Print DNA Tech Ch 20 Connect Assignment flashcards - Easy Notecards

Print Options

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing

Print the notecards
Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together

To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

186 notecards = 47 pages (4 cards per page)

DNA Tech Ch 20 Connect Assignment

front 1 ____ DNA technology uses in vitro molecular techniques that combine DNA fragments to produce novel arrangements.	back 1 Recombinant
front 2 A molecule that has covalently linked DNA fragments from at least two sources is called a ____ ____ molecule.	back 2 recombinant DNA
front 3 Making many copies of a particular DNA segment using vectors or the polymerase chain reaction is called gene	back 3 cloning
front 4 You would ____ a gene to make many copies of that gene.	back 4 Blank 1: clone or amplify

front 5 Which of the following is pharmaceutical product that is produced by bacteria expressing the human gene? Multiple choice question. Insulin Simvastatin Oxycodone Aspirin	back 5 Insulin
front 6 What is recombinant DNA technology? Multiple choice question. The only way to cure disease The production of new arrangements of DNA Double-stranded breaks in chromosomes The control of expression of bacterial genes	back 6 The production of new arrangements of DNA
front 7 A particular gene to be cloned is often isolated from ______. Multiple choice question. bacterial DNA only in vitro constructed DNA chromosomal DNA RNA	back 7 chromosomal DNA
front 8 A recombinant DNA molecule has covalently linked DNA fragments from ______. Multiple choice question. bacteria and viruses genes that encode protein and pseudogenes at least two different sources bacteria and humans only	back 8 at least two different sources

front 9 What is a cloning vector? Multiple choice question. A molecule that carries the DNA to be cloned A large DNA molecule with many genes A molecule that creates mutations in DNA segments A cell from the Domain Archaea	back 9 A molecule that carries the DNA to be cloned
front 10 The replication of recombinant DNA molecules inside a host cell is one form of ______. Multiple choice question. DNA sequencing mutagenesis gene cloning Northern blotting	back 10 gene cloning
front 11 What is the term that describes a cell that contains a DNA cloning vector? Multiple choice question. Site-directed mutant Vectorized cell Bacteriophage Host cell	back 11 Host cell
front 12 What is the purpose of gene cloning? Multiple choice question. To determine what vectors are plasmids To analyze DNA binding proteins To track the inheritance of an allele To produce many copies of a DNA molecule of interest	back 12 To produce many copies of a DNA molecule of interest

front 13 A small circular DNA molecule that is often used as a vector in gene cloning is called a(n)	back 13 plasmid
front 14 Select all that apply Which of the following are common uses of gene cloning? Multiple select question. The expression of a cloned gene can be used to discover its cellular function. Cloned genes can be introduced into bacteria to make medicines. Cloned genes are always used in forensic investigations. Cloned genes can be used in trials of gene therapy.	back 14 The expression of a cloned gene can be used to discover its cellular function. Cloned genes can be introduced into bacteria to make medicines. Cloned genes can be used in trials of gene therapy.
front 15 Naturally occurring plasmids that confer resistance to antibiotics are called	back 15 Blank 1: R Blank 2: plasmids, factors, or factor
front 16 True or false: Chromosomal DNA is a common source of cloned DNA.	back 16 True Reason: Although any DNA can be cloned, it is convenient to separate the gene of interest from the chromosomal DNA.

front 17 A vector requires an origin of replication so that it can be ______. Multiple choice question. analyzed through DNA sequencing altered by the host cell used to express proteins copied many times by the host cell	back 17 copied many times by the host cell
front 18 A DNA molecule that acts as a carrier of DNA that is to be cloned is called a(n) ______. Multiple choice question. cloning vector initiation complex transfer RNA selectable marker	back 18 cloning vector
front 19 A cell that harbors a vector is called a	back 19 host cell
front 20 Which sequence determines whether or not a vector can replicate in a particular cell? Multiple choice question. The origin of replication The translation start site The antibiotic resistance site An Eco RI restriction site	back 20 The origin of replication

front 21 What is a plasmid? Multiple choice question. A gene for a selectable marker, such as antibiotic resistance A small circular DNA molecule often used as a vector in gene cloning A virus that is missing several genes and is often used as a vector in gene cloning A large linear DNA molecule with an origin of replication	back 21 A small circular DNA molecule often used as a vector in gene cloning
front 22 A vector must contain the ____ ____ that is recognized by the species of the host cell and allows the host cell to make lots of copies of the vector.	back 22 origin of replication
front 23 R factors make useful vectors because they ______. Multiple choice question. confer resistance to antibiotics can accept chromosomal DNA do not contain an origin of replication are especially small	back 23 confer resistance to antibiotics
front 24 Why would one use a vector with a selectable marker? Multiple choice question. To identify protein-binding DNA sequences To identify cells containing the vector To create site-directed mutants To allow the enzymes of the host cell to replicate the vector	back 24 To identify cells containing the vector Reason: Genes for enzymes that replicate the vector are on the host cell chromosome.

front 25 What do you call the DNA sequence in a vector that allows the replication enzymes of the cell to make lots of copies of the vector? Multiple choice question. Antibiotic resistance gene Promoter and operator Origin of replication Selectable marker	back 25 Origin of replication
front 26 True or false: Viruses cannot be used as vectors in gene cloning.	back 26 False Reason: Viruses can be used as vectors, typically to carry small pieces of DNA.
front 27 What is a cloning vector? Multiple choice question. A cell from the Domain Archaea A molecule that creates mutations in DNA segments A large DNA molecule with many genes A molecule that carries the DNA to be cloned	back 27 A molecule that carries the DNA to be cloned
front 28 Which of the following vectors would you use to clone a large piece of DNA? Multiple choice question. R plasmid Host cell Cosmid Virus	back 28 Cosmid Reason: Viruses are commonly used to clone small segments of DNA.

