A woman who is 7 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that this is not her
first pregnancy. She has a 2-year-old son and had one previous
spontaneous abortion. How would the nurse document the patients
obstetric history using the TPALM system?
a. Gravida 2, para
20120
b. Gravida 3, para 10011
c. Gravida 3, para
10110
d. Gravida 2, para 11110
ANS: C
Refer to Box 4-1 in the textbook for the TPALM system of
identifying gravida and para.
A woman calls her health care provider to schedule prenatal visits in
an uncomplicated pregnancy. How frequently will the nurse assist the
patient to schedule these appointments?
a. Every 3 weeks until
the 6th month, then every 2 weeks until delivery
b. Every 4 weeks
until the 7th month, after which appointments will become more
frequent
c. Monthly until the 8th month
d. Every 2 to 3
weeks for the entire pregnancy
ANS: B
Monthly visits are scheduled up to 28 weeks, and then
visits increase to every 2 to 3 weeks through 36 weeks. From 36 weeks
until delivery, visits are weekly.
During the physical examination for the first prenatal visit, it is
noted that Chadwicks sign is present. What is Chadwicks sign?
a.
Bluish or purplish discoloration of the vulva, vagina, and
cervix
b. Presence of early fetal movements
c. Darkening of
the areola and breast tenderness
d. Palpation of the fetal outline
ANS: A
Chadwicks sign is the purplish or bluish discoloration of
the cervix and vagina.
After the examination is completed, the patient asks the nurse why
Chadwicks sign occurs during pregnancy. What would the nurse explain
as the cause of Chadwicks sign?
a. Enlargement of the
uterus
b. Progesterone action on the breasts
c. Increasing
activity of the fetus
d. Vascular congestion in the pelvic area
ANS: D
Chadwicks sign is caused by increased vascular congestion
in the cervical and vaginal area.
The nurse has explained physiological changes that occur during
pregnancy. Which statement indicates that the woman understands the
information?
a. Blood pressure goes up toward the end of
pregnancy.
b. My breathing will get deeper and a little
faster.
c. Ill notice a decreased pigmentation in my
skin.
d. There will be a curvature in the upper spine area.
ANS: B
The pregnant woman breathes more deeply, and her
respiratory rate may increase slightly.
A woman reports that her last normal menstrual period began on August
5, 2013. What is this womans expected delivery date using Ngeles
rule?
a. April 30, 2014
b. May 5, 2014
c. May 12,
2014
d. May 26, 2014
ANS: C
To determine the expected date of delivery, count
backward 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period,
then add 7 days and change the year if necessary.
During the second prenatal visit, the nurse attempts to locate the
fetal heartbeat with an electronic Doppler device. How early might
fetal heart tones be detected with an electronic Doppler
device?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 10 weeks
d. 14 weeks
ANS: C
The fetal heartbeat can be detected as early as 10 weeks
of pregnancy using a Doppler device.
In a routine prenatal visit, the nurse examining a patient who is 37
weeks pregnant notices that the fetal heart rate (FHR) has dropped to
120 beats/min from a rate of 160 beats/min earlier in the pregnancy.
What is the nurses first action?
a. Ask if the patient has taken
a sedative.
b. Notify the physician.
c. Turn the patient to
her right side.
d. Record the rate as a normal finding.
ANS: D
The FHR at term ranges from a low of 110 to 120 beats/min
to a high of 150 to 160 beats/min. This should be recorded as normal.
The FHR drops in the late stages of pregnancy.
A womans prepregnant weight is determined to be average for her
height. What will the nurse advise the woman regarding recommended
weight gain during pregnancy?
a. 10 to 20 pounds
b. 15 to 25
pounds
c. 25 to 35 pounds
d. 28 to 40 pounds
ANS: C
The recommended weight gain for a woman of normal weight
before pregnancy is 25 to 35 pounds.
When the nurse tells a pregnant woman that she needs 1200 mg of
calcium daily during pregnancy, the woman responds, I dont like milk.
What dietary adjustments could the nurse recommend?
a. Increase
intake of organ meats.
b. Eat more green leafy
vegetables.
c. Choose more fresh fruits, particularly citrus
fruits.
d. Include molasses and whole-grain breads in the diet.
ANS: B
For women who do not like milk, other sources of calcium
include enriched cereals, legumes, nuts, dried fruits, green leafy
vegetables, and canned salmon and sardines that contain bones.
A pregnant woman is experiencing nausea in the early morning. What
recommendations would the nurse offer to alleviate this
symptom?
a. Eat three well-balanced meals per day and limit
snacks.
b. Drink a full glass of fluid at the beginning of each
meal.
c. Have crackers handy at the bedside, and eat a few before
getting out of bed.
d. Eat a bland diet and avoid concentrated sweets.
