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Chapter 29 Development and Inheritance

front 1

1) The gradual modification of anatomical structures and physiologic characteristics from fertilization to maturity is termed
A) gametogenesis.
B) ontogeny.
C) development.
D) transformation.
E) disablement.

back 1

C) development.

front 2

2) The formation of different types of cells required in development, or ________, occurs through selective changes in genetic activity.
A) differentiation
B) cupellation
C) deployment
D) gametogenesis
E) phylogeny

back 2

A) differentiation

front 3

3) The transfer of genetically determined characteristics from generation to generation is termed
A) development.
B) differentiation.
C) inheritance.
D) phylogeny.
E) maturity.

back 3

C) inheritance.

front 4

4) Sperm cannot fertilize an oocyte until they
A) undergo capacitation.
B) undergo meiosis.
C) lose their flagellum.
D) are in the vagina for 3 days.
E) are activated by sustentacular cells of the vagina.

back 4

A) undergo capacitation.

front 5

5) Which of the following is not part of oocyte activation?
A) softening of the zona pellucida
B) influx of sodium ion
C) membrane depolarization
D) release of calcium ion from smooth ER
E) discharge of exocytotic vesicles adjacent to the oocyte membrane

back 5

A) softening of the zona pellucida

front 6

6) Polyspermy results in
A) twins.
B) fetuses with different fathers.
C) haploid individuals.
D) chimeric adults.
E) a nonfunctional zygote.

back 6

E) a nonfunctional zygote.

front 7

7) During amphimixis,
A) sperm become haploid.
B) the ovum finishes meiosis II.
C) the male and female pronuclei fuse.
D) meiosis occurs.
E) gametes are formed.

back 7

C) the male and female pronuclei fuse.

front 8

8) The site where fertilization normally occurs is in the
A) cervix.
B) fimbrae.
C) uterine wall near the fundus.
D) outer one-third of the uterine tube.
E) union of the vagina and uterus.

back 8

D) outer one-third of the uterine tube.

front 9

9) The layer of follicle cells that surround the unfertilized egg is called the
A) zona pellucida.
B) corona radiata.
C) Graafian follicle.
D) functional zone.
E) tunica follicularis.

back 9

B) corona radiata.

front 10

10) Block to polyspermy is prevented by the ________ reaction.
A) metabolic
B) gamete
C) gollumina
D) cortical
E) polarity

back 10

D) cortical

front 11

11) The cell that directly results from the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a single sperm is called a(n)
A) ootid.
B) gastrula.
C) blastula.
D) morula.
E) zygote.

back 11

E) zygote.

front 12

12) Sperm release ________ to break down the bonds between adjacent follicle cells surrounding
the oocyte.
A) relaxin
B) hyaluronidase
C) calcium
D) zonal inhibiting proteins
E) glucose

back 12

B) hyaluronidase

front 13

13) Fertilization stimulates the oocyte to enter meiosis II and the fertilized oocyte is called a(n)
A) oogonium.
B) primary oocyte.
C) secondary oocyte.
D) ovum.
E) polar body.

back 13

D) ovum.

front 14

14) The developmental period that is the period of all embryological and early fetal development is
A) the first trimester.
B) the second trimester.
C) the third trimester.
D) infancy.
E) adolescence.

back 14

A) the first trimester.

front 15

15) The period of gestation that is characterized by rapid fetal growth and fat deposition is the ________ trimester.
A) first
B) second
C) third

back 15

C) third

front 16

16) The period of gestation when organs and organ systems complete most of their development
and the fetus looks distinctly human is the ________ trimester.
A) first
B) second
C) third

back 16

B) second

front 17

17) The term ________ refers to the time spent in prenatal development.
A) transformation
B) micturition
C) parturition
D) gestation
E) cleavage

back 17

D) gestation

front 18

18) The human gestation period consists of
A) fertilization and one trimester.
B) two trimesters of 1 month each.
C) three trimesters of 1 month each.
D) two trimesters of 2 months each.
E) three trimesters of 3 months each.

back 18

E) three trimesters of 3 months each.

front 19

19) Which of the following statements concerning development is false?
A) The term induction refers to the chemical interplay between developing cells.
B) The developing oocyte receives molecules that affect development from the surrounding granulosa cells.
C) Each blastomere in the blastocyst receives exactly the same cytoplasmic composition.
D) Differences in a cellʹs cytoplasmic makeup affect the cellʹs genetic activity.
E) Cells release molecules that affect the developmental process of neighboring cells.