front 29 The sequence of the ____ of ____ determines whether or not a vector can replicate in a particular type of host cell.	back 29 Blank 1: origin Blank 2: replication
front 30 Enzymes that bind to a specific DNA sequence and cut the DNA backbone are called	back 30 Blank 1: restriction Blank 2: endonucleases or enzymes
front 31 In gene cloning, how is a suitable vector chosen? Multiple choice question. It must be a very specific size It must contain 3 or more antibiotic resistance genes It must replicate in only one cell type It must replicate in the appropriate cell type	back 31 It must replicate in the appropriate cell type
front 32 Many species of bacterial cells make restriction enzymes to protect themselves from invasion by	back 32 Blank 1: bacteriophages, viruses, DNA, or phages

front 33 A resistance gene that allows a host cell containing a vector to grow on a toxic substance is called a(n)	back 33 selectable marker
front 34 Viruses can be used as ____ to carry other pieces of DNA.	back 34 vectors
front 35 "Sticky ends" created by cutting DNA with a restriction enzyme are useful in cloning because they ______. Multiple choice question. allow the identification of host cells containing vectors are only created in vector DNA are important in producing RNA are areas where two pieces of DNA can hydrogen bond	back 35 are areas where two pieces of DNA can hydrogen bond Reason: Genetic markers are used to identify host cells that contain vectors.
front 36 Select all that apply Select all vectors that can be used to clone large segments of DNA. Multiple select question. BACs Plasmids Cosmids YACs	back 36 BACs Cosmids YACs

front 37 When cloning a gene into a vector, the sugar-phosphate backbone of each DNA molecule is covalently linked by the enzyme DNA	back 37 ligase
front 38 Restriction endonucleases are used in gene cloning to ______. Multiple choice question. cut the DNA backbone and reveal protein-binding sequences create site-directed mutants cut the DNA backbone prior to inserting the DNA to be cloned identify host cells containing vectors	back 38 cut the DNA backbone prior to inserting the DNA to be cloned Reason: There are other protein-binding sequences besides the ones recognized by restriction enzymes.
front 39 Fill in the blank question. A DNA sequence in one strand that is identical when read in the opposite direction in the other strand is called a ____ sequence.	back 39 palindromic
front 40 How does a bacterial cell use restriction enzymes? Multiple choice question. To determine the nucleotide sequence of the cloned DNA To help the replication enzymes make many copies of the vector To protect the cell against engulfment by a white blood cell To protect the cell against invasion by bacteriophages	back 40 To protect the cell against invasion by bacteriophages

front 41 Select the sequence that is palindromic. Multiple choice question. 5'-AAGGAA-3' 3'-TTCCTT-5' 5'-CCACCA-3' 3'-GGTGGT-5' 5'-GGATCC-3' 3'-CCTAGG-5'	back 41 5'-GGATCC-3' 3'-CCTAGG-5'
front 42 Single-stranded stretches of DNA created by restriction enzymes, such as those shown on the left and right sides of the molecule in the figure, are called	back 42 sticky ends
front 43 Click and drag on elements in order Order the following steps in cloning a gene, putting the first step at the top. The digested chromosomal DNA and plasmid DNA are incubated together. Ligation by DNA ligase. Chromosomal DNA is isolated and cut with a restriction enzyme; the plasmid DNA is cut with the same enzyme.	back 43 1. Chromosomal DNA is isolated and cut with a restriction enzyme; the plasmid DNA is cut with the same enzyme. 2. The digested chromosomal DNA and plasmid DNA are incubated together. 3. Ligation by DNA ligase.
front 44 What does the enzyme DNA ligase do? Multiple choice question. It cuts the DNA backbone at a specific sequence. It binds to DNA and prevents other enzymes from cutting the backbone. It covalently links the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA. It binds to DNA and prevents RNA polymerase form binding.	back 44 It covalently links the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA.

front 45 A recombinant vector ______. Multiple choice question. has ligated back to its original form never contains foreign DNA contains a piece of chromosomal DNA always has the same restriction sites	back 45 contains a piece of chromosomal DNA
front 46 Restriction enzymes usually recognize ____ sequences in which the sequence in one strand is identical to the complementary strand read in the opposite direction.	back 46 palindromic
front 47 If the two ends of a vector cut with a restriction enzyme ligate back together without an insert, a ____ vector has been created.	back 47 recircularized
front 48 Cells that can take up DNA from the medium are considered ____ cells.	back 48 competent

front 49 In a palindromic sequence, The sequence in one strand ______. Multiple choice question. is the same in the complementary strand when read in the same direction is the same when read 5' to 3' or 3' to 5' is the same in the complementary strand when read in the opposite direction	back 49 is the same in the complementary strand when read in the opposite direction
front 50 When cloning a gene, why must the chromosomal DNA and the plasmid DNA be cut with the same restriction enzyme? Multiple choice question. The sticky ends of the plasmid DNA will be complementary to the sticky ends of the chromosomal DNA. The chromosomal DNA fragments will have sticky ends, but the plasmid DNA will not. The chromosomal DNA and the plasmid will both be cut into many small pieces. The chromosomal DNA and the plasmid DNA will both have their selectable markers cleaved.	back 50 The sticky ends of the plasmid DNA will be complementary to the sticky ends of the chromosomal DNA.
front 51 Transformation occurs when ______. Multiple choice question. a piece of chromosomal DNA is ligated into a plasmid vector competent cells take up DNA from the medium restriction enzymes cut the DNA backbone and create sticky ends a virus is used as a vector instead of a plasmid	back 51 competent cells take up DNA from the medium Reason: The ligation of a gene into a vector is not the same as transformation, the uptake of extracellular DNA into a cell.
front 52 Fill in the blank question. A vector that contains a piece of chromosomal DNA is referred to as a ____ vector.	back 52 recombinant

