front 1 A reservoir is _ | back 1 a source of microbial contamination. |
front 2 The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as | back 2 an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. |
front 3 An axenic environment is one | back 3 that is free of microbes. |
front 4 Commensalism is best described as a(n) | back 4 relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed. |
front 5 A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by public health agencies to stop the spread? | back 5 Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected. |
front 6 Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as | back 6 microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life. |
front 7 Infectious diseases can be classified on the basis of | back 7 disease severity and duration, organ system affected or type of microbe. |
front 8 Microbes known as transient microbiota are | back 8 organisms that remain in the body for a short time. |
front 9 Which of the following virulence factors directly contributes to severe inflammation? | back 9 lipid A |
front 10 Koch's postulates were used to demonstrate the relationship between | back 10 Haemophilus influenzae and meningitis. |
front 11 The person known to history as "Typhoid Mary" never had typhoid fever but was identified by public health officials as a source of Salmonella enterica Typhi. Which of the following is the most accurate description of her in this scenario? | back 11 both a human carrier and a reservoir |
front 12 A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen lost? | back 12 the ability to adhere to cells of the body |
front 13 A person is exposed to rotten wood with fungal growth and develops blastomycosis. No one taking care of him/her becomes ill. Blastomycosis is an example of a ________ disease. | back 13 noncommunicable |
front 14 Sebum contains ________ which contributes to creating an inhospitable environment on the surface of the body. | back 14 acids |
front 15 TLRs are | back 15 phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs. |
front 16 Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called | back 16 PAMPs. |
front 17 A type of lymphocyte called a(n) ________ detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and kills them. | back 17 NK cell |
front 18 The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe. | back 18 c3b |
front 19 What are NOD proteins? | back 19 cytoplasmic receptors of microbial molecules |
front 20 Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is true? | back 20 TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. |
front 21 Opsonization is | back 21 the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis. |
front 22 The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as | back 22 the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus |
front 23 Alpha and beta interferons | back 23 are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages. |
front 24 Which of the following is an iron-binding protein produced by pathogens to access the body's store of iron? | back 24 siderophores |
front 25 Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? | back 25 the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells. |
front 26 Which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell? | back 26 The cell undergoes apoptosis. |
front 27 How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented? | back 27 Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells. |
front 28 IgE antibodies are best described as | back 28 a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation. |
front 29 What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it? | back 29 display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface |
front 30 The immunological synapse refers to the | back 30 interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized cell-to-cell contact area. |
front 31 The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because | back 31 red blood cells do not produce MHC and, therefore, do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. |
front 32 Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? | back 32 They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens. |
front 33 Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE? | back 33 B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated using a bright-field light microscope. |
front 34 Infection with influenzavirus is commonly diagnosed using | back 34 both immunochromatographic assay and viral hemagglutination inhibition test. |
front 35 Serologic tests may be used to detect ________ for diagnosis of disease. | back 35 antigen-specific antibodies |
front 36 A new virus is discovered that causes cells to lyse. Which of the following types of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus? | back 36 viral neutralization |
front 37 A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? | back 37 an immunochromatographic assay |
front 38 The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be | back 38 a cloudy solution in the tube. |
front 39 Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using a(n) ________ on sputum (lung fluid) samples. | back 39 direct fluorescent antibody test |
front 40 a person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent? | back 40 active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy |
front 41 What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? | back 41 a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus |
front 42 Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE or lupus) is distinct from other autoimmune disorders because | back 42 multiple organs and tissues are affected. |
front 43 The syndrome known as AIDS is characterized | back 43 by one or more opportunistic diseases and the presence of HIV. |
front 44 Antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristic of | back 44 autoimmunity. |
front 45 Treatment with glucocorticoids to suppress type IV hypersensitivity may result in | back 45 acquired immunodeficiency. |
front 46 A child has a history of recurring serious bacterial infections. A blood sample shows lymphocyte levels are a little below normal, and no antibodies to the pathogens are detected in serologic tests. Based on this information, which of the following is the likeliest diagnosis for this child? | back 46 Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia |
front 47 Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is TRUE? | back 47 Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of the joints. |
front 48 Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include | back 48 molecular mimicry and genetic factors |
front 49 A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to | back 49 type IV hypersensitivity. |
front 50 Parasitic worms, even meters-long tapeworms, are studied in microbiology because | back 50 diagnosis usually involves microscopic examination of patient samples. |
front 51 A reaction requires water as a reactant and produces heat. What type of reaction is likely to be involved? | back 51 a synthesis reaction |
front 52 Which of the following is an accurate description of ATP? | back 52 ATP serves as a recyclable energy for cells. |
front 53 Lipid A is a component of | back 53 the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. |
front 54 ATP is expended in which of the following processes? | back 54 both active transport and group translocation |
front 55 Which of the following statements concerning endocytosis is TRUE? | back 55 Endocytosis produces a structure called a food vesicle. |
front 56 An important function of nomenclature is to | back 56 facilitate unambiguous communication. |
front 57 The Apicomplexa are named for their apical complexes which allow them to | back 57 penetrate the cytoplasmic membranes of host cells. |
front 58 The process in which the cytoplasm is divided between daughter cells is known as | back 58 cytokinesis. |
front 59 Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage? | back 59 the genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage. |
front 60 Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during which of the following stage(s) of glucose catabolism? | back 60 energy-conservation stage of glycolysis |
front 61 The metabolic processes called fermentation | back 61 use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor. |
front 62 Nitrogen is a growth-limiting nutrient for many organisms because | back 62 only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis. |
front 63 Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory | back 63 in a reducing medium. |
front 64 An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful? | back 64 inoculation of cell cultures |
front 65 DNA is composed of four nucleotides, A, C, G and T. Each codon is composed of three nucleotides. The number of possible codons is | back 65 64 |
front 66 Amino acids are delivered in their appropriate order by | back 66 tRNAs |
front 67 The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to | back 67 protect the cell from invading phages. |
front 68 What is the function of the high temperature step in PCR (polymerase chain reaction)? | back 68 break hydrogen bonds for strand separation |
front 69 The enzyme reverse transcriptase | back 69 synthesizes DNA from an RNA template. |
front 70 Which of the following is an example of pasteurization? | back 70 synthesizes DNA from an RNA template. |
front 71 You notice a sign in a public restroom that states "Sanitized for your safety." This means | back 71 methods of disinfection that meet minimum standards of microbial removal have been used. |
front 72 The process of filtration is a(n) | back 72 sterilizing method. |
front 73 The mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin is | back 73 inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. |
front 74 How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations? | back 74 Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids. |
front 75 The therapeutic range of an antimicrobial is the | back 75 range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic. |
front 76 Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE? | back 76 Different RNA polymerases are required for synthesis of mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. |
front 77 The production of NADH takes place during the ________ stage(s) of glycolysis. | back 77 energy-conservation |