1) The male wasp, Campsoscolia ciliata, transfers pollen from one
orchid to another orchid of the same species. What "reward"
does the male wasp receive from the orchid plants for helping with the
orchid pollination?
A) a supply of energy-rich nectar
B)
volatile chemical hormones that help the male wasp find a sexually
receptive female
C) no reward; the male wasp is deceived by the
flower shape and odor
D) successful copulation with the flower
E) a store of nectar that the wasp can use in time of famine
Answer: C
2) Which of the following plant/animal interactions is not a mutually
beneficial (mutualistic) relationship?
A) honeybees gathering
pollen from apple blossoms
B) butterflies gathering nectar from
lily blossoms
C) beetles feeding on magnolia blossoms
D)
ants protecting and feeding from nectaries of Acacia
E) wasps
such as Campsoscolia ciliata transferring pollen in orchid flowers
Answer: E
3) Which of the following best describes the ploidy level of a
fertilized embryo sac?
A) All cells are diploid.
B) All
cells are triploid.
C) All cells are polyploid.
D) The
ploidy level varies among species.
E) There are haploid,
diploid, and triploid cells.
Answer: E
4) A flowering plant with a deleterious mutation in microsporogenesis
would most likely
A) fail to produce sepals.
B) fail to
produce petals.
C) fail to produce anthers.
D) fail to
produce pollen.
E) fail to produce ovules.
Answer: D
5) When comparing the mature seeds of a pine tree to an apple tree,
which of the following is a correct statement?
A) The
developmental sequences postfertilization are identical.
B) Both
contain triploid tissue.
C) The nutritive tissues are both
haploid.
D) Only the apple seed has a diploid seed coat.
E) Both contain haploid and diploid tissues.
Answer: E
6) A mature, unfertilized ovule in an angiosperm is the result of
A) a single meiotic division.
B) a single mitotic
division.
C) both meiotic and mitotic divisions.
D)
mitosis from the megaspore mother cell.
E) differentiation from
the suspensor tissues.
Answer: C
7) At the conclusion of meiosis in plants, the end products are
always four haploid
A) spores.
B) eggs.
C) sperm.
D) seeds.
E) gametes.
Answer: A
8) Which of the following is the correct sequence during the
alternation of generations life cycle in a flowering plant?
A) sporophyte → meiosis → gametophyte → gametes → fertilization
→ diploid zygote
B) sporophyte → mitosis → gametophyte → meiosis
→ sporophyte
C) haploid gametophyte → gametes → meiosis →
fertilization → diploid sporophyte
D) sporophyte → spores →
meiosis → gametophyte → gametes
E) haploid sporophyte → spores →
fertilization → diploid gametophyte
Answer: A
9) Which of the following is true in plants?
A) Mitosis occurs
in gametophytes to produce gametes.
B) Meiosis occurs in
sporophytes to produce spores.
C) The gametophyte is within the
flower in angiosperms.
D) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to
produce gametes, and meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores.
E) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes, meiosis
occurs in sporophytes to produce spores, and the gametophyte is within
the flower in angiosperms.
Answer: E
10) Which of the following are true of most angiosperms?
A) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed.
B) They have an ovary that becomes a fruit.
C) They have a small (reduced) sporophyte.
D) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed and an ovary
that becomes a fruit.
E) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed, an ovary that
becomes a fruit, and a small (reduced) sporophyte.
Answer: D
11) Based on studies of plant evolution and anatomy, which flower
part is least likely to have evolved from a leaf?
A) stamen
B) carpel
C) petals
D) sepals
E) receptacle
Answer: E
12) All of the following floral parts are involved in pollination or
fertilization except the
A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C)
petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.
Answer: D
13) The ovary is most often located on/in the
A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.
Answer: B
14) Microsporangia in flowering plants are located in the
A)
stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.
Answer: A
15) Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from
the outside to the inside of a complete flower?