front 53 A recircularized vector is one that has ______. Multiple choice question. been transformed into a host cell ligated with a second, different vector ligated with itself many copies of the chromosomal DNA insert	back 53 ligated with itself Reason: A recircularized vector does not contain any inserts.
front 54 If bacteria are transformed with a plasmid carrying an antibiotic-resistance gene, one would expect progeny of that cell to ______ when exposed to the antibiotic. Multiple choice question. lyse remain in stasis grow die	back 54 grow
front 55 In gene cloning, cells are treated with agents that ______, creating competent cells. Multiple choice question. make them resistant to antibiotics protect them against bacteriophage invasion make them permeable to DNA make them glow in the dark	back 55 make them permeable to DNA
front 56 Select the sequence that is palindromic. Multiple choice question. 5'-AAGGAA-3' 3'-TTCCTT-5' 5'-CCACCA-3' 3'-GGTGGT-5' 5'-GGATCC-3' 3'-CCTAGG-5'	back 56 5'-GGATCC-3' 3'-CCTAGG-5'

front 57 The enzyme that uses RNA as a template to make a complementary strand of DNA is called	back 57 reverse transcriptase
front 58 The process by which competent cells take up DNA from the extracellular medium is called	back 58 transformation
front 59 Select all that apply Select the reagents needed to make cDNA. Multiple select question. Taq polymerase Poly-dT primer mRNA Reverse transcriptase dNTPs	back 59 Poly-dT primer mRNA Reverse transcriptase dNTPs
front 60 What is the name of the enzyme that partially digests the RNA in a DNA - RNA hybrid? Multiple choice question. RNaseH Reverse transcriptase RNA polymerase DNA ligase	back 60 RNaseH Reason: This enzyme produces a DNA strand complementary to an RNA molecule.

front 61 Following exposure to a plasmid containing the ampicillin resistance gene, a bacterial cell that was previously sensitive now grows in the presence of the antibiotic. What happened? Multiple choice question. The bacterial cell was mutated so that it is now resistant to ampicillin. The bacterial cell merged with other bacterial cells to become a super organism. The bacterial cell was transformed with a plasmid carrying the ampicillin resistance gene. The ampicillin was rendered non-lethal by the procedure.	back 61 The bacterial cell was transformed with a plasmid carrying the ampicillin resistance gene.
front 62 DNA made using RNA as the starting material is called ______ DNA. Multiple choice question. RNA copied copied cloned complementary reverse	back 62 complementary
front 63 What is an advantage of using cDNA in cloning? Multiple choice question. A cDNA molecule contains uracils. A cDNA molecule contains introns but no exons. A cDNA molecule contains the coding regions but not introns. A cDNA molecule can only be expressed in eukaryotic cells.	back 63 A cDNA molecule contains the coding regions but not introns.
front 64 You have a piece of RNA, and you want to synthesize a complementary strand of DNA. What enzyme would you use? Multiple choice question. Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase β-galactosidase RNA polymerase	back 64 Reverse transcriptase

front 65 A researcher may use restriction enzymes to digest the DNA of an organism. The fragments of DNA are then ligated individually into many vectors. This collection of recombinant vectors is called a	back 65 Blank 1: DNA or genomic Blank 2: library
front 66 Why would you use a poly-dT primer when making cDNA? Multiple choice question. Reverse transcriptase only works when the primer is a poly-dT oligonucleotide. It would be complementary to the poly-A tail at the 3' end of the mRNA. There are fewer hydrogen bonds in an oligonucleotide with many dNTP's. It would bind to the poly-dT tail at the 3' end of the mRNA.	back 66 It would be complementary to the poly-A tail at the 3' end of the mRNA. Reason: The 3' end of the mRNA has a poly-A tail.
front 67 When all of the chromosomal DNA of an organism is used to produce a collection of recombinant vectors, the collection is known as a ______ library. Multiple choice question. transcriptomic cDNA proteomic genomic	back 67 genomic
front 68 RNaseH partially digests the RNA in a DNA - RNA hybrid molecule. Why would you use this enzyme when making cDNA? Multiple choice question. RNaseH helps DNA ligase repair the phosphodiester bonds in the DNA backbone. RNaseH also acts as a restriction enzyme. The short RNAs that result from digestion can be used as primers by DNA polymerase.	back 68 The short RNAs that result from digestion can be used as primers by DNA polymerase. Reason: DNA polymerase is used to make the second DNA strand in cDNA.

front 69 Fill in the blank question. When DNA is made using RNA as the starting material, the DNA is called ____ DNA.	back 69 Blank 1: complementary, c, or copy
front 70 A DNA library made with DNA generated by reverse transcriptase is called a ____ library.	back 70 cDNA
front 71 Why is cloning a cDNA molecule easier than cloning an entire eukaryotic gene? Multiple choice question. A cDNA molecule has several origins of replication. A cDNA molecule does not have introns, which can be quite large. A cDNA molecule does not contain protein-coding sequences. A cDNA molecule does not have exons, which can be quite large.	back 71 A cDNA molecule does not have introns, which can be quite large. Reason: A cDNA molecule is derived from the protein-coding sequences found in mRNA.
front 72 What is a DNA library? Multiple choice question. A collection of recombinant vectors A collection of bacterial cells, each containing one foreign gene A repository of restriction fragments generated by treating the DNA of an organism with one restriction enzyme A collection of journal articles about cloning	back 72 A collection of recombinant vectors Reason: Restriction fragments must be ligated into vectors to produce a DNA library.

