonephritis is

B. immune system damage to the glomeruli.

It is true that Graves disease is

B. associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors.

Which symptom suggests the presence of a hiatal hernia?

B. heartburn

Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.

C. secondary

Tissues are able to autoregulate their rate of blood flow by controlling

C. vascular resistance.

Although skin manifestations may occur in numerous locations, the classic presentation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) includes

D. a butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose.

The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called

C. glycogenolysis.

Ascending paralysis with no loss of sensation is characteristic of

B. Guillain-Barré syndrome.

Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include

B. intermittent claudication.

The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to secondary hypertension.

A. True

Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is

D. calcium.

In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis may be associated with

D. systemic aching in the musculoskeletal system.

________ edema occurs when ischemic tissue swells because of cellular energy failure.

D. Cytotoxic

It is true that encephalitis is usually

C. because of a viral infection in brain cells.

Cor pulmonale refers to

C. right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension

The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is

A. rickets.

The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves

D. inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.

Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach) is characterized by

B. lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.

A patient injured severely in a motor vehicle accident is hospitalized with acute kidney injury as well as multiple broken bones and lacerations. When family members ask what is meant by the term ‘prerenal,’ the nurse responds

B. “Your husband’s kidney injury did not start in the kidney itself, but rather in the blood flow to the kidney.”

Celiac sprue is a malabsorptive disorder associated with

A. inflammatory reaction to gluten-containing foods.

Which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow?

D. the vena cava

The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is

C. insufficient metabolic acid excretion resulting from nephron loss.

An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by

A. positioning the arm above the heart level.

Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to

C. rupture.

Myxedema coma is a severe condition associated with

A. hypothyroidism.

Obstructive sleep apnea would most likely be found in a patient diagnosed with

C. Pickwickian syndrome.

The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is

B. Escherichia coli.

A college student living in a dormitory reports a stiff neck and headache and is found to have a fever of 102°F. This information is most consistent with

B. meningitis.

A patient who should be routinely evaluated for peptic ulcer disease is one who is

B. being treated with high-dose oral glucocorticoids.

The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is

B. throat infection.

A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.

C. III

Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?

D. Polycystic kidney disease

The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?

A. Q = P/R

Individuals diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are at risk for developing numerous complications of various organs because of

C. immune injury to basement membranes.

Proto-oncogenes

B. are normal cellular genes that promote growth.

A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing

A. vitamin K deficiency bleeding.

Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by

A. hypercalciuria.

The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is

B. ST-segment elevation.

What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?

C. Vasoconstriction

What form of oral rehydration, bottled water or salty broth, is best suited for a patient who is demonstrating signs of clinical dehydration?

D. Salty soup, because it will provide some sodium to help hold the fluid in his blood vessels and interstitial fluid

Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?

A. Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV₁)

After evaluation, a child’s asthma is characterized as “extrinsic.” This means that the asthma is

B. associated with specific allergic triggers.

Two primary acid-base disorders that are present independently are referred to as

D. mixed acid-base imbalance.

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by

C. tissue thromboplastin.

The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury is

B. crescentic glomerulonephritis.

An elderly patient’s blood pressure is measured at 160/98. How would the patient’s left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure?

B. Left ventricular workload is increased with high afterload.

Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt

C. within the same dermatome.

Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?

B. Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures, because

D. they are deficient in active vitamin D.

Clinical manifestations of a stroke within the right cerebral hemisphere include

D. left-sided muscle weakness and neglect.

Hypernatremia may be caused by

B. decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion.

Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm should be suspected if the patient reports

D. sudden, severe headache.

Respiratory acidosis is associated with

A. increased carbonic acid.

Jaundice is a common manifestation of

C. liver disease.

A patient with cold and edematous extremities, low cardiac output, and profound hypotension is likely to be experiencing a progressive stage of ________ shock.

D. septic

In general, with aging, organ size and function

B. decrease.

The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is

D. hypoxemia.

Secondary injury after head trauma refers to

C. brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage.

Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at

B. decreasing myocardial oxygen demands.

What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?

C. Inadequate water intake

Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when

B. the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.

Which intervention has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease?

D.ACE inhibitors

Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?

