front 5 contain the anticoagulant heparin granules
A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets | |
front 6 have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O | |
front 7 have both antigens A and B
A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O | |
front 8 have only anti-A antibody
A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O | |
front 9 have the antigen A
A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O | |
front 10 distribution
A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs | back 10 C. delivering oxygen from the lungs |
front 11 regulation
A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs | back 11 A. maintaining appropriate body temperature |
front 12 protection
A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs | |
front 13 water
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood | back 13 E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood |
front 14 albumin
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood | back 14 A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues |
front 15 globulins
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood | back 15 C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response |
front 16 non-protein nitrogenous substances
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood | back 16 B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid) |
front 17 electrolytes
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood | back 17 D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate |
front 18 porphyria
A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption | back 18 A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules |
front 19 hemorrhagic anemias
A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption | |
front 20 aplastic anemia
A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption | back 20 D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation |
front 21 iron-deficiency anemia
A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption | back 21 E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption |
front 22 sickle-cell anemia
A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption | back 22 B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids |
front 23 Neutrophils
A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components. | back 23 B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains. |
front 24 Eosinophils
A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components. | back 24 D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes. |
front 25 basophils
A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components. | back 25 C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes. |
front 26 Agranulocytes
A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components. | back 26 A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules. |
front 27 platelets
A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components. | back 27 E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components. |
front 28 Von Willebrand factor (VWF)
A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers | back 28 E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers |
front 29 tissue factor (TFIII), or tissue thromboplastin
A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers | back 29 D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway |
front 30 prothrombin
A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers | back 30 C. inactive form of thrombin |
front 31 thrombin
A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers | back 31 B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands |
front 32 serum
A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers | back 32 A. plasma minus the clotting proteins |
front 33 buffy coat
A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else | back 33 B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and |
front 34 hematocrit
A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else | back 34 A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood |
front 35 Plasma
A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else | back 35 C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else |
front 36 True or False
Each hemoglobin molecule has four polypeptide chains | back 36 two alpha chains and two beta chains.:
True
A hemoglobin molecule is composed of the protein globin bound to the iron-containing heme pigments. Each globin molecule has four polypeptide chains. |
front 37 True or False
Eosinophils are erythrocytes that fight parasitic infection or allergic reaction. | back 37 False
Eosinophils are leukocytes that defend the body against parasitic infections and lessen the severity of allergic reactions. |
front 38 True or False
Hemoglobin serves to transport oxygen, but NOT carbon dioxide. | back 38 False
About 20% of carbon dioxide is transported bound to hemoglobin. |
front 39 True or False
Plasma contains water, proteins, nutrient molecules, and hormones. | back 39 True
Plasma contains water, proteins, nutrient molecules, and hormones. |
front 40 True or False
Reticulocytes are sometimes found in circulating blood and are filled with hemoglobin and some ribosomes. | back 40 True
Reticulocytes are precursors of RBC that are sometimes found in circulating blood. |
front 41 True or False
The buffy coat in centrifuged blood contains RBC and platelets. | back 41 False
The buffy coat contains leukocytes and platelets. |
front 42 True or False
The RBC count in both men and women is between 5.1 and 5.8 million per microliter of blood. | back 42 False
Women have a slightly lower RBC count than men - 4.2-5.4 million cells per microliter (women); 4.7-6.1 million cells per microliter (men). |
front 43 True or False
Vitamin D is essential for the synthesis of RBC. | back 43 False
B-complex vitamins are essential for the production of RBC. |
front 44 True or False
When oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, it becomes oxyhemoglobin. | back 44 True
When oxygen is bound to the iron in hemoglobin, it becomes oxyhemoglobin. |
front 45 True or False
One of the regulatory functions of blood is to maintain normal temperatures in body tissues. | back 45 True
The blood does this by absorbing and distributing heat throughout the body and to the skin to encourage heat loss. |
front 46 True or False
The most abundant component of plasma is protein. | back 46 False
The most abundant component of plasma is water. |
front 47 True or False
Formed elements of blood include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. | back 47 True
These are called formed elements rather than "cells" because RBCs lack a nucleus at maturity, and platelets are fragments of a larger cell. |
front 48 True or False
Hemoglobin is the protein that makes red blood cells red. | back 48 True
Hemoglobin is bright red when combined with oxygen and dark red when NOT combined with oxygen. |
front 49 True or False
Blood cell formation is referred to as hemostasis. | back 49 False
Blood cell formation is referred to as hemopoiesis (or hematopoiesis). |
front 50 True or False
Dissolved proteins are an important part of blood clotting. | back 50 True
Dissolved proteins are involved in coagulation, which is part of the clotting process. |
front 51 True or False
Blood is NOT important in the regulation of the body's pH. | back 51 False
Plasma proteins and bicarbonate ions are very important in maintaining pH. |
front 52 A healthy adult male has approximately __________ liters of blood.