back 19

C) Each blastomere in the blastocyst receives exactly the same cytoplasmic composition.

front 20

20) After fertilization, the first cell division is completed
A) within a few seconds.
B) within the hour.
C) about 6 hours later.
D) in 12 hours.
E) about 30 hours later.

back 20

E) about 30 hours later.

front 21

21) During early development, the Y chromosome produces a substance called ʺtestis determining factorʺ (TDF) that causes the indifferent gonad to become a testis. This would be an example of
A) capacitation.
B) activation.
C) differentiation.
D) induction.
E) predilection.

back 21

D) induction.

front 22

22) The process of cell division that divides the cytoplasm of the zygote among blastomeres is called
A) cleavage.
B) implantation.
C) placentation.
D) embryogenesis.
E) blastulation.

back 22

A) cleavage.

front 23

23) The penetration of the endometrium by the blastocyst is referred to as
A) cleavage.
B) implantation.
C) placentation.
D) embryogenesis.
E) fertilization.

back 23

B) implantation.

front 24

24) ________ are nearly identical cells that are produced by early cleavages.
A) Blastomeres
B) Morulas
C) Gastrulas
D) Amnions
E) Blastulas

back 24

A) Blastomeres

front 25

25) The solid ball of cells that has been likened to a mulberry is called a
A) chorion.
B) blastula.
C) gastrula.
D) morula.
E) blastocyst.

back 25

D) morula.

front 26

26) A blastocyst is a(n)
A) extraembryonic membrane.
B) solid ball of cells.
C) hollow ball of cells.
D) portion of the placenta.
E) origin of the urinary bladder.

back 26

C) hollow ball of cells.

front 27

27) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will
A) form the placenta.
B) form the morula.
C) form the embryo.
D) form blood vessels of the placenta.
E) provide nutrients for early growth.

back 27

C) form the embryo.

front 28

28) During implantation, the
A) trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium.
B) inner cell mass begins to form the placenta.
C) maternal blood vessels in the endometrium are walled off from the blastocyst.
D) entire trophoblast becomes syncytial.
E) inner cell mass is temporarily deprived of nutrients.

back 28

A) trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium.

front 29

29) Under the influence of the trophoblast, maternal blood vessels in the endometrium
A) disappear.
B) attach to the inner cell mass.
C) break down and form sinuses or lacunae.
D) form a capillary network in the trophoblast.
E) increase in size and penetrate the blastocyst.

back 29

C) break down and form sinuses or lacunae.

front 30

30) A space opens within the inner cell mass that will form the
A) blastocoele.
B) lacunae.
C) amniotic cavity.
D) chorion.
E) allantois.

back 30

C) amniotic cavity.

front 31

31) Shortly after gastrulation, the body and organs of the embryo begin to form. This process is called
A) cleavage.
B) implantation.
C) placentation.
D) embryogenesis.
E) germination.

back 31

D) embryogenesis.

front 32

32) Which of the following is false concerning the allantois?
A) It derives partly from endoderm.
B) It projects into the umbilical cord.
C) It stores nitrogenous wastes.
D) Part will develop as the urinary bladder.
E) It acts as the fetal bone marrow.

back 32

E) It acts as the fetal bone marrow.

front 33

33) Ectoderm is to ________ as mesoderm is to ________.
A) neural tissue; muscle tissue
B) cardiovascular system; neural tissue
C) mesoderm; endoderm
D) neural tissue; epithelial tissue
E) muscle tissue; neural tissue

back 33

A) neural tissue; muscle tissue

front 34

34) The mesoderm and the trophoblast combine to form the
A) amnion.
B) amniotic sac.
C) chorion.
D) allantois.
E) inner cell mass.

back 34

C) chorion.

front 35

35) During gastrulation,
A) the blastomeres fuse.
B) the placenta penetrates the endometrium.
C) three germ layers are formed.
D) cells from the hypoblast move to the epiblast.
E) the neural tube closes.

back 35

C) three germ layers are formed.

front 36

36) The region known as the primitive streak is the site of
A) migration of mesodermal cells to form the endoderm.
B) endoderm formation.
C) ectoderm formation.
D) migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm.
E) amnion formation.

back 36

D) migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm.