A) petals →
sepals → stamens → carpels
B) sepals → stamens → petals →
carpels
C) spores → gametes → zygote → embryo
D) sepals →
petals → stamens → carpels
E) male gametophyte → female
gametophyte → sepals → petals
Answer: D
16) In some angiosperms, other floral parts contribute to what is
commonly called the fruit. Which of the following fruits is derived
mostly from an enlarged receptacle?
A) pea
B) raspberry
C) apple
D) pineapple
E) peach
Answer: C
17) All of the following are primary functions of flowers except
A) pollen production.
B) photosynthesis.
C) meiosis.
D) egg production.
E) sexual reproduction.
Answer: B
18) Meiosis occurs within all of the following flower parts except
the
A) ovule.
B) style.
C) megasporangium.
D)
anther.
E) ovary.
Answer: B
19) A perfect flower is fertile, but may be either complete or
incomplete. Which of the following correctly describes a perfect
flower?
A) It has no sepals.
B) It has fused carpels.
C) It is on a dioecious plant.
D) It has no endosperm.
E) It has both stamens and carpels.
Answer: E
20) Carpellate flowers
A) are perfect.
B) are complete.
C) produce pollen.
D) are found only on dioecious
plants.
E) develop into fruits.
Answer: E
21) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is
false?
A) The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B)
Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.
C) Pollination is the placing of pollen on the stigma of a
carpel.
D) The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell
that contains two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus.
E) Flowers
produce fruits within the ovules.
Answer: B
22) Which of the following types of plants are incapable of
self-pollination?
A) dioecious
B) monoecious
C)
complete
D) wind-pollinated
E) insect-pollinated
Answer: A
23) In flowering plants, pollen is released from the
A) anther.
B) stigma.
C) carpel.
D) filament.
E) pollen tube.
Answer: A
24) In the life cycle of an angiosperm, which of the following stages
is diploid?
A) megaspore
B) generative nucleus of a pollen
grain
C) polar nuclei of the embryo sac
D) microsporocyte
E) both megaspore and polar nuclei
Answer: D
25) Where does meiosis occur in flowering plants?
A)
megasporocyte
B) microsporocyte
C) endosperm
D)
pollen tube
E) megasporocyte and microsporocyte
Answer: E
26) Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that
takes place when a flowering plant reproduces?
A) meiosis →
fertilization → ovulation → germination
B) fertilization →
meiosis → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm
C)
meiosis → pollination → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and
endosperm
D) growth of pollen tube → pollination → germination →
fertilization
E) meiosis → mitosis → nuclear fusion → pollen
Answer: C
27) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its life-cycle
generation?
A) anther gametophyte
B) pollen gametophyte
C) embryo sac gametophyte
D) stamen sporophyte
E)
embryo sporophyte
Answer: A
28) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a
pollen sac?
A) sporangia → meiosis → two haploid cells → meiosis
→ two pollen grains per cell
B) pollen grain → meiosis → two
generative cells → two tube cells per pollen grain
C) two
haploid cells → meiosis → generative cell → tube cell-fertilization →
pollen grain
D) pollen grain → mitosis → microspores → meiosis →
generative cell plus tube cell
E) microsporocyte → meiosis →
microspores → mitosis → two haploid cells per pollen grain
Answer: E
29) Which of the following occurs in an angiosperm ovule?
A) An
antheridium forms from the megasporophyte.
B) A megaspore mother
cell undergoes meiosis.
C) The egg nucleus is usually diploid.
D) A pollen tube emerges to accept pollen after pollination.
E) The endosperm surrounds the megaspore mother cell.
Answer: B
30) Where and by which process are sperm cells formed in plants?
A) meiosis in pollen grains
B) meiosis in anthers
C)
mitosis in male gametophyte pollen tube
D) mitosis in the
micropyle
E) mitosis in the embryo sac
Answer: C
31) In which of the following pairs are the two terms equivalent?