A) 1-2
B) 2-3
C) 3-4
D) 5-6
E) 7-8 | |
front 53 A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is __________.
A) angiotensinogen
B) fibrin
C) globulin
D) fibrinogen
E ) albumin | |
front 54 Diapedesis refers to __________.
A) the secretion of chemicals that trigger the inflammatory process
B) the type of movement erythrocytes use in the tissue spaces
C) the chemical attraction leukocytes use to reach the site of tissue damage
D) the engulfing of foreign bodies by leukocytes
E) the movement of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces | back 54 E) the movement of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces |
front 55 Granulocytes do NOT include __________.
A) basophils
B) PMNs
C) monocytes
D) neutrophils
E) eosinophils | |
front 56 Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with __________.
A) nuclei and all other cellular organelles
B) mitochondria
C) lysosomes
D) hemoglobin molecules
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum | |
front 57 Pernicious anemia may result from __________.
A) abnormal production of hemoglobin caused by genetic defect
B) excessive bleeding
C) rupture of red blood cells caused by parasites
D) the lack of vitamin B12 in the diet or a deficiency of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12
E) the absence or depressed synthesis of globin chains | back 57 D) the lack of vitamin B12 in the diet or a deficiency of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12 |
front 58 The final step in clot formation is __________.
A) prothrombin → thrombin
B) formation of prothrombin activator
C) fibrinogen → fibrin
D) platelet plug formation
E) the release of chemical by platelets | |
front 59 The most numerous leukocyte is the __________.
A) neutrophil
B) monocyte
C) lymphocyte
D) basophil
E) eosinophil | |
front 60 The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to __________.
A) white blood cells
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) red blood cells
E) thrombocytes | |
front 61 Which leukocyte contains histamine in its granules?
A) neutrophils
B) monocytes
C) eosinophils
D) basophils
E) lymphocytes | |
front 62 Which of the following is a protective function of blood?
A) preventing infection
B) transporting hormones from endocrine organs to target tissues
C) delivering oxygen from the lungs to all body tissues
D) maintaining normal body temperature
E) maintaining normal pH in the body | |
front 63 Which of the following statements about platelets is INCORRECT?
A) The formation of platelets is regulated by the hormone thrombopoietin.
B) Platelets are essential for the clotting process.
C) The life span of platelets is between 30 to 60 days.
D) Platelets contain serotonin, ADP, calcium, and PDGF.
E) Platelets are fragments of a larger cell called a megakaryocyte. | back 63 C) The life span of platelets is between 30 to 60 days. |
front 64 Which property do white blood cells have in common?
A) All WBCs are granulocytes.
B) WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function.
C) WBCs transport oxygen.
D) All WBCs have a phagocytic function. | back 64 B) WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function. |
front 65 Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have which type of anemia?
A) iron-deficiency anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) hemorrhagic anemia
D) sickle-cell anemia
E) renal anemia | |
front 66 Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms, destroys antibody complexes, and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy?
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) basophils
E) monocytes | |
front 67 Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?
A) mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies
B) kill parasitic worms
C) release histamine and other mediators of inflammation
D) seal small tears in blood vessels
E) phagocytize bacteria | |
front 68 Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes?
A) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
B) phagocytize bacteria
C) mount immune response
E) release histamine
D) kill parasitic worms | back 68 A) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide |
front 69 Which of the following is a function of basophils?
A) phagocytize bacteria
B) release histamine during allergic reaction
C) transport blood gases
D) kill parasites
E) mount immune response | back 69 B) release histamine during allergic reaction |
front 70 Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?
A) carry oxygen
B) destruction of virus-containing cells
C) regulate pH
D) produce albumin
E) maintain body temperature | back 70 B) destruction of virus-containing cells |
front 71 The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the __________.
A) reticulocyte count
B) hematocrit
C) ESR
D) red blood cell count | |
front 72 The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains __________.
A) RBCs
B) serum
C) WBCs
D) plasma | |
front 73 Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on making RBCs very efficient oxygen transporters?
A) They represent most of the formed elements in the blood.
B) They carry 20% of the carbon dioxide released by tissues back to the lungs.
C) They don't contain a nucleus.
D) They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry. | back 73 D) They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry. |
front 74 Another term for reduced hemoglobin is __________.
A) deoxyhemoglobin
B) hemoglobin S
C) oxyhemoglobin
D) carbaminohemoglobin | |
front 75 Which type of anemia results from the destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by drugs, chemicals, ionizing radiation, or viruses?
A) pernicious anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) iron-deficiency anemia
D) renal anemia | |
front 76 The process of actively metabolizing oxygen by neutrophils to produce bleach and hydrogen to kill bacteria is known as __________.
A) chemotaxis
B) diapedesis
C) the respiratory burst
E) amoeboid movement | |
front 77 Which of the following substances is responsible for limiting a platelet plug to the immediate area of damage?