front 37

37) The ectoderm forms
A) muscle.
B) blood.
C) neural tissues.
D) the lining of the digestive tract.
E) the urinary system.

back 37

C) neural tissues.

front 38

38) The mesoderm forms
A) muscle.
B) epidermis.
C) the brain.
D) the lining of the digestive tract.
E) respiratory epithelium.

back 38

A) muscle.

front 39

39) The endoderm forms
A) muscle.
B) blood.
C) neural tissue.
D) skin.
E) the urinary bladder.

back 39

E) the urinary bladder.

front 40

40) The extraembryonic membrane that forms blood is the
A) yolk sac.
B) amnion.
C) allantois.
D) chorion.
E) decidua.

back 40

A) yolk sac.

front 41

41) Oxygenated blood from the placenta returns to the fetus in the
A) allantois.
B) umbilical vein.
C) umbilical arteries.
D) decidua capsularis.
E) umbilical capillaries.

back 41

B) umbilical vein.

front 42

42) Where in the embryo does mesoderm first appear?
A) between the cell layers of the inner cell mass
B) within the blastocoele
C) in the chorionic villi
D) above the epiblast
E) around the trophoblast

back 42

A) between the cell layers of the inner cell mass

front 43

43) The part of the endometrium that covers the implanted embryo and lacks chorionic villi is the
A) parietal decidua.
B) albicans decidua.
C) functional decidua.
D) capsular decidua.
E) basal decidua.

back 43

D) capsular decidua.

front 44

44) Which embryonic germ layer forms the linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts?
A) mesoderm
B) ectoderm
C) trophoderm
D) endoderm
E) epiderm

back 44

D) endoderm

front 45

45) Which embryonic germ layer forms connective tissues such as bone and cartilage?
A) epiderm
B) trophoderm
C) ectoderm
D) mesooderm
E) endoderm

back 45

D) mesooderm

front 46

46) Which embryonic germ layer forms the brain and spinal cord?
A) ectoderm
B) endoderm
C) trophoderm
D) epiderm
E) mesooderm

back 46

A) ectoderm

front 47

47) The extraembryonic membrane that forms a fluid-filled sac is the
A) yolk sac.
B) amnion.
C) allantois.
D) chorion.
E) decidua.

back 47

B) amnion.

front 48

48) The umbilical cord contains the yolk sac, the placental blood vessels and the
A) chorionic villi.
B) allantois.
C) amnion.
D) chorion.
E) decidua.

back 48

B) allantois.

front 49

49) The extraembryonic membrane that forms the fetal portion of the placenta is the
A) yolk sac.
B) amnion.
C) allantois.
D) chorion.
E) decidua.

back 49

D) chorion.

front 50

50) Which of the following is not one of the extraembryonic membranes?
A) yolk sac
B) amnion
C) allantois
D) chorion
E) umbilical cord

back 50

E) umbilical cord

front 51

51) In ________, implantation occurs somewhere other than in the uterus.
A) ectopic pregnancy
B) hydramnios
C) placenta previa
D) abortion
E) spontaneous abortion

back 51

A) ectopic pregnancy

front 52

52) The outer layer of the blastocyst that can penetrate the endometrium is the
A) archegonium.
B) chorion.
C) gastrula.
D) blastula.
E) trophoblast.

back 52

E) trophoblast.

front 53

53) The hollow cavity within the blastocyst is the
A) blastula.
B) gastrula.
C) blastocoele.
D) trophoblast.
E) ootid.

back 53

C) blastocoele.

front 54

54) The ________ is the portion of the endometrium not in contact with the chorion.
A) trophoblast
B) allantois
C) capsular decidua
D) functional decidua
E) parietal decidua

back 54

E) parietal decidua

front 55

55) The ________ is formed by the allantois, blood vessels, and yolk sac.
A) umbilical cord
B) chorion
C) chorioallantoic membrane
D) trophoblast
E) amnion

back 55

A) umbilical cord

front 56

56) The almost identical cells produced by cleavage divisions are called
A) centromeres.
B) blastomeres.
C) telomeres.
D) myosomes.
E) somal cells.

back 56

B) blastomeres.

front 57

57) The process by which a viable embryo is formed is called
A) embryogenesis.
B) organogenesis.
C) gametogenesis.
D) morphogenesis.
E) blastogenesis.

back 57

A) embryogenesis.