C. Absent breath sounds on the left

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n)Correct Answer

A. deficient immune response.

Low cardiac output in association with high preload is characteristic of ________ shock.

B. cardiogenic

A patient presents to the physician’s office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.

B. 4 and 7

What is likely to lead to hyponatremia?

D. Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water

Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of

B. associated dermatomes.

The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence

C. is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.

A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of

A. tender point pain.

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is

D. IgE.

Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor. The priority action to take is to

B. initiate action to have the cast split or removed.

Signs and symptoms of extracellular fluid volume excess include

C. bounding pulse.

What laboratory data would support a diagnosis of hemochromatosis?

B. Elevated ferritin

Asthma is categorized as a(n)

C. obstructive pulmonary disorder.

Pain is thought of as

A. a subjective experience that is difficult to measure objectively.

After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will

D. kill rapidly dividing cells.

Mitral stenosis is associated with

B. a pressure gradient across the mitral valve.

The effects of excessive cortisol production include

A. immune suppression.

Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of

B. metabolic acid deficit.

Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure?

C. Sodium

Coagulative necrosis is caused by

D. interrupted blood supply.

The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will

B. decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.

After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of

C. tertiary prevention.

Untreated acute cholecystitis may lead to ________ of the gallbladder wall.

A. gangrene

The effects of histamine release include

C. increased vascular permeability.

The effect of nitric oxide on systemic arterioles is

A. vasodilation.

A patient reporting vision changes, photophobia, and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of

D. Graves disease.

Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of

B. increased pulmonary vascular resistance.

A patient, who is 8 months pregnant, has developed eclampsia and is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures. To determine if her infusion rate is too high, you should regularly

B. check the patellar reflex; if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.

The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is

D. an immune complex reaction.

The effect of stress on the immune system

D. may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.

A type of insulin that would be most appropriate for acute management of hyperglycemia is

C. regular.

The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the

B. DNA

Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?

A. No change in serum glucocorticoid level

Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except

A. allostasis.

Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called

A. tension pneumothorax.

The major cause of death from leukemic disease is

A. infection.

Croup is characterized by

B. a barking cough.

Respiratory acidosis may be caused by

D. hypoventilation.

Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of

A. hyperparathyroidism.

Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they

B. reduce cardiac output.

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is caused by

D. absent or diminished levels of progesterone.

Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by

C. decreased secretion of erythropoietin.

At his most recent clinic visit, a patient with end-stage renal disease is noted to have edema, congestive signs in the pulmonary system, and a pericardial friction rub. Appropriate therapy at this time would include

A. initiation of dialysis.

Which finding is indicative of orthostatic hypotension in a person with a supine blood pressure (BP) of 110/70 and a heart rate (HR) of 100?

A. Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118

Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include

B. proteinuria.

When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called

C. hyperemia.

A patient who reported a very painful sore throat 3 weeks ago is now diagnosed with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. When asked, “Why is my urine the color of coffee?”, the nurse responds

B. “Your immune system was activated by your sore throat and has caused some damage in your kidneys that allows red blood cells to leak into the fluid that becomes urine and make it coffee-colored.”

The process responsible for distribution of fluid between the interstitial and intracellular compartments is

B. osmosis.

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to

D. pulmonary stenosis.

Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes

C. erythropoietin administration.

Constrictive pericarditis is associated with

A. impaired cardiac filling.

Excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion can cause _____ concentration.

B. decreased serum sodium

Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by

A. pH 7.36, PaCO₂ 55, HCO₃ ^– 36.

Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?

B. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is

B. P53.

Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with

A. Epstein–Barr virus.

When systemic vascular resistance is decreased, blood flow

B. decreases.

Velocity of blood flow is measured in

A. centimeters per second.

An increased urine bilirubin is associated with

D. hepatitis.

A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as

A. comminuted.

The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is

C. air embolus.

When exposed to inhaled allergens, a patient with asthma produces large quantities of

B. IgE.

Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have

A. a productive cough.

Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is

C. deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.

Clinical manifestations of severe symptomatic hypophosphatemia are caused by

C. deficiency of ATP.

Legionnaires disease is characterized by

A. presence of systemic illness.

The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called

bcr-abl.

Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD

C. Normal PaCO₂, scant sputum, accessory muscle use, barrel chest

A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating

C. “His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”

A laboratory test result that helps confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is

C. positive antinuclear antibodies.

Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

C. bilateral kidney stones.

The fraction of total body water (TBW) volume contained in the intracellular space in adults is

B. two thirds.

Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?

D. Jaundice

The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is

B. renal colic.

A patient, age 3, has vesicoureteral reflux. “Why does that make him have so many bladder infections?” asks his mother. The nurse’s best response is

B. “When he urinates, urine runs back toward his kidneys and then into the bladder again, making it easy for bacteria to grow if they reach the bladder.”

The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?

B. Stage II

Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of

C. baroreceptor activity.

The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is

A. contrast media.

Treatment for hemophilia A includes

C. factor VIII replacement.

Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?

C. Anticonvulsants

Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the

A. cardinal ligaments.

Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulates the release of _____ from juxtaglomerular cells.

D. renin

A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is

D. chills and fever.

“Tell me again the name of that chemical that makes crystals when my gout flares up,” asks the client. The nurse’s best response is

C. uric acid.

Cerebral aneurysm is most frequently the result of

B. subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Tophi are

B. deposits of urate crystals in tissues.

The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.

A. True

Administration of a vasodilator to a patient in shock would be expected to

C. decrease left ventricular afterload.

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of

D. prostatic enlargement.

Orthostatic hypotension may be a manifestation of

C. Parkinson disease.

The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as

B. subclinical.

A patient who experiences early symptoms of muscle twitching, cramping, and stiffness of the hands may be demonstrating signs of

B. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

Acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of

A. appendicitis.

Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used crystalloid solutions that contain electrolytes.

A. True

A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with

A. hemophilia.

Manifestations from sodium imbalances occur primarily as a result of

A. cellular fluid shifts.

Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by

B. recipient antibodies.

When a patient experiencing nephrotic syndrome asks, “What causes my urine to be so full of protein,” the nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that

B. the glomerular membrane has increased permeability.

Hypertension is closely linked to

A. obstructive sleep apnea.

It is true that polycystic kidney disease is

D. genetically transmitted.

The physiologic change most likely to lead to an increase in intracranial pressure is

B. cerebral vasodilation.

Lack of α-antitrypsin in emphysema causes

B. destruction of alveolar tissue.

A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for

A. endocrine disorders.

Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include

C. hematuria.

A patient receiving chemotherapy may be at greater risk for development of

B. stomatitis.

Normal bile is composed of

A. water, electrolytes, and organic solutes.

After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

A. Continue lifestyle modifications only.

A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by

B. decreased residual volume.

The stage of spinal shock that follows spinal cord injury is characterized by

C. absent spinal reflexes below the level of injury.

Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?

B. Purpura

In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with

C. high cardiac output.

Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by

D. elevated bicarbonate ion concentration.

The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is

D. intracellular accumulations.

Leakage of CSF from the nose or ears is commonly associated with

C. basilar skull fracture.

The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is generally described as ________ in nature.

B. steady and boring

The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.

B. tubular

Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.

B. False

What effect do demyelinating disorders such as multiple sclerosis have on neurotransmission?

A. Slower rate of action potential conduction

Fecal leukocyte screening would be indicated in a patient with suspected

B. enterocolitis.

In addition to E. coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is

A. urinary retention and reflux.

Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of

A. hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.

Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries

B. have the largest total cross-sectional area.

The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath, nasal flaring, coughing, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles. There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas. How should you interpret your assessment?

D. The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately.

A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously. This patient presents with

C. telangiectasia.

A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is

B. hyponatremia.

Patients who experience anemic episodes when exposed to certain drugs most likely have

D. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.

Most gallstones are composed of

B. cholesterol.

A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit

B. pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.

Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum

C. bilirubin.

What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?

D. Pancytopenia

Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called

D. pleural effusion.

A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with hematemesis and profound anemia. The expected diagnosis is

D. gastroesophageal varices.

A ureterocele is

C. a cystic dilation of a ureter.

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?