A) prostacyclin
B) adenosine diphosphate
C) thromboxane A2
D) serotonin | |
front 78 Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by __________.
A) a loss of blood by the fetus
B) an Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy
C) a malfunction of the thymus during fetal development
D) an increase in the number of erythrocytes in the newborn | back 78 B) an Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy |
front 79 Which of the following plasma expanders would be associated with the LEAST complications?
A) Ringer's solution
B) hetastarch
C) dextran
D) human serum albumin | |
front 80 Eighty-five percent of Americans carry the __________ Rh agglutinogen on their RBCs.
A) D
B) K
C) E
D) C | |
front 81 Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood?
A) anti-A antibodies
B) anti-B antibodies
C) neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
D) both anti-B and anti-A antibodies | back 81 C) neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies |
front 82 The percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the __________.
A) hematocrit
B) blood volume
C) hemostat
D) buffy coat | |
front 83 Which of the following is NOT a role of albumin?
A) It acts as a carrier molecule.
B) It contributes to plasma osmotic pressure.
C) It serves an immune system function.
D) It acts as a blood buffer. | back 83 C) It serves an immune system function. |
front 84 Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte?
A) It has a biconcave disc shape.
B) It has mitochondria.
C) It is composed mostly of albumin and water.
D) It has a nucleus. | back 84 A) It has a biconcave disc shape. |
front 85 One molecule of hemoglobin can bind a maximum of __________ oxygen molecules.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight | |
front 86 Erythropoiesis is best defined as __________.
A) platelet production.
B) red blood cell production
C) leukocyte production
D) albumin production | back 86 B) red blood cell production |
front 87 Erythropoietin is made primarily by the __________.
A) spleen
B) pancreas
C) kidneys
D) pituitary gland | |
front 88 Aging red blood cells are fragmented and trapped in the __________.
A) spleen
B) intestines
C) kidneys
D) liver | |
front 89 A patient who lacks intrinsic factor would likely develop __________.
A) sickle-cell anemia
B) hemorrhagic anemia
C) aplastic anemia
D) pernicious anemia | |
front 90 The migration of white blood cells out of the capillary blood vessels is called __________.
A) diapedesis
B) transcytosis
C) leukocytosis
D) active transport | |
front 91 Neutrophil
A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus | back 91 A) the most numerous type of white blood cell |
front 92 Macrophage
A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus | back 92 E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus: |
front 93 Basophil
A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus | back 93 B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules |
front 94 Lymphocyte
A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus | back 94 C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades |
front 95 Eosinophil
A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus | back 95 D) has a role in killing parasitic worms |
front 96 Which of the following is considered a type of lymphocyte?
A) basophil
B) B cell
C) neutrophil
D) macrophage | |
front 97 Overproduction of white blood cells is called __________.
A) leukopenia
B) polycythemia
C) leukocytosis
D) leucopoiesis | |
front 98 Platelets are derived from __________.
A) band cells
B) megakaryocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes | |
front 99 Which of the following shows the correct sequence of hemostasis from start to end?
A) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
C) platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, coagulation
D) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation | back 99 B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation |
front 100 Which of the following is true regarding the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
A) The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor.
B) The extrinsic pathway does not involve calcium ions.
C) The extrinsic pathway is slower than the intrinsic pathway of blood clotting.
D) The extrinsic pathway is independent of procoagulants. | back 100 A) The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor. |
front 101 heparin
A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing | |
front 102 Thrombin
A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing | back 102 A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin |
front 103 prothrombin activator
A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing | |
front 104 plasmin
A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing | back 104 C) fibrin-digesting enzyme |
front 105 platelet-derived growth factor
A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing | back 105 E) stimulates blood vessel healing |
front 106 True or False
A free-floating blood clot is called a thrombus. | |
front 107 Blood type is determined by __________.
A) antibodies present in the plasma
B) glycoproteins present in the plasma
C) glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes
D) antibodies present on the surface of erythrocytes | back 107 C) glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes |
front 108 True or False
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can develop when an Rh+ woman is pregnant with an Rh- baby. | |
front 109 would make antibodies to the A agglutinogen but not the B agglutinogen
A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood | back 109 A) person with type B blood |
front 110 would make antibodies to the B agglutinogen but not the A agglutinogen
A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood | back 110 B) person with type A blood |
front 111 would have type A and B agglutinogens
A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood | back 111 D) person with type AB blood |
front 112 would make antibodies to the A and B agglutinogens
A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood | back 112 C) person with type O blood |
front 113 Choose the true statement about fetal hemoglobin.
A) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
B) Fetal hemoglobin contains four alpha chains.
C) Fetal hemoglobin is produced until the baby is one year old.
D) Fetal hemoglobin is called hemoglobin A. | back 113 A) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin. |