front 58

58) Placental functions are concentrated in a disc-shaped area in the endometrium called the
A) trophoblast.
B) allantois.
C) capsular decidua.
D) basal decidua.
E) parietal decidua.

back 58

D) basal decidua.

front 59

59) Blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through paired
A) umbilical vein.
B) iliac veins.
C) umbilical arteries.
D) uterine veins.
E) uterine arteries.

back 59

C) umbilical arteries.

front 60

60) The processes that occur in the pre-embryonic period are
A) cleavage and implantation.
B) cleavage and placentation.
C) implantation and placentation.
D) implantation and embryogenesis.
E) placentation and embryogenesis.

back 60

A) cleavage and implantation.

front 61

61) The processes that occur in the embryonic period are
A) cleavage and implantation.
B) cleavage and placentation.
C) implantation and placentation.
D) implantation and embryogenesis.
E) placentation and embryogenesis.

back 61

E) placentation and embryogenesis.

front 62

62) Which of the following statements about the first trimester is false?
A) The events that occur during the first trimester are very complex.
B) Only about 40 percent of conceptions survive the first trimester.
C) During this trimester, cleavage, implantation, placentation and embryogenesis occur.
D) The fetus gains the most weight during the first trimester.
E) It consists of 10 developmental weeks.

back 62

D) The fetus gains the most weight during the first trimester.

front 63

63) The inner cellular layer of trophoblast that remains intact inside the blastocyst is termed the
A) morula.
B) cytotrophoblast.
C) synctiotrophoblast.
D) lacunae.
E) amnion.

back 63

B) cytotrophoblast.

front 64

64) The uterine epithelium is broken down by the enzyme,
A) hyaluronidase.
B) acrosin.
C) urase.
D) proteoglycan.
E) relaxin.

back 64

A) hyaluronidase.

front 65

65) The uterine epithelium is broken down by which structure of the blastocyst?
A) allantois
B) cytotrophoblast
C) syncytiotrophoblast
D) blastocoele
E) amnion

back 65

C) syncytiotrophoblast

front 66

66) The separation between the inner cell mass and the trophoblast forms a fluid-filled chamber
called the
A) chorion.
B) yolk sac.
C) allantois.
D) amniotic cavity.
E) placenta.

back 66

D) amniotic cavity.

front 67

67) The embryo becomes a fetus at
A) the end of the first week.
B) the end of the second week.
C) the end of the eighth week.
D) the end of the second trimester.
E) the end of the third trimester.

back 67

C) the end of the eighth week.

front 68

68) The primary nutrient source for early embryonic development that later becomes an important
site for blood formation is the
A) amniotic fluid.
B) placenta.
C) basal decidua.
D) umbilical vein.
E) yolk sac.

back 68

E) yolk sac.

front 69

69) The epidermis and accessory structures of skin form from which germ layer?
A) endoderm
B) mesoderm
C) epiderm
D) ectoderm
E) trophoderm

back 69

D) ectoderm

front 70

81) During the second trimester, the mesoderm on the outer surface of the amnion contacts the mesoderm on the inner surface of the chorion and fuse to form the ________ membrane.
A) cervical
B) syncytial
C) amniochorionic
D) embryonic
E) umbilical

back 70

C) amniochorionic

front 71

82) By the end of gestation, maternal blood volume normally increases by almost ________
percent.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 50
D) 80
E) 100

back 71

C) 50

front 72

83) Which of the following does not occur during pregnancy?
A) A womanʹs respiratory rate and tidal volume increase.
B) Maternal blood volume increases.
C) Maternal nutrient requirements increase.
D) A womanʹs glomerular filtration rate increases.
E) A womanʹs bladder capacity increases.

back 72

E) A womanʹs bladder capacity increases.

front 73

84) The placenta is a source of all of the following hormones, except
A) hCG.
B) relaxin.
C) placental lactogen.
D) progesterone.
E) luteinizing hormone.

back 73

E) luteinizing hormone.

front 74

85) The hormone that increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis during pregnancy is
A) luteinizing hormone.
B) progesterone.
C) human chorionic gonadotropin.
D) human placental lactogen.
E) relaxin.

back 74

E) relaxin.