C. Iron deficiency

Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of

B. peripheral pooling of blood.

The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n)

A. elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate.

An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is

D. histamine.

A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is

D. broken and protruding through the skin.

Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular

B. death

Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of

B. endorphins.

Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes

A. fluid administration.

Liver transaminase elevations in which aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is markedly greater than alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is characteristic of

B. alcohol-induced injury.

Abnormalities in intracellular regulation of enzyme activity and cellular production of ATP are associated with

C. hypophosphatemia.

It is recommended that women of childbearing age take folic acid daily for prevention of

A. neural tube defects.

What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose management in patients with diabetes mellitus?

C. Glycosylated hemoglobin levels (HbA_1c)

The final step in clot formation is

D. clot retraction.

The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is

A. less than 100 mL.

Clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume deficit include

A. weak pulse, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate.

The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of

A. tumor necrosis factor.

Neuromuscular disorders impair lung function primarily because of

C. weak muscles of respiration.

Sepsis has been recently redefined as

C. a systemic inflammatory response to infection.

After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor

B. is malignant.

What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?

D. Absence

Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for

C. urge incontinence

Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?

D. Septic

Diabetes mellitus is the ________ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.

D. seventh

The most common presenting sign/symptom with rheumatic fever is

B. polyarthritis.

In the acute phase of stroke, treatment is focused on

A. stabilization of respiratory and cardiovascular function.

Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of

C. testicular torsion.

A patient who has difficulty walking without assistance is incontinent of urine when help doesn’t get to her quickly enough. The term for this type of incontinence is

B. functional.

Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions, because

A. massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.

Premature infants are at greater risk for developing

A. necrotizing enterocolitis.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.

A. True

A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.

B. latent

The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is

D. intravenous therapy.

Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including

D. Burkitt lymphoma.

Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is

A. development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.

Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test.

A. Papanicolaou

An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized) is associated with

A. hypokalemia.

A level of ____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates likely fatal damage.

A. 3

Which complication of asthma is life threatening?

C. Status asthmaticus

Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.

D. mortality

The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves

A. immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage.

The chief pathologic features of osteoarthritis are

C. degeneration of articular cartilage, destruction of the bone under the cartilage, and thickening of the synovium.

A patient presenting with muscle cramps, fatigue, anxiety, depression, and prolonged Q-T intervals on EKG may be showing symptoms of

B. hypoparathyroidism.

New-organ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.

B. False

The patient who requires the most careful monitoring for development of metabolic acidosis is a patient who

C. has had diarrhea for over a week.

Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?

C. Anaphylactic

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is

A. serum creatinine.

Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of

D. vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).

Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves

A. impaired muscle function.

Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.

B. mean arterial

A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of

B. octreotide acetate.

Upper extremity weakness in association with degeneration of CNS neurons is characteristic of

D. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient

D. has chronic heart failure that is treated with diuretics.

Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.

A. True

The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is

B. Escherichia coli.

Cystic fibrosis is associated with

C. bronchiectasis.

Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring?

A. Mutant tumor-suppressor gene

The goal of long term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to

D. prevent further clot formation.

The progressive stage of hypovolemic shock is characterized by

A. tachycardia.

Metaplasia is

A. the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.

Growth hormone-deficient infants would display

B. normal birth length and weight.

The earliest manifestation of scleroderma is

D. Raynaud phenomenon.

The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age

C. 8

Carbon monoxide injures cells by

B. reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.

A person who overuses magnesium-aluminum antacids for a long period of time is likely to develop

C. hypophosphatemia.

The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is

D. selective IgA.

The risk for contrast media–induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in

A. a 70-year-old patient with heart failure.

The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is

A. insufficient erythropoietin.

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include

B. muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.

In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.