front 73 In 1985, Kary Mullis developed a way to copy DNA without vectors or host cells. This technique is called	back 73 Blank 1: polymerase or P Blank 2: chain or C Blank 3: reaction, R, or reactions
front 74 After digesting all of the chromosomal DNA of an organism with restriction enzymes and recombining the DNA into vectors, the collection of recombinant vectors resulting is called a	back 74 Blank 1: genomic or DNA Blank 2: library
front 75 When using PCR to amplify DNA, short oligonucleotides called primers ______. Multiple choice question. contain restriction sites useful for inserting DNA into vectors are made of ribonucleotides are complementary to the 3' end of the mRNA flank the region of DNA to be amplified	back 75 flank the region of DNA to be amplified
front 76 True or false: PCR can amplify one segment of DNA from a mixture.	back 76 True Reason: PCR can amplify one segment of DNA because of the specificity of the primers.

front 77 If you wanted a collection of only transcribed DNA, you would construct a ______. Multiple choice question. DNA library without vectors genomic library DNA library with viral vectors cDNA library	back 77 cDNA library Reason: A genomic library would contain both transcribed and non-transcribed sequences.
front 78 What is an advantage of using cDNA in cloning? Multiple choice question. A cDNA molecule contains uracils. A cDNA molecule contains the coding regions but not introns. A cDNA molecule contains introns but no exons. A cDNA molecule can only be expressed in eukaryotic cells.	back 78 A cDNA molecule contains the coding regions but not introns.
front 79 In PCR, the two primers bind to specific sites in the ____ and flank the gene to be amplified.	back 79 DNA
front 80 Which scientist developed the polymerase chain reaction? Multiple choice question. Kary Mullis Charles Yanofsky Edwin Southern James Watson	back 80 Kary Mullis

front 81 If a gene is amplified by PCR so that there are many copies, it can be said to be ______. Multiple choice question. controlled cloned translated transcribed	back 81 cloned
front 82 Short oligonucleotides that flank the region of DNA to be amplified by PCR are called	back 82 primers
front 83 Primers are chosen for PCR based on ______. Multiple choice question. knowing the DNA sequence flanking the gene of interest knowing the species of the organism with the gene of interest the restriction site in the vector to be used the species of the host cell	back 83 knowing the DNA sequence flanking the gene of interest
front 84 How can PCR amplify one segment of DNA from a complex mixture of potential template molecules? Multiple choice question. Primers can be designed to flank a specific segment of DNA. Only one primer is needed for specific amplification. Taq polymerase only recognizes very specific DNA sequences. The use of a thermocycler results in specific amplification.	back 84 Primers can be designed to flank a specific segment of DNA.

front 85 In PCR, the template DNA is ______. Multiple choice question. the DNA on either side of the sequence to be amplified a palindromic sequence another name for the vector the DNA to be amplified	back 85 the DNA to be amplified Reason: Primers are designed to bind to DNA on either side of the sequence to be amplified.
front 86 Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR? Multiple choice question. The DNA polymerase must come from a bacterium that is competent. The DNA polymerase must be thermostable as PCR involves cycles of heating. The primers only work with Taq polymerase. Taq polymerase comes from Thermus aquaticus, a frequently used host cell.	back 86 The DNA polymerase must be thermostable as PCR involves cycles of heating. Reason: This cell lives in hot springs so its DNA polymerase is heat stable.
front 87 In PCR, why do the primers bind to specific sites in the DNA on either side of the gene of interest? Multiple choice question. They are complementary to the flanking sequences. They are random, so the binding is lucky. They have a high G-C content, so they will bind even if the sequences do not match. They are identical to the flanking sequences.	back 87 They are complementary to the flanking sequences.
front 88 True or false: Amplifying a gene by PCR results in many copies, just like cloning using a vector and host cell.	back 88 True Reason: Both amplification and cloning with a vector and host cell result in many copies of a gene.

front 89 In PCR, each cycle uses the products of the previous cycle as templates. What do you call this? Multiple choice question. A genomic library A chain reaction Cloning Annealing	back 89 A chain reaction Reason: Annealing The answer refers to the increase in the number of templates with each PCR cycle.
front 90 Knowing the sequence of the DNA ______ the gene of interest allows scientists to design appropriate primers. Multiple choice question. complementary to one kilobase downstream from in the middle of flanking	back 90 flanking Reason: complementary to A primer is complementary to a region adjacent to the gene of interest.
front 91 In PCR, the temperature must be ______ from the denaturation temperature in order for primers to anneal. Multiple choice question. raised lowered exactly 37 degrees lowered raised 10 degrees	back 91 lowered Reason: The temperature must be lowered from the denaturation temperature to promote annealing of the primers.
front 92 Fill in the blank question. In PCR, the DNA to be amplified is called the ____ DNA.	back 92 template

front 93 In PCR, primer extension refers to the synthesis of ______ starting at the primers. Multiple choice question. complementary DNA a strand of dideoxyribonucleotides complementary RNA a small protein	back 93 complementary DNA
front 94 Taq polymerase was first isolated from a bacterium called	back 94 Blank 1: Thermus Blank 2: aquaticus
front 95 A typical PCR run consists of between ______ cycles. Multiple choice question. 50 and 60 100 and 200 five and ten 20 and 30	back 95 20 and 30
front 96 Fill in the blank question. In PCR, the two primers bind to specific sites in the ____ and flank the gene to be amplified.	back 96 DNA

front 97 After ______ cycles of PCR, a DNA sequence may be amplified a million-fold. Multiple choice question. about 1,000 about 20 about 1,000,000 1-2	back 97 about 20
front 98 Click and drag on elements in order Order the steps in one cycle of a PCR reaction, putting the first step at the top. Denaturation Primer extension Primer annealing	back 98 1. Denaturation 2. Primer annealing 3. Primer extension
front 99 Primer annealing occurs when ______. Multiple choice question. the two complementary strands of DNA come apart Taq polymerase makes complementary strands of DNA starting at a short oligonucleotides short oligonucleotides bind to complementary DNA flanking the gene of interest a restriction enzyme makes a double-stranded cut in the DNA backbone	back 99 short oligonucleotides bind to complementary DNA flanking the gene of interest Reason: Taq polymerase synthesizes complementary DNA in the 5' to 3' direction extending from the primer.
front 100 During PCR, the process of ____ ____ results when the Taq polymerase catalyzes the synthesis of complementary DNA, starting at the primers.	back 100 primer extension