ANS: C
The nurse can recommend eating dry toast or crackers
before getting out of bed in the morning to alleviate nausea during pregnancy.
The patient who is 28 weeks pregnant shows a 10-pound weight gain
from 2 weeks ago. What is the nurses initial action?
a. Assess
food intake.
b. Weigh the patient again.
c. Take the blood
pressure.
d. Notify the physician.
ANS: C
The marked weight gain may be an indication of
gestational hypertension. The blood pressure should be assessed before
notifying the physician.
The patient remarks that she has heard some foods will enhance brain
development of the fetus. The nurse replies that foods high in
docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) are thought to enhance brain development.
What food can the nurse recommend?
a. Fried fish
b. Olive
oil
c. Red meat
d. Leafy green vegetables
ANS: C
Foods rich in DHA are red meat, flounder, halibut, and
soybean and canola oil. Frying fish negatively alters the DHA.
The nurse encourages adequate intake of folic acid for women of
childbearing age before and during pregnancy. What is folic acid
thought to decrease the incidence of in fetal development?
a.
Structural heart defects
b. Craniofacial deformities
c. Limb
deformities
d. Neural tube defects
ANS: D
Folic acid can reduce the incidence of neural tube
defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly.
A woman tells the nurse that she is quite sure she is pregnant. The
nurse recognizes which as a positive sign of pregnancy?
a.
Amenorrhea
b. Uterine enlargement
c. HCG detected in the
urine
d. Fetal heartbeat
ANS: D
Positive indications are caused only by the developing
fetus and include fetal heart activity, visualization by ultrasound,
and fetal movements felt by the examiner.
At her initial prenatal visit a woman asks, When can I hear the babys
heartbeat? At what gestational age can the fetal heartbeat be
auscultated with a specially adapted stethoscope or fetoscope?
a.
4 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 18 weeks
d. 24 weeks
ANS: C
The fetal heartbeat can be heard with a fetoscope between
the 18th and 20th weeks of pregnancy.
A woman pregnant for the first time asks the nurse, When will I begin
to feel the baby move? What is the nurses best response?
a. You
may notice the baby moving around the 4th or 5th month.
b.
Quickening varies with every woman.
c. Youll feel something by
the end of the first trimester.
d. The baby will be big enough
for you to feel in your 8th month.
ANS: A
Quickening, fetal movement felt by the mother, is first
perceived at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation.
A pregnant woman inquires about exercising during pregnancy. What
information should the nurse include when planning to educate this
woman?
a. Exercise elevates the mothers temperature and improves
fetal circulation.
b. Exercise increases catecholamines, which
can prevent preterm labor.
c. A regular schedule of moderate
exercise during pregnancy is beneficial.
d. Pregnant women should
limit water intake during exercise.
ANS: C
In general, moderate exercise several times a week, from
the 8th week through delivery, is advised during pregnancy.
An ultrasound confirms that a 16-year-old girl is pregnant. How does
the need for prenatal care and counseling for adolescents different
from other age populations?
a. A pregnant adolescent is
experiencing two major life transitions at the same time.
b.
Adolescents who get pregnant are more likely to have other chronic
health problems.
c. Adolescents are at greater risk for
multifetal pregnancies.
d. At this age, a pregnant adolescent
will accept the nurses advice.
ANS: A
The pregnant adolescent must cope with two of lifes most
stress-laden transitions simultaneously: adolescence and parenthood.
At what age is a woman who becomes pregnant for the first time
described as an elderly primip?
a. After 25 years old
b.
After 28 years old
c. After 30 years old
d. After 35 years old
ANS: D
A woman over the age of 35 who becomes pregnant for the
first time is described as an elderly primip.
The nurse explains that the softening of the cervix and vagina is a
probable sign of pregnancy. What is the appropriate term for this
sign?
a. Chadwicks
b. Hegars
c. McDonalds
d. Goodells
ANS: D
Goodells sign is one of the probable signs of pregnancy
and describes a softened cervix and vagina.
When obtaining a prenatal history on a pregnant patient the nurse
notes a family history of sickle cell disease. Given this information,
what lab test can the nurse anticipate the physician will
order?
a. Endovaginal ultrasound
b. Pap test
c.
Complete blood count
d. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
ANS: D
Hemoglobin electrophoresis identifies presence of sickle
cell trait or disease (in women of African or Mediterranean descent).
It is ordered in the first trimester, if indicated.
A pregnant woman is attending her second postpartum visit. Prenatal
lab work indicates she is not immune to the rubella virus. What is the
most appropriate nursing intervention?
a. Provide the rubella
vaccine as ordered by the physician immediately.
b. Inform the
woman she should receive the vaccine in the hospital after
delivery.
c. Hold all immunizations until 1 month
postpartum.
d. Encourage the patient to decide whether or not to
get the rubella vaccine prenatally.
ANS: B
The rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.
A woman should be instructed to avoid pregnancy for at least 1 month
following rubella immunization. It is not necessary to hold all
immunizations until 1 month postpartum.
A woman who is 37 weeks pregnant reports feeling dizzy when lying on
her back. What does the nurse explain as the most likely cause of this
symptom?
a. Supine hypotension syndrome
b. Gestational
diabetes
c. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
d. Malnutrition
ANS: A
Supine hypotension syndrome, also called aortocaval
compression or vena cava syndrome, may occur if the woman lies on her
back. Symptoms of supine hypotension syndrome include faintness,
lightheadedness, dizziness, and agitation.
A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant tells the nurse she plans to take a
12-hour flight to Hawaii. What would the nurse recommend that the
patient do during the flight? (Select all that apply.)
a. Wear
tight-fitting clothing to promote venous return.
b. Eat a large
meal before boarding the flight.
c. Request a seat with greater
leg room.
d. Drink at least 4 ounces of water every hour.
e.
Get up and walk around the plane frequently.
ANS: C, D, E
Because of the increase in clotting potential, the
pregnant patient is prone to a thromboembolism. Adequate hydration,
frequent position changes, and movement decrease the risk.
The nurse cautions the patient that, because of hormonal changes in
late pregnancy, the pelvic joints relax. What does this result in?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Waddling gait
b. Joint
instability
c. Urinary frequency
d. Back pain
e. Aching
in cervical spine
ANS: A, B
A waddling gait and joint instability are the only
signs that relate to joint changes. The other discomforts are related
to the enlarging uterus with its attendant weight.
The nurse assesses the progress from the announcement stage of
fatherhood to the acceptance stage when the patient reports which
actions by the father? (Select all that apply.)
a. Goes fishing
every afternoon
b. Has revised his financial plan
c. Spends
leisure time with his friends
d. Traded his sports car for a
sedan
e. Helped select a crib
ANS: B, D, E
Active planning for an infant is an indication of
the acceptance stage. Concentration on a hobby and spending time away
from home are indicators of nonacceptance.
What nursing interventions are appropriate for the prenatal patient
in terms of prenatal care? (Select all that apply.)
a. Offer
nutritional counseling.
b. Reinforce responsibility of
parenthood.
c. Reduce risk factors.
d. Improve health
practices.
e. Make financial arrangements for delivery.
ANS: A, B, C, D
Nutritional counseling, reinforcing and
discussing the responsibility of parenthood, reducing risk factors for
the pregnant woman and the fetus, and improving health practices are
all goals of prenatal care.
The nurse recognizes which behavior characteristic(s) of women in
their first trimester of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Showing off her sonogram photos
b. Ambivalence about
pregnancy
c. Emotional and labile mood
d. Focusing on her
infant
e. Fatigue
ANS: A, B, C, E
Showing off photos, feeling ambivalence about
the pregnancy, fragile emotions, and fatigue and sleepiness are all
characteristic of behaviors seen in the first trimester. Women are not
focused on their infant; they are focused on themselves and the
physical changes they are experiencing.
The number of years between menarche and the date of conception is
known as
___________________ age.
ANS:
gynecological
Gynecological age is a term that refers to the number of years between the starting of the menses and the date of conception.
The nurse reminds the prenatal patient that she should add ________ kcal to her daily intake to nourish the fetus.
ANS:
300
The recommended dietary intake increase is 300
kcal a day.
The patient confesses to eating crushed ice 10 or 12 times daily. The nurse assesses this behavior as __________.
ANS:
pica
Pica is the craving and ingestion of nonfood
substances such as clay, crushed ice, and ashes.
The nurse is aware that ______________ maneuver can assess the position and presentation of the fetus.
ANS:
Leopolds
Leopolds maneuver assesses the position and
the presentation of the fetus by palpation.
Fathers go through phases similar to the expectant mother. Place the
following phases in order from first to last. Put a comma and space
between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.)
a. Focus
phase
b. Announcement phase
c. Adjustment phase
ANS:
B, C, A
For fathers, the announcement phase begins
when pregnancy is confirmed. The second phase of the fathers response
is the adjustment phase. The third phase of the fathers response is
the focus phase, in which active plans for participation in the labor
process, birth, and change in lifestyle result in the partner feeling
like a father.