B. False

Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with

D. increased blood ammonia levels.

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

A. Thrombocytopenia

An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second) QRS complex is characteristic of

D. premature ventricular complexes.

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with

A. nonketotic hyperosmolality.

The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by

C. increased residual lung volumes.

The condition associated with end-stage chronic renal disease that is the most immediately life threatening is

D. hyperkalemia.

Dopamine precursors and anticholinergics are all used in the management of Parkinson disease, because they

A. increase dopamine activity in the basal ganglia.

The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the

B. kidney.

Hepatitis with the presence of autoantibodies and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is

B. autoimmune hepatitis.

One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is

A. hypertension.

Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause

A. bladder contraction.

Slow pain sensation is transmitted primarily by

C. unmyelinated C fibers.

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in

A. increased pH, increased HCO₃ ^–.

The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is

B. lack of surfactant.

Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of

A. release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells.

0 / 0.05 ptsA patient who reports an intestinal fistula also reports feeling “weak and dizzy” when she stands. While taking her blood pressure she becomes temporarily unresponsive but quickly regains consciousness when put into a supine position. What nursing interventions will the nurse implement before calling the physician?

C. Give her water or juice and some salty crackers and ask if she has had any diarrhea or vomiting.

A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop

B. respiratory alkalosis.

Glomerular disorders include

D. nephrotic syndrome.

Sexual impotence is rarely because of

C. primary causes.

The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.

D. respiratory

A patient has been hospitalized several times in 6 months with severe ECV depletion and hypokalemia resulting from chronic laxative abuse. Which blood gas results should be relayed to the physician?

B. pH in high part of normal range, PaO₂ normal, PaCO₂ high, bicarbonate high

Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream. This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be

B. an autoimmune process.

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is

C. ultrasonography.

Empyema is defined as an

B. infection in the pleural space.

A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is

C. tremors.

Which electrolyte imbalances cause increased neuromuscular excitability?

C. Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia

What is necessary for red blood cell production?

B. Iron

A disease that is native to a particular region is called

B. endemic.

________ disease is a rare autosomal recessive disorder in which excessive amounts of copper accumulate in the liver.

B. Wilson

A risk factor for osteoporosis is

B. early menopause.

The arterial oxygen content (CaO₂) for a patient with PaO₂ 100 mm Hg, SaO₂ 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is _____ mL oxygen/dL.

A. 19.4

A clinical finding that is consistent with a diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency is

B. hypoglycemia

The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.

A. True

Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by

A. inflammation, stiffness, and fusion of spinal joints.

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

A. diastolic murmur.

The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

B. measured to improve oxygenation.

Ulcerative colitis is commonly associated with

A. bloody diarrhea.

Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a

A. fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.

Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called

D. bursitis.

A patient with flail chest will demonstrate

D. outward chest movement on expiration.

Effects of hypernatremia on the central nervous system typically include

A. confusion.

C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is

B. streptococcal infection.

A patient with chronic gastritis would likely be tested for

A. Helicobacter pylori.

The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease.

A. True

A cause of thrombocytopenia includes

C. chemotherapy.

The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma.

B. False

First-degree heart block is characterized by

A. prolonged PR interval.

Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?

D. CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely

D. carcinoma.

A patient with pancreatitis may experience muscle cramps secondary to

C. hypocalcemia.

Paget’s disease is characterized by

B. excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.

Risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include

C. acute hypertension.

Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of

C. pancreatitis.

A known cause of hypokalemia is

C. insulin overdose.

The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed

A. nociception.

Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina.

D. Prinzmetal variant

All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except

A. necrosis.

A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient’s symptomology is most likely related to

B. hypotension.

Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause

C. hematuria.

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by

A. fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.

A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease is

D. increased serum creatinine.

Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?

A. Liver

Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis?

A. The age of onset ranges from 20 to 50 years.

A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is

C. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).

In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with

A. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).

The definitive treatment for cholecystitis is

D. cholecystectomy.

The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ________ mg/dL for adults with diabetes.

A. less than 180

Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to

B. soft-tissue damage.

Propylthiouracil may be used to treat hyperthyroidism, because it

D. inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.

A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic.

B. False

The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with

D. antibiotics.

The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease.

B. False

Intracranial pressure normally ranges from ______ mm Hg.

A. 0 to 15

A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.

B. migraine

Myocarditis should be suspected in a patient who presents with

B. acute onset of left ventricular dysfunction.

A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is

D. aspirin.

Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in

C. increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.

Risk factors for atherosclerosis include

B. hyperlipidemia.

Renal insufficiency occurs when _____ of the nephrons are not functional.