front 101 Reverse transcriptase PCR can be used to ______. Multiple choice question. detect and quantify the amount of a specific RNA. create specific restriction sites that will be useful in cloning create site-directed mutants create DNA that can be expressed in Thermus aquaticus	back 101 detect and quantify the amount of a specific RNA. Reason: RNA molecules are amplified into DNA in this process, regardless of the presence of restriction sites.
front 102 One typical PCR cycle lasts ______ minutes. Multiple choice question. two to three 30 to 60 90 between 10 and 15	back 102 two to three
front 103 True or false: Reverse transcriptase PCR can detect very small amounts of a specific RNA.	back 103 True Reason: Reverse transcriptase is extraordinarily sensitive.
front 104 After 20 PCR cycles, a DNA sequence may be amplified ______-fold. Multiple choice question. 100-million ten a thousand a million	back 104 a million

front 105 Fill in the blank question. ____-____ PCR allows one to assess the amount of DNA produced during a PCR amplification as it is happening.	back 105 Blank 1: Real Blank 2: Time
front 106 How is the amount of DNA produced during real-time PCR measured? Multiple choice question. By measuring the fluorescence emitted by the probe added to the PCR mixture By stopping the thermocycler at various times during the PCR run and running samples on a gel By blotting the product of the run onto a solid support so that it can be probed By transforming bacteria with samples taken from various times during the run	back 106 By measuring the fluorescence emitted by the probe added to the PCR mixture Reason: Fluorescent detector molecules are used in this method.
front 107 The ____ probe is an oligonucleotide that can be used to follow real-time PCR. It has a reporter molecule at one end and a quencher molecule at the other end.	back 107 TaqMan
front 108 The enzyme ____ ____ is used when PCR is employed to detect and quantify the amount of a specific RNA.	back 108 reverse transcriptase

front 109 Click and drag on elements in order Place the steps in a real-time PCR experiment in order from first to last, putting the first step at the top. Taq polymerase cleaves the oligonucleotide in TaqMan. More and more TaqMan probes are digested and the level of fluorescence increases. A primer and the TaqMan probe both anneal to template DNA. The reporter can emit unquenched fluorescence that can be measured.	back 109 1. A primer and the TaqMan probe both anneal to template DNA. 2. Taq polymerase cleaves the oligonucleotide in TaqMan. 3. The reporter can emit unquenched fluorescence that can be measured. 4. More and more TaqMan probes are digested and the level of fluorescence increases.
front 110 Click and drag on elements in order Order the three steps of a PCR cycle from the first to last step, starting at the top.	back 110 1. Heating to denature/ separate DNA strands 2. Lowering the temperature to allow for primer annealing to template DNA 3. Incubating at a temperature that allows the synthesis of the complementary strand.
front 111 Click and drag on elements in order Scientists can use the CRISPR/Cas9 system to "edit" the genome of a cell in vivo. Put the steps in the process in the correct order, starting at the top. Instructions	back 111 1. A guide RNA is designed and synthesized that matches the sequence of DNA that will be edited. 2. The CRISPR/Cas9 system is loaded with the guide RNA and introduced into cells. 3. The CRISPR/Cas9 system associates with the DNA sequence complementary to the guide RNA. 4. Cas 9 cuts the DNA. 5. Inaccurate repair of the cut DNA results in a small detections or insertions, which lead to loss of gene function.
front 112 What makes reverse transcriptase PCR so sensitive? Multiple choice question. It can detect small amounts of RNA from one cell. It can detect small amounts of DNA from one bacterial colony. It can detect small amounts of protein after SDS-PAGE. It can make large amounts of RNA from only one primer.	back 112 It can detect small amounts of RNA from one cell. Reason: Reverse transcriptase PCR is used to amplify RNA.

front 113 What is the technique that allows one to determine the amount of template DNA present when the PCR cycles began? Multiple choice question. Real-time PCR Reverse transcription Cloning in plasmid vectors DNA sequencing	back 113 Real-time PCR
front 114 In real-time PCR, the cycle threshold is reached when ______. Multiple choice question. fluorescence is detected for the first time in an experiment the accumulation of fluorescence is the same as the background level the accumulation of fluorescence is significantly greater than the background level	back 114 the accumulation of fluorescence is significantly greater than the background level
front 115 What type of apparatus does one need to quantify the DNA produced during real-time PCR? Multiple choice question. A device to detect low levels of radioactivity A microtiter-plate reader A thermocycler that can detect fluorescence Gel electrophoresis and a UV source	back 115 A thermocycler that can detect fluorescence Reason: An apparatus that can detect small quantities of DNA is needed.
front 116 How is the TaqMan probe used to monitor real-time PCR? Multiple choice question. As amplification increases, fluorescence increases. As amplification increases, a color change is detected. As amplification increases, the amount of probe decreases. As amplification increases, fluorescence decreases.	back 116 As amplification increases, fluorescence increases. Reason: The TaqMan probe is an oligonucleotide that can be used to follow real-time PCR. It has a reporter molecule at one end and a quencher molecule at the other end. As amplification increases, fluorescence increases.