A) ovule egg
B) embryo sac female gametophyte
C)
endosperm male gametophyte
D) seed zygote
E) microspore
pollen grain
Answer: B
32) Which of the following is the male gametophyte of a flowering
plant?
A) ovule
B) microsporocyte
C) pollen grain
D) embryo sac
E) stamen
Answer: C
33) Which of the following would be considered a multiple fruit?
A) apple
B) strawberry
C) raspberry
D)
pineapple
E) corn on the cob
Answer: D
34) In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte contains
A)
two haploid gametes and a diploid pollen grain.
B) a generative
cell and a tube cell.
C) two sperm nuclei and one tube cell
nucleus.
D) two haploid microspores.
E) a haploid nucleus
and a diploid pollen wall.
Answer: C
35) Three mitotic divisions within the female gametophyte of the
megaspore produce
A) three antipodal cells, two polar nuclei,
one egg, and two synergids.
B) the triple fusion nucleus.
C) three pollen grains.
D) two antipodal cells, two polar
nuclei, two eggs, and two synergids.
E) a tube nucleus, a
generative cell, and a sperm cell.
Answer: A
36) What is the difference between pollination and fertilization in
flowering plants?
A) Fertilization precedes pollination.
B) Pollination easily occurs between plants of different
species, whereas fertilization is within a species.
C) Pollen is
formed within megasporangia so that male and female gametes are near
each other.
D) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from an
anther to a stigma. Fertilization is the fusion of haploid nuclei.
E) If fertilization occurs, pollination is unnecessary.
Answer: D
37) Recent research has shown that pollination requires that carpels
recognize pollen grains as "self or nonself." For
self-incompatibility, the system requires
A) the rejection of
nonself cells.
B) the rejection of self cells.
C) carpel
incompatibility with the egg cells.
D) that the flowers be
incomplete.
E) the union of genetically identical sperm and egg cells.
Answer: B
38) Genetic incompatibility does not affect the
A) attraction
of a suitable insect pollinator.
B) germination of the pollen on
the stigma.
C) growth of the pollen tube in the style.
D)
membrane permeability of cells.
E) different individuals of the
same species.
Answer: A
39) What effects would occur in a mutant of Arabidopsis that cannot
synthesize GABA within its flowers?
A) Pollen tube growth would
not be directed toward the egg, and fertilization would not occur.
B) The seeds from the flowers would be unable to break dormancy.
C) The pollen grain would not form a pollen tube due to
incompatibility with the pollen tube.
D) The length of the style
would be increased to the point where the growing pollen tube would be
unable to reach the synergids.
Answer: A
40) As a flower develops, which transition is most likely to occur?
A) The microspores become pollen grains.
B) The ovule
becomes a fruit.
C) The petals are retained.
D) The
vegetative nucleus becomes a sperm nucleus.
E) The ovules become ovaries.
Answer: A
41) The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to
A)
protect against animal predation.
B) ensure double
fertilization.
C) form a seed coat.
D) direct development
of the endosperm.
E) produce hormones that ensure successful pollination.
Answer: C
42) Which of the following events suggests there is a change in the
egg cell membrane after penetration by a sperm?
A) The pollen tube grows away from the egg toward the polar
nuclei.
B) CA2+ builds up in the cytoplasm of the egg.
C)
The egg cell plasmolyzes.
D) Double fertilization occurs.
E) There is a spike in membrane transport activity.
Answer: B
43) The structure of a mature, functional fruit always includes
A) one or more seeds.
B) extensive vascular connections to
the parent plant.
C) fleshy cells rich in sugars.
D)
brightly colored pigments to attract animal dispersers.
E)
subtending bracts to protect against predators.
Answer: A
44) Which of the following statements argues for an advantage for
flowering plants to maintain an extended gametophyte generation?
A) The protection of female gametophytes within ovules keeps
them from drying out.
B) Sperm with flagella can reach the egg
faster.