C. 75% to 90%

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by

A. hyperventilation

Most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as

B. bicarbonate ion.

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (adrenogenital syndrome) results from

D. blocked cortisol production.

Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called

D. overflow incontinence.

Peripheral edema is a result of

B. venous thrombosis.

An example of an acyanotic heart defect is

C. ventricular septal defect.

The primary effect of aging on all body systems is

A. decreased functional reserve.

A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is

B. dehydration.

In which dysrhythmias should treatment be instituted immediately?

D. Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/minute

The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is

A. smoking.

Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

A. severe hypotension.

The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.

C. 9

A 3-year-old is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?

C. Rapid, deep breathing, lethargy, abdominal pain

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest. The likely cause of this pain is

A. stable angina.

Venous obstruction leads to edema because it ________ pressure.

D. increases capillary hydrostatic

Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of

B. intrinsic factor.

Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?

D. Insulin

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which

C. acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.

A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a

A. radical mastectomy.

Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as

C. hyperemesis gravidarum.

Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of

B. cardiac tamponade.

Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of

A. thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.

It is true that epidural bleeding is

D. characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.

A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is

B. mast cells.

What compensatory sign would be expected during periods of physical exertion in a patient with limited ventricular stroke volume?

D. Tachycardia

Cryptorchidism is

A. associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.

A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival. Which response is correct?

B. “Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate.”

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of

D. increased neuromuscular excitability.

Which causes vasoconstriction?

A. Norepinephrine

To best prevent emphysema, a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke

A. impairs α₁-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as

C. epispadias

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually managed with volume expansion and blood pressure support to enhance cerebral perfusion. This is necessary because subarachnoid hemorrhage predisposes to

A. cerebral vasospasm.

A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is

A. elevated total iron-binding capacity.

It is true that biliary cancer

D. tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.

Obstructive disorders are associated with

B. low expiratory flow rates.

Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection?

D. Cyanosis

A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lbs. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient’s blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

B. Begin antihypertensive drug therapy.

A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is

A. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

The most common causes of prehepatic jaundice are ________ and ineffective erythropoiesis.

A. hemolysis

The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is

B. hematuria.

Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.

B. posterior

In the United States, nearly ________ people have diabetes mellitus.

B. 29.1 million

Pain in fibromyalgia involves

D. changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.

What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?

C. Cystocele

While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). What is the significance of this finding?

A. Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.

The imbalance that occurs with oliguric renal failure is

B. hyperkalemia.

Enteropathic arthritis is associated with

B. inflammatory bowel disease.

A common component of renal calculi is

B. calcium

Which alterations can lead to edema?

C. Decreased lymphatic flow

While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is

C. activity restriction.

The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.

A. True

Ankylosing spondylitis causes

A. intervertebral joint fusion.

Copious amounts of foul-smelling sputum are generally associated with

D. bronchiectasis.

In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.

B. False

The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.

D. threshold

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with

B. antiplatelet drugs.

“Please explain the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis to me,” says another nurse. “Is it just wear and tear so that the cartilage wears out?” Your best response is

C. “No; cells in bone, cartilage, and the synovial membrane all get activated and secrete inflammatory mediators that destroy cartilage and damage bone.”

Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?

B. Sexually active women

A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of

A. bacterial pneumonia.

Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body, because they

B. have no cytoplasmic organelles.

The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is

A. acute glomerulonephritis.

A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of

D. hypertensive crisis.

Endometriosis is a condition in which

B. ectopic endometrial tissue is present.

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is

D. dry cough.

The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is

C. bicarbonate.

If an individual has a fully compensated metabolic acidosis, the blood pH is

C. in the normal range.

The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 2 diabetes is

B. insulin resistance and β-cell dysfunction.

The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type

D. IV

The most common source of osteomyelitis is

A. an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.

The inward-pulling force of particles in the vascular fluid is called _____ pressure.

C. capillary osmotic

________ occurs when a brainstem impaired patient exhibits a persistent rhythmic or jerky movement in one or both eyes.

A. Nystagmus

The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in

C. non-Hispanic black adults.

Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with

B. recurrent cystitis.

The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a measure of the integrity of

B. the intrinsic pathway.

The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is

B. hydronephrosis.

The major underlying factor leading to the edema associated with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome is

D. hematuria.

If acute tubular necrosis (ATN) does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues, the patient will then experience

D. polyuria and sodium wasting.

In type I diabetes, respiratory compensation may occur through a process of

A. respiratory alkalosis.

A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is

D. increased urinary protein.

A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience

A. fever

Patients with structural evidence of heart failure who exhibit no signs or symptoms are classified into which New York Heart Association heart failure class?

A. Class I

Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ________ in the urine.

D. protein

It is true that the synthesis of thyroid hormones

D. is inhibited by iodine deficiency.

Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by

D. hypokalemia.

An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to

B. dehydration.

A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT) and INR, is indicative of

A. vitamin K deficiency.

Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as

B. hyperemesis gravidarum.

Manifestations of acute brain ischemia (Cushing reflex) are due primarily to

B. sympathetic nervous system activation.

Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.

B. Candida albicans

A person who experiences a panic attack and develops hyperventilation symptoms may experience

C. numbness and tingling in the extremities.

Absence of menstruation is called

A. amenorrhea.

Barrett esophagus is a

B. preneoplastic lesion.

A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n)

C. osteosarcoma.

Tumor necrosis factor α and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of

C. nitric oxide.

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as

C. carcinomas.

The signs and symptoms of adrenocortical hormone excess may occur from either a primary or secondary disorder. A symptom associated with primary Cushing syndrome is

C. hyperglycemia.

A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath. The lung sounds are absent on one side. This patient is experiencing ________ shock.

B. obstructive

Emesis causes

D. metabolic alkalosis.

A patient diagnosed with chronic compensated heart failure reports that, “My feet swell if I eat salt but I don’t understand why” The nurse’s best response is

A. “Salt holds water in your blood and makes more pressure against your blood vessels, so fluid leaks out into your tissues and makes them swell.”

A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) disease is

B. immunosuppression.

The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of

D. interstitial cystitis.

The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is

A. energy and repair.

Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.

A. True

Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by

C. accumulation of alveolar exudates.

Pulse pressure is defined as

C. systolic pressure – diastolic pressure.

One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is

A. ischemic conditions.

Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after __________ procedures.

D. gastric bypass

Prosthetic joint infection is most often because of

C. hematogenous transfer.

An early indicator of colon cancer is

C. a change in bowel habits.

A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of

B. secondary prevention.

What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?

C. Uremia

Esophageal varices represent a complication of ________ hypertension.

C. portal

Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?

D. Hemolytic anemia

The majority of tachydysrhythmias are believed to occur because of

D. reentry mechanisms.

Left-sided heart failure is characterized by

A. pulmonary congestion.

The most challenging aspect of treatment for chronic pancreatitis is

D. pain control

Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?

A. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. The correct response is which of the following?

A. It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.

Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by

D. increasing fiber in the diet.

What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?

D. Resistance increases by a factor of 16.

Muscular dystrophy includes a number of muscle disorders that are

A. genetically transmitted.

Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of

A. noncontractile tissue injury.

When preparing for the admission of a client diagnosed with bronchiectasis, the nurse will

A. put a sputum cup and a box of tissues on the bedside table.

The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called

A. subluxation.

Widespread atelectasis, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and diffuse, fluffy alveolar infiltrates on chest radiograph are characteristic of

A. acute respiratory distress syndrome.

Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in

B. permanent damage and death.

Diabetes insipidus is a condition that

A. results from inadequate ADH secretion.

The most important determinant for prescribing therapy for acute stroke is

C. ischemic versus hemorrhagic cause.

A patient diagnosed with diabetes, smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and eats very few green leafy vegetables. After experiencing a fractured toe, this patient is at risk for

A. delayed healing.

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?

B. Carbonic

Allostasis is best defined as

D. the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.

Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by

C. autoimmune injury.

Diabetic neuropathy is thought to result from

A. decreased myoinositol transport.

Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except

D. pupil constriction.

Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to

C. blood or semen.

The dementia of Alzheimer disease is associated with structural changes in the brain, including

A. deposition of amyloid plaques in the brain.

Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by

B. the autonomic nervous system.

Causes of metabolic acidosis include

C. tissue anoxia.

It is true that gallstones are

B. more common in women.