front 117 Click and drag on elements in order Real-time PCR goes through three main phases with regard to product accumulation. Place them in order from first to last, with the first step at the top. Exponential Linear Plateau	back 117 1. Exponential 2. Linear 3. Plateau
front 118 What activity of Taq polymerase separates the reporter from the quencher in the TaqMan molecule? Multiple choice question. 3' to 5' endonuclease 5' to 3' endonuclease 5' to 3' exonuclease Polymerase 3' to 5' exonuclease	back 118 5' to 3' exonuclease
front 119 True or false: Reverse transcriptase PCR can detect very small amounts of a specific RNA.	back 119 True
front 120 In a real-time PCR experiment, how is the standard detected separately from the sample of interest? Multiple choice question. Different radionucleotides are used to monitor each sample. Different primers are used to amplify each sample. The products are designed to be different sizes, and they are distinguished by size. Different-colored fluorescent molecules are used to monitor each sample.	back 120 Different-colored fluorescent molecules are used to monitor each sample. Reason: Different primers are used to amplify each sample. While this is true, this is not how the samples are detected.

front 121 Fill in the blank question. A method in which the exponential phase of real-time PCR is analyzed to quantitate the initial template concentration is called the ____ ____ method.	back 121 Blank 1: cycle or CBlank 2: threshold or t
front 122 DNA sequencing enables researchers to determine the order of ______ ______ in a gene. Multiple choice question. amino acids RNA nucleotides DNA nucleotides	back 122 DNA nucleotides
front 123 The Maxam and Gilbert method of DNA sequencing used chemicals that cleaved the DNA at ______. Multiple choice question. A-T pairs only random sequences long stretches of A bases specific bases	back 123 specific bases
front 124 This figure shows a real-time PCR experiment carried out at low, medium, and high concentrations of starting template DNA. Please match each curve (designated by a letter) with the corresponding amount of starting template. Fluorescence values are plotted on the Y axis. A B C Medium Low High	back 124 A High B Medium C Low

front 125 Select all that apply Select the types of standards that are commonly used in real-time PCR. Multiple select question. A random sequence of DNA from the sample is also amplified. A repetitive sequence already present in the sample is also amplified. A standard of known concentration is added to the PCR mixture. Another gene that is already present in the sample is also amplified.	back 125 A standard of known concentration is added to the PCR mixture. Another gene that is already present in the sample is also amplified.
front 126 Dideoxy sequencing was formulated based on scientists' knowledge of what process? Multiple choice question. DNA replication Reverse transcription Transcription Translation	back 126 DNA replication
front 127 This technique enables researchers to determine the DNA bases in genes and other chromosomal regions. Multiple choice question. Southern blotting Restriction mapping Colony hybridization DNA sequencing	back 127 DNA sequencing
front 128 If the oxygens on carbons 2 and 3 of the sugar of a nucleotide have been removed, the nucleotide is referred to as a	back 128 Blank 1: dideoxyribonucleotide, ddNTP, or dideoxyribonucleotides

front 129 Which scientist(s) developed an early method of DNA sequencing that involved base-specific chemical cleavage of DNA? Multiple choice question. Maxam and Gilbert Kary Mullis Monod and Jacob Francis Crick	back 129 Maxam and Gilbert
front 130 Chain termination occurs when a dideoxyribonucleotide is incorporated into a growing DNA strand because there is no ______. Multiple choice question. phosphate 3'-OH group amino 5'-OH group	back 130 3'-OH group
front 131 In automated sequencing, each dideoxyribonucleotide is labeled with a different colored ______. Multiple choice question. radioisotope DNA primer fluorescent dye Taq polymerase	back 131 fluorescent dye
front 132 Click and drag on elements in order Order the steps in DNA sequencing, putting the first step at the top. High concentrations of all four unlabeled deoxyribonucleotides are added. Low concentrations of all four fluorescently labeled dideoxyribonucleotides and DNA polymerase are added. A laser and fluorescence detector are used to determine the color associated with each DNA strand. Primers are added. Many copies of a single-stranded vector containing the gene of interest are acquired. Electrophoresis separates DNA strands according to their lengths.	back 132 Answer in the picture.

front 133 Fill in the blank question. The DNA sequencing method developed by Frederick Sanger that became a commonly used method of DNA sequencing is called ____ sequencing.	back 133 dideoxy
front 134 In dideoxyribonucleotides, ____ oxygens are removed from the sugar compared with ribose.	back 134 2
front 135 Sequencing using the dideoxy method results in a sequencing ladder because ______. Multiple choice question. using the four labeled dideoxyribonucleotides results in chain termination at each nucleotide using the four unlabeled deoxyribonucleotides results in chain termination at each nucleotide the amount of DNA increases in discrete steps, like a ladder	back 135 using the four labeled dideoxyribonucleotides results in chain termination at each nucleotide Reason: The sizes of DNA molecules, rather than the amounts of DNA, are detected by this method.
front 136 In dideoxy sequencing, if a dideoxyribonucleotide is incorporated into the growing strand of DNA, the strand can no longer grow as there is no 3' OH group. This is called ______. Multiple choice question. chain termination transposition terminal acceptance real-time PCR	back 136 chain termination

front 137 Fill in the blank question. ____-____ ____ allows a researcher to produce a mutation at a specific sequence.	back 137 Blank 1: Site Blank 2: Directed Blank 3: Mutagenesis
front 138 The use of dideoxyribonucleotides with different colored fluorescent dyes allows the detection of the ______. Multiple choice question. appropriate vector sequence of DNA amount of DNA gene of interest	back 138 sequence of DNA Reason: A probe is needed to detect a gene of interest.
front 139 How is site-directed mutagenesis useful in the study of genes and proteins? Multiple choice question. Since site-directed mutagenesis introduces random mutations, new genes can be identified. The mutated gene can be studied in vitro only. The mutated gene can be introduced into a living organism to see how the mutation affects the organism.	back 139 The mutated gene can be introduced into a living organism to see how the mutation affects the organism.
front 140 To ensure that the automated sequencing is accurate, it is important that the sequencing mixture contains ______. Multiple choice question. equal concentrations of unlabeled deoxyribonucleotides and labeled dideoxyribonucleotides high concentrations of unlabeled deoxyribonucleotides and low concentrations of labeled dideoxyribonucleotides high concentration of labeled dideoxyribonucleotides and low concentrations of unlabeled deoxyribonucleotides	back 140 high concentrations of unlabeled deoxyribonucleotides and low concentrations of labeled dideoxyribonucleotides Reason: All four types of deoxyribonucleotides are added at a high concentration and all four types of dideoxyribonucleotides (ddA, ddT, ddG, or ddC), which are fluorescently labeled, are added at a low concentration.