C) It provides sufficient time for the integument to
develop into a seed coat.
D) It allows for a complex nucleus to
develop.
E) It allows more time for potential pollination.
Answer: A
45) What is typically the result of double fertilization in
angiosperms?
A) The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient
tissue.
B) A triploid zygote is formed.
C) Both a diploid
embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.
D) Two embryos develop
in every seed.
E) The antipodal cells develop into the seed coat.
Answer: C
46) Which of the following statements applies to the endosperm in
angiosperms?
A) Its nutrients may be absorbed by the cotyledons
in the seeds of eudicots.
B) It develops from a haploid cell.
C) Its nutrients are digested before embryo development.
D) It develops from the fertilized egg.
E) It is only
fully developed in monocot seeds.
Answer: A
47) Which of the following metabolic processes is most likely to
still be occurring at low levels in a fully mature, viable, dry seed?
A) photosynthesis
B) respiration
C) fatty acid
synthesis
D) protein synthesis
E) DNA replication
Answer: B
48) Which of the following is a potential advantage of introducing
apomixis into hybrid crop species?
A) Cultivars would be better
able to cope with a rapidly changing environment.
B) They would
have a larger potential genome than inbred crops.
C) All of the
desirable traits of the cultivar would be passed on to offspring.
D) They would benefit from positive mutations in their DNA.
E) It would be easier to introduce novel genes.
Answer: C
49) Which of the following developmental processes in a seed is the
most evolutionarily advantageous for the initial establishment of a
viable seedling?
A) The emergence of the radical.
B) The
coleoptiles in monocots.
C) The protective layer of cutin
outside of the seed coat.
D) The emergence of the first
photosynthetically active leaves.
E) The development of a
nutrient-rich hypocotyl.
Answer: A
50) Which of the following "vegetables" is botanically a
fruit?
A) potato
B) lettuce
C) radish
D)
celery
E) green beans
Answer: E
51) The embryo of a grass seed is enclosed by two protective sheaths,
a(n) ________, which covers the young shoot, and a(n) ________, which
covers the young root.
A) cotyledon; radicle
B) hypocotyl;
epicotyl
C) coleoptile; coleorhiza
D) scutellum;
coleoptile
E) epicotyl; radicle
Answer: C
52) Which of the following statements is true about fruits?
A)
Fruits form from megasporangia and integuments.
B) All fruits
contain seeds.
C) Green beans, corn, tomatoes, and wheat are all
vegetables.
D) Pollination is always required for fruit
maturation.
E) During fruit development, the wall of the ovary
becomes the integument.
Answer: A
53) Fruits develop from
A) microsporangia.
B)
receptacles.
C) fertilized eggs.
D) ovaries.
E) ovules.
Answer: D
54) What is the first step in the germination of a seed?
A)
pollination
B) fertilization
C) imbibition
D)
hydrolysis of starch and other food reserves
E) emergence of the radicle
Answer: C
55) Garden beans and many other eudicots have a hooked hypocotyl
during germination. Which of the following is true concerning
hypocotyls and/or the hypocotyl hook?
A) It is the first
structure to emerge from a eudicot seed.
B) It pushes the
cotyledons up through the soil.
C) It straightens when exposed
to sufficient water.
D) It is stunted in an etiolated seedling.
E) It emerges after the successful establishment of the radicle.
Answer: E
56) Which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction as
opposed to asexual reproduction?
A) increased genetic variation
in progeny
B) enhanced mitosis
C) more stable populations
D) rapid increases in population due to high seed production
E) higher reproductive success
Answer: A
59) Which of the following statements is true for a species that
produces seeds by apomixis?
A) The seed coat is made of diploid
cells derived from the ovule of a flower.
B) The embryo consists
of diploid cells derived from fertilization of a haploid egg by a
haploid sperm.
C) The scutellum is the primary food storage
tissue of the embryo.
D) A haploid embryo is contained within
the seed.