front 75

86) If fertilization occurs, the ________ is maintained because the embryo secretes ________.
A) corpus albicans; human chorionic gonadotrophin
B) corpus luteum; luteinizing hormone
C) corpus cavernosum; human chorionic gonadotrophin
D) corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin
E) corpus albicans; placental prolactin

back 75

D) corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin

front 76

87) The hormone called the hormone of pregnancy, inhibiting uterine contractions, is
A) hCG.
B) relaxin.
C) placental lactogen.
D) progesterone.
E) luteinizing hormone.

back 76

D) progesterone.

front 77

88) Mammary gland development requires a combination of all of the following hormones, except
A) oxytocin.
B) placental prolactin.
C) prolactin.
D) human placental lactogen.
E) estrogen.

back 77

A) oxytocin.

front 78

89) The prostaglandins produced in the endometrium
A) initiate the release of oxytocin for parturition.
B) stimulate smooth muscle contractions.
C) initiate secretory activity in the mammary glands.
D) promote breast development.
E) stimulate the milk let-down reflex.

back 78

B) stimulate smooth muscle contractions.

front 79

90) Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of
A) estrogen.
B) progesterone.
C) oxytocin.
D) relaxin.
E) chorionic gonadotropin.

back 79

C) oxytocin.

front 80

91) During gestation, contraction of the myometrium is inhibited by ________, produced by the corpus luteum.
A) progesterone
B) estrogen
C) oxytocin
D) prostaglandins
E) inhibin

back 80

A) progesterone

front 81

92) The first stage of labor is the ________ stage.
A) dilation
B) expulsion
C) placental
D) decidual
E) neonate

back 81

A) dilation

front 82

93) The stage of labor during which the fetus emerges from the vagina is called the ________ stage.
A) emergence
B) dilation
C) placental
D) expulsion
E) fetal

back 82

D) expulsion

front 83

94) An infant born ________ prematurely has a good chance of survival.
A) 1.5 months
B) 3 months
C) 4 months
D) 5 months
E) 6 months

back 83

A) 1.5 months

front 84

95) Uterine contractions that are irregular and brief that occur toward the end of gestation are called
A) parturition.
B) expulsion.
C) true labor.
D) Braxton-Hicks.
E) dilation.

back 84

D) Braxton-Hicks.

front 85

96) In a(n) ________, an incision is made in the perineal musculature.
A) episiotomy
B) lumbar puncture
C) crowning
D) epidural
E) peritoneal cut

back 85

A) episiotomy

front 86

97) Fraternal twins result from
A) one egg that is fertilized by two different sperm.
B) two different zygotes.
C) one zygote that splits into two zygotes.
D) two eggs fertilized by one sperm cell.
E) a blastula that splits into two blastulas.

back 86

B) two different zygotes.

front 87

98) Twins that occur when blastomeres separate are called
A) monozygotic.
B) blastulatory.
C) zygoblastic.
D) dizygotic.
E) fraternal.

back 87

A) monozygotic.

front 88

99) The goal of labor is childbirth, also termed
A) gestation.
B) development.
C) parturition.
D) abortion.
E) senescence.

back 88

C) parturition.

front 89

100) Which of the following places the stages of labor in the correct order?
A) placental, expulsion, dilation
B) placental, dilation, expulsion
C) expulsion, dilation, placental
D) dilation, placental, expulsion
E) dilation, expulsion, placental

back 89

E) dilation, expulsion, placental

front 90

101) Immediately after birth, a newbornʹs health is assessed by an Apgar score. Which of the
following is not part of the Apgar assessment?
A) heart rate
B) breathing
C) muscle tone
D) hearing
E) skin color

back 90

D) hearing

front 91

102) Which of the following does not occur at puberty?
A) FSH levels rise.
B) GnRH levels decline.
C) Levels of sex hormones rise.
D) Gametogenesis begins.
E) Secondary sexual characteristics begin to develop.

back 91

B) GnRH levels decline.

front 92

103) As a person ages,
A) the skin becomes more elastic.
B) lung tissue becomes more elastic.
C) peristalsis and muscle tone decrease.
D) all hormone levels decrease.
E) peristalsis and muscle tone decrease and some hormone levels decrease.

back 92

E) peristalsis and muscle tone decrease and some hormone levels decrease.

front 93

104) The infancy stage of life is considered to be over at
A) 3 months
B) age 2.
C) 6 months.
D) 1 month.
E) 18 months.

back 93

B) age 2.

front 94

105) ________ is the medical specialty that focuses on postnatal development from infancy to
adolescence.
A) Geriatrics
B) Orthopedics
C) Pediatrics
D) Psychiatrics
E) Obstetrics

back 94

C) Pediatrics

front 95

106) The neonatal period extends
A) for the first 24 hours of life.
B) for the first month of life.
C) until the first birthday.
D) for the first six months.
E) until breast feeding stops.

back 95

B) for the first month of life.

front 96

107) The developmental period heralded by the onset of puberty is known as
A) post-infancy.
B) adolescence.
C) early childhood.
D) teenage years.
E) pre-teen.

back 96

B) adolescence.

front 97

108) The period from 1 month after birth to 1 year is known as
A) childhood.
B) post-fetal.
C) neogen.
D) infancy.
E) neonatal.

back 97

D) infancy.

front 98

109) A mother has a lot of milk stored in the breast and mammary glands but cannot seem to expel the milk for her newborn. Her doctor thinks that the cause may be
A) low levels of oxytocin.
B) high levels of HCG.
C) low levels of estrogen.
D) low levels of progesterone.
E) unresponsive smooth muscle around the mammary glands.

back 98

A) low levels of oxytocin.

front 99

110) The clear liquid secreted by the mammary glands before milk production begins is called
A) milk.
B) colostrum.
C) serum.
D) plasma.
E) peritoneal.

back 99

B) colostrum.

front 100

111) Adolescence begins at the period of sexual maturity called
A) menopause.
B) puberty.
C) senescence.
D) postnatal.
E) gestation.

back 100

B) puberty.

front 101

112) All of the following changes occur during puberty, except
A) the hypothalamus decreases its production of GnRH.
B) FSH levels increase.
C) LH levels increase.
D) growth rate increases.
E) gamete formation begins.

back 101

A) the hypothalamus decreases its production of GnRH.

front 102

113) A patient comes in the clinic expressing concern over changes in her body. She says she has been experiencing axillary and genital hair growth, breast growth, acne and she is going through a growth spurt. You reassure her these are all a normal part of maturation and inform her that she has begun
A) menarche.
B) menopause.
C) peri-menopause.
D) prenatal development.
E) puberty.

back 102

E) puberty.

front 103

114) Non-sex chromosomes are called
A) homologous.
B) homozygous.
C) heterozygous.
D) autosomal.
E) chromatids.

back 103

D) autosomal.

front 104

115) The alternate forms of any one gene are called
A) homologous.
B) homozygous.
C) heterozygous.
D) autosomes.
E) alleles.

back 104

E) alleles.

front 105

116) If an individual carries a pair of alleles that are the same, the individual is ________ for the trait.
A) homologous
B) homozygous
C) heterozygous
D) autosomous
E) polygenic

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B) homozygous

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117) If a color-blind (X-linked recessive trait) man marries a woman who is heterozygous for the trait, what proportion of their male offspring can be expected to be color blind?
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/8
D) 3/4
E) 100 (all)

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A) 1/2

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118) If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is ________ for the trait.
A) homologous
B) homozygous
C) heterozygous
D) autosomous
E) polygenic

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C) heterozygous

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119) If a sperm carrying the ʺYʺ chromosome fertilizes the ovum, the resulting offspring will be
A) haploid.
B) Rh positive blood type.
C) male.
D) fraternal twins.
E) female.

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C) male.

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120) The presence of a recessive gene can be detected (seen) only if the individual is
A) homozygous recessive.
B) heterozygous dominant.
C) heterozygous recessive.
D) homozygous dominant.
E) epistatic recessive.

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A) homozygous recessive.

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121) A woman who is heterozygous for blood type A mates with a man who is homozygous for blood type O. What blood type(s) would their children have?
A) 75% heterozygous type A
B) 100% type A
C) 75% homozygous type O
D) 100% type O
E) 50% type A, 50% type O

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E) 50% type A, 50% type O

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122) The gene for normal skin pigment (A) can also code for the recessive trait of albinism (a). An albino man and a homozygous normal pigmented woman marry and have four children. What is the phenotype of the children?
A) 75% normal skin pigment and 25% albino
B) 100% normal skin pigment
C) 50% normal skin pigment and 50% albino
D) 25% normal skin pigment and 75% albino
E) 100% albino

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B) 100% normal skin pigment

front 112

123) In simple autosomal inheritance, phenotypic characters are determined, or controlled, by
A) a single pair of alleles.
B) multiple alleles.
C) the action of a single gene.
D) regulator genes on a different chromosome.
E) the genes on the Y chromosome.

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A) a single pair of alleles.

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124) In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are
A) determined by a double pair of alleles.
B) determined by interactions among several genes.
C) determined by multiple copies of a single gene.
D) always controlled by genes on the same chromosome.
E) determined by the genes on the Y chromosome.

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B) determined by interactions among several genes.

front 114

125) How many chromosomes do human gametes contain?
A) 12
B) 23
C) 46
D) 92
E) 6

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B) 23

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126) How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain?
A) 12
B) 23
C) 46
D) 92
E) 6

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C) 46

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127) The 23rd set of chromosomes determines
A) characteristics of the brain.
B) sex.
C) body characteristics.
D) blood type.
E) sex drive.

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B) sex.

front 117

128) In ________, a sample of amniotic fluid is removed and the fetal cells it contains are analyzed.
A) chorionic villus sampling
B) amniocentesis
C) paracentesis
D) amniosis
E) thoracentesis

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B) amniocentesis

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129) The full set of genetic information in an individualʹs chromosomes is called
A) pleiotype.
B) allotype.
C) phenotype.
D) isotype.
E) genome.

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E) genome.

front 119

130) The traits of an individual controlled by his or her genotype are his or her
A) pleiotype.
B) allotype.
C) phenotype.
D) isotype.
E) genotype.

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C) phenotype.

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131) A ________ allele will always be expressed regardless of what the other allele happens to be.
A) homologous
B) homocentric
C) recessive
D) maternal
E) dominant

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E) dominant

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132) A ________ allele is expressed only when homozygous.
A) homologous
B) homocentric
C) recessive
D) maternal
E) dominant

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C) recessive

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133) The entire set of chromosomes of an individual can be visualized on a
A) locus.
B) map.
C) karyotype.
D) Punnett square.
E) genotype.

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C) karyotype.

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134) Height is not expressed by a simple dominant and recessive allele. This type of inheritance is termed
A) polygenic inheritance.
B) incomplete dominance.
C) codominance.
D) strict dominance.
E) simple inheritance.

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A) polygenic inheritance.

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135) The ABO blood type is an example of which type of inheritance?
A) polygenic inheritance
B) incomplete dominance
C) codominance
D) strict dominance
E) sex-linked

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C) codominance

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136) An individualʹs karyotype shows trisomy 21. This is an example of a
A) translocation.
B) chromosomal abnormality.
C) mutation.
D) recombination error.
E) teratogen.

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B) chromosomal abnormality.

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137) A geneʹs position on a chromosome is called a
A) karyotype.
B) map.
C) recombinant.
D) genome.
E) locus.

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E) locus.

front 127

1) What is the name and function of the outer cell layer of a blastocyst?
A) inner cell mass; become the yolk sac
B) morula; become the amniotic fluid
C) trophoblast; provide nutrients
D) blastomere; implant into the uterine wall
E) blastocoele; form the embryo

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C) trophoblast; provide nutrients

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2) What is the name of the third germ layer that forms during gastrulation?
A) ectoderm
B) endoderm
C) mesoderm
D) primitive streak
E) embryonic disc

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C) mesoderm

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3) What hormones stimulate and increase the excitability of the myometrium?
A) oxytocin and prostaglandins
B) prolactin and prostaglandins
C) estrogen and progesterone
D) oxytocin and progesterone
E) estrogen and prostaglandins

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A) oxytocin and prostaglandins

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4) Explain why this is a karyotype of a male and not a female.
A) The 23rd pair of chromosomes are an XX.
B) The 23rd pair of chromosomes are an XY.
C) There are 24 pairs of chromosomes.
D) There are 22 pairs of chromosomes.
E) The 23rd chromosome is a Y chromosome.

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B) The 23rd pair of chromosomes are an XY.

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5) What types of inheritance are involved in the following phenotypes-nearsightedness, normal vision, and red-green color blindness?
A) simple inheritance; polygenic inheritance; sex-linked inheritance
B) polygenic inheritance; sex-linked inheritance; sex-linked inheritance
C) sex-linked inheritance; polygenic inheritance; polygenic inheritance
D) polygenic inheritance; simple inheritance; polygenic inheritance
E) simple inheritance; simple inheritance; sex-linked inheritance

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E) simple inheritance; simple inheritance; sex-linked inheritance