front 141 Dideoxy sequencing was formulated based on scientists' knowledge of what process? Multiple choice question. Reverse transcription Transcription Translation DNA replication	back 141 DNA replication
front 142 The dideoxy sequencing method results in mixtures of DNA strands of different lengths which are run on a gel. The gel is read from the bottom up. This is referred to as a	back 142 Blank 1: sequencing or sequence Blank 2: ladder
front 143 Site-directed mutagenesis allow a researcher to make a mutation ______. Multiple choice question. in the DNA flanking the gene of interest at a specific sequence of DNA in the vector DNA at the ends of chromosomes	back 143 at a specific sequence of DNA
front 144 Site-directed mutagenesis is sometimes referred to as ____-directed mutagenesis.	back 144 oligonucleotide

front 145 If a scientist wanted to determine how a specific mutation in a gene of interest affected an organism, what technique would be most useful? Multiple choice question. Real-time PCR Reverse transcriptase PCR Site-directed mutagenesis DNA sequencing	back 145 Site-directed mutagenesis
front 146 Click and drag on elements in order Place the steps in site-directed mutagenesis in order from first to last, with the first step on top. Design an oligonucleotide primer that is complementary to the DNA of interest, except for a mismatched region. Add dNTPs, DNA polymerase, and DNA ligase. Anneal the primer to the template DNA. Introduce the DNA into a living cell.	back 146 Answer in the picture.
front 147 Which component in the CRISPR-Cas9 system makes a double-strand break in DNA? Multiple choice question. tracrRNA Cas9 crRNA	back 147 Cas9
front 148 Fill in the blank question. When the CRISPR-Cas system is used for gene mutagenesis, tracrRNA and crRNA are linked together in a molecule called the ____ ____ RNA.	back 148 Blank 1: single or s Blank 2: guide or g

front 149 What is the most important feature of a primer used in site-directed mutagenesis? Multiple choice question. It contains a region that is not complementary to the template. It comes from a natural source. It is 20 nucleotides long. It is exactly complementary to the template DNA.	back 149 It contains a region that is not complementary to the template. Reason: A mutation will not be produced if the primer is exactly complementary to the template.
front 150 How does one analyze a site-directed mutation? Multiple choice question. By cutting it with restriction enzymes By sequencing it using the dideoxy method By introducing it into a living organism With a Southern blot	back 150 By introducing it into a living organism Reason: The sequence is already known, the analysis involves testing the effects of the mutation.
front 151 The natural function of the CRISPR-Cas system in bacteria is to ______. Multiple choice question. to make changes throughout the bacterial chromosome to provide defense against bacteriophages to provide defense against other bacteria	back 151 to provide defense against bacteriophages
front 152 When CRISPR-Cas is used for gene mutagenesis, what type of change does Cas9 make in the gene of interest? Multiple choice question. Double-strand break Nucleotide transition Single-strand break Nucleotide transversion	back 152 Double-strand break

front 153 Select all that apply When the CRISPR-Cas system is used for gene mutagenesis, which two components are combined in the single guide (sgRNA)? Multiple select question. Gene of interest crRNA Cas9 tracrRNA	back 153 crRNA tracrRNA
front 154 Fill in the blank question. In gene mutagenesis by CRISPR-Cas, a DNA break can be repaired by ____ end ____ or by homologous ____ ____.	back 154 Blank 1: nonhomologous Blank 2: joining Blank 3: recombination Blank 4: repair
front 155 The dideoxy sequencing method results in mixtures of DNA strands of different lengths which are run on a gel. The gel is read from the bottom up. This is referred to as a	back 155 Blank 1: sequencing or sequence Blank 2: ladder
front 156 Select all that apply CRISPR-Cas technology has been used to mutate genes in ______. Multiple select question. human cell lines human embryos plant cells adult mice roundworms mouse embryos	back 156 human cell lines plant cells adult mice roundworms mouse embryos Reason: While there are some recent reports of attempts to alter human genes, the outcomes have a high degree of uncertainty. The scientific community considers these attempts to be unethical.

front 157 In the CRISPR-Cas system, what part of the sgRNA is designed to be complementary to the gene to be mutated? Multiple choice question. Repeat region Spacer region tracrRNA Linker region	back 157 Spacer region
front 158 Select all that apply After Cas9 makes a double strand break, which characteristics are observed for repair of the break by nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)? Multiple select question. The break region may incur a small deletion. Frameshift mutation may occur in the coding sequence of the gene. Can be used to make a specific point mutation. Researcher includes donor DNA that is homologous to the region where the break occurs.	back 158 The break region may incur a small deletion. Frameshift mutation may occur in the coding sequence of the gene.
front 159 What is the purpose of Northern blotting? Multiple choice question. To identify a specific protein within a mixture of proteins To identify a specific DNA fragment within a mixture of DNA molecules To identify a specific DNA molecule within a mixture of RNA molecules and proteins To identify a specific RNA molecule within a mixture of RNA molecules	back 159 To identify a specific RNA molecule within a mixture of RNA molecules
front 160 A major advantage of CRISPR-Cas technology over site-directed mutagenesis is that it can be used directly on ____ cells.	back 160 Blank 1: living, live, or alive

front 161 Click and drag on elements in order Place in order from first to last the steps in Northern Blotting. with the first step at the top. Extract and purify RNA from living cells. Load RNA onto an agarose gel. Probe with a labeled fragment of DNA. Blot RNAs onto a nylon membrane. Separate RNA molecules according to size.	back 161 Answer in the picture.
front 162 How does one analyze a site-directed mutation? Multiple choice question. By cutting it with restriction enzymes With a Southern blot By sequencing it using the dideoxy method By introducing it into a living organism	back 162 By introducing it into a living organism Reason: The sequence is already known, the analysis involves testing the effects of the mutation.
front 163 You wish to determine if a protein is made at a particular stage of development. What technique would you use? Multiple choice question. Southern blotting Northern blotting Western blotting Polymerase chain reaction	back 163 Western blotting
front 164 This technique is used to identify a specific RNA molecule within a mixture of RNA molecules. Multiple choice question. Eastern blotting Southern blotting Northern blotting Western blotting	back 164 Northern blotting

front 165 In the Western blot, to what is the enzyme that will give the colored reaction coupled? Multiple choice question. The primary antibody The nylon membrane The protein of interest The secondary antibody	back 165 The secondary antibody Reason: The primary antibody binds to one or more proteins separated by gel electrophoresis.
front 166 What type of probe is used in Northern blotting? Multiple choice question. Labeled protein Labeled antibody Labeled RNA Labeled DNA	back 166 Labeled DNA
front 167 For Western blotting, what type of probe is used to identify the protein of interest? Multiple choice question. antigen epitope labeled DNA antibody labeled RNA	back 167 antibody
front 168 What technique is used to identify a particular protein in a mixture of proteins? Multiple choice question. Northern blotting Real-time PCR Southern blotting Western blotting	back 168 Western blotting

front 169 In the Western blot, what binds to the protein of interest? Multiple choice question. An oligonucleotide The secondary antibody An enzyme The primary antibody	back 169 The primary antibody Reason: The secondary antibody binds to the primary antibody.
front 170 Antibodies bind to three-dimensional structures found within a protein that are called ______. Multiple choice question. receptors domains secondary antibodies epitopes	back 170 epitopes
front 171 Fill in the blank question. In the technique of Western blotting, a primary ____ binds to an ____ to identify a specific protein.	back 171 Blank 1: antibody Blank 2: antigen or epitope
front 172 You wish to determine if a protein is made at a particular stage of development. What technique would you use? Multiple choice question. Northern blotting Polymerase chain reaction Western blotting Southern blotting	back 172 Western blotting

front 173 After Cas9 makes a double strand break, which characteristics are observed for repair of the break by nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)? Multiple select question. Can be used to make a specific point mutation. The break region may incur a small deletion. Frameshift mutation may occur in the coding sequence of the gene. Researcher includes donor DNA that is homologous to the region where the break occurs.	back 173 The break region may incur a small deletion. Frameshift mutation may occur in the coding sequence of the gene.
front 174 What technique is useful for studying protein-DNA interactions? Multiple choice question. Real-time PCR Electrophoretic mobility shift assay The construction of a DNA library The western blot	back 174 Electrophoretic mobility shift assay Reason: This method identifies a protein through antibody binding.
front 175 An antigen has one or more three dimensional structures called ______ to which a(n) ______ will bind. Multiple choice question. antibodies; epitopes active sites; antibody receptors; antibody epitopes; antibody	back 175 epitopes; antibody
front 176 For Western blotting, what type of probe is used to identify the protein of interest? Multiple choice question. labeled DNA antibody antigen labeled RNA epitope	back 176 antibody

front 177 How does the binding of a protein to a DNA fragment affect the ability of the fragment to migrate through a gel during electrophoresis? Multiple choice question. It slows the fragment's migration. It has no effect on the fragment's migration. It depends on the protein. It accelerates the fragment's migration.	back 177 It slows the fragment's migration.
front 178 Which of the following techniques is used to study protein-DNA interactions? Multiple choice question. DNase I footprinting The Western blot The Northern blot The Southern blot	back 178 DNase I footprinting
front 179 The gel retardation assay is also known as the ______. Multiple choice question. Southern blot colony hybridization assay electrophoretic mobility shift assay Western blot	back 179 electrophoretic mobility shift assay
front 180 This figure shows the outcome of what type of experiment? Multiple choice question. Western blotting DNA sequencing DNase I footprinting Real time PCR	back 180 DNase I footprinting

front 181 If RNA polymerase holoenzyme is bound to the promoter of a specific gene, what will be the outcome of DNase I footprinting of this promoter region? Multiple choice question. The promoter will be completely digested by the DNase I enzyme. A few sites within the promoter will be cleaved by DNase I. The promoter will be protected from DNase I digestion.	back 181 The promoter will be protected from DNase I digestion.
front 182 The ______ assay is used to identify protein-DNA interactions because the binding of a protein to a DNA fragment slows the ability of the fragment to migrate through a gel during electrophoresis. Multiple choice question. Western blot real-time PCR dideoxyribonucleotide electrophoretic mobility shift	back 182 electrophoretic mobility shift
front 183 The DNase I footprinting technique is used to study ____-____ interactions.	back 183 Blank 1: DNA Blank 2: protein or binding
front 184 Which technique can identify the DNA region that interacts with a DNA-binding protein? Multiple choice question. DNase I footprinting Northern blotting Western blotting Site-directed mutagenesis	back 184 DNase I footprinting

front 185 In a DNase I footprinting experiment, a region of DNA bound to protein will be ______ cleavage by the DNAse I enzyme. Multiple choice question. moderately susceptible to highly susceptible to protected from	back 185 protected from
front 186 How does the binding of a protein to a DNA fragment affect the ability of the fragment to migrate through a gel during electrophoresis? Multiple choice question. It accelerates the fragment's migration. It depends on the protein. It has no effect on the fragment's migration. It slows the fragment's migration.	back 186 It slows the fragment's migration.