E) The embryo of the seed is genetically distinct from
the parent plant.
Answer: E
58) Which of the following is a true statement about clonal
reproduction in plants?
A) Clones of plants do not occur
naturally.
B) Cloning, although achieved in animals, has not
been demonstrated in plants.
C) Making cuttings of ornamental
plants is a form of fragmentation.
D) Reproduction of plants by
cloning may be either sexual or asexual.
E) Viable seeds can
result from sexual reproduction only.
Answer: C
59) Which of the following statements is true for a species that
produces seeds by apomixis?
A) The seed coat is made of diploid
cells derived from the ovule of a flower.
B) The embryo consists
of diploid cells derived from fertilization of a haploid egg by a
haploid sperm.
C) The scutellum is the primary food storage
tissue of the embryo.
D) A haploid embryo is contained within
the seed.
E) The embryo of the seed is genetically distinct from
the parent plant.
Answer: A
60) Which of the following could be considered an evolutionary
advantage of asexual reproduction in plants?
A) increased
success of progeny in a stable environment.
B) increased
agricultural productivity in a rapidly changing environment.
C)
maintenance and expansion of a large genome.
D) production of
numerous progeny.
E) increased ability to adapt to a change in
the environment.
Answer: A
61) Under which conditions would asexual plants have the greatest
advantage over sexual plants?
A) an environment that varies on a
regular, predictable basis
B) an environment with irregular
fluctuations of conditions
C) a relatively constant environment
with infrequent disturbances
D) a fire-maintained ecosystem
E) an environment with many seed predators
Answer: C
62) Which of the following statements is true of protoplast fusion?
A) It occurs when the second sperm nucleus fuses with the polar
nuclei in the embryo sac.
B) It can be used to form new plant
varieties by combining genomes from two plants.
C) It is used to
develop gene banks to preserve genetic variability.
D) It is the
method of test-tube cloning that produces whole plants from callus.
E) It occurs within a callus that is developing in tissue culture.
Answer: B
63) One major potential benefit resulting from protoplast fusion
experiments in agriculturally relevant species is
A) there is an
increased potential of hopeful mutants.
B) species that are
normally sexually incompatible can sometimes be successfully fused.
producing offspring with traits of both parent species.
C) many
new species can be produced in a short period of time.
D)
deleterious traits are often removed by this process.
E)
genetically unrelated species can be successfully combined to produce
new species with much larger genomes and adaptive potentials.
Answer: B
64) The most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically
modified crops include
A) increasing the amount of land suitable
for agriculture.
B) overcoming genetic incompatibility.
C)
increasing the frequency of self-pollination.
D) increasing crop
yield.
E) decreasing the mutation rate of certain genes.
Answer: D
65) A parent with an S₁S₂ genotype exhibiting sporophytic
self-incompatibility can potentially fertilize which of the following
plant genotypes of the same species with pollen grains?
A) S₁S₃
B) S₂S₃
C) S₃S₄
D) S₁S₄
E) Half of all the
pollen grains could be successful.
Answer: C
66) A parent with an S₁S₂ genotype exhibiting gametophytic
self-incompatibility could potentially fertilize which of the
following plant genotypes of the same species with pollen grains?
A) S₁S₃
B) S₂S₃
C) S₁S₄
D) S₂S₄
E) Half
of all the pollen grains could be successful.
Answer: E
67) Biofuels are mainly produced by
A) the breakdown of cell
wall biopolymers into sugars that can be fermented.
B) plants
that convert hemicellulose into gasoline.
C) the genetic
engineering of ethanol-generating genes into plants.
D)
transgenic crops that have cell walls containing ethylene.
E)
plants that are easy to grow in arid environments.
Answer: A
68) One disadvantage of monoculture is that
A) the whole crop
ripens at the same time.
B) genetic uniformity makes a crop more
vulnerable to a new pest or disease.
C) it predominantly uses
vegetative propagation.
D) most grain crops self-pollinate.
E) it allows for the cultivation of large areas of land.
Answer: B
69) Which of the following is a scientific concern related to
creating genetically modified crops?
A) Herbicide resistance may
spread to weedy species.
B) Beneficial insects may be harmed by
eating pest species.
C) Their adaptive advantages would allow
them to overpower natural ecosystems.
D) The monetary costs of
growing genetically modified plants are significantly greater than
traditional breeding techniques.
E) Genetically modified plants
are less stable and may revert back to parental genotypes.
Answer: A
70) All of the following strategies are being pursued with the goal
of preventing transgene escape from genetically modified crops except
A) the engineering of male sterility into plants.
B) the
genetic engineering of apomixis into transgenic crops.
C) the
genetic engineering of trangenes into the chloroplast DNA.
D)
the genetic engineering of flowers that develop normally, but fail to
open.
E) hybridization of transgenic crop genes with related wild weeds.
Answer: E
71) Which of the following is proving to be the most difficult task
for plant breeders regardless of the techniques they use for crop
improvement due to the complexity of the metabolic pathways involved?
A) insect resistance
B) nitrogen fixation
C)
herbicide resistance
D) improved nutritional quality
E)
virus resistance
Answer: B
72) Which of the following is a successful example of the commercial
use of transgenic crops?
A) inserting Bt toxin genes into
cotton, maize, and potato
B) developing plants that are
resistant to ultraviolet light mutations
C) producing plants
that resist attack by large herbivores
D) developing plants that
produce all the essential amino acids for humans
E) producing
plants that contain genes for making human insulin
Answer: A
The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an
angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.
Figure 38.1
73) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s), after fertilization,
give(s) rise to the embryo plant?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: B
The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an
angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.
Figure 38.1
74) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s) become(s) the triploid
endosperm?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: C
The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an
angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.
Figure 38.1
75) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s) guide(s) the pollen tube
to the egg cell?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: A
76) You are studying a plant from the Amazon rain forest that shows
strong self-incompatibility. To characterize this reproductive
mechanism, you would look for
A) ribonuclease (RNAase) activity
in stigma cells.
B) RNA in the plants.
C) pollen grains
with very thick walls.
D) carpels that cannot produce eggs by
meiosis.
E) systems of wind, but not insect, pollination.
Answer: A
77) Regardless of where in the world a vineyard is located, in order
for the winery to produce a Burgundy, it must use varietal grapes that
originated in Burgundy, France. The most effective way for a new
California grower to plant a vineyard to produce Burgundy is to
A) plant seeds obtained from French varietal Burgundy grapes.
B) transplant varietal Burgundy plants from France.
C)
acquire a tissue culture of varietal Burgundy grapes from France.
D) cross French Burgundy grapes with native American grapes.
E) graft varietal Burgundy grape scions onto native
(Californian) root stocks.
Answer: E
78) A seed develops from
A) an ovum.
B) a pollen grain.
C) an ovule.
D) an ovary.
E) an embryo.
Answer: C
79) A fruit is
A) a mature ovary.
B) a mature ovule.
C) a seed plus its integuments.
D) a fused carpel.
E) an enlarged embryo sac.
Answer: A
80) Double fertilization means that
A) flowers must be
pollinated twice to yield fruits and seeds.
B) every egg must
receive two sperm to produce an embryo.
C) one sperm is needed
to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the
polar nuclei.
D) the egg of the embryo sac is diploid.
E)
every sperm has two nuclei.
Answer: C
81) "Golden Rice"
A) is resistant to various
herbicides, making it practical to weed rice fields with those
herbicides.
B) is resistant to a virus that commonly attacks
rice fields.
C) includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin
that reduces damage from insect pests.
D) produces larger,
golden grains that increase crop yields.
E) contains daffodil
genes that increase vitamin A content.
Answer: E
82) Which statement concerning grafting is correct?
A) Stocks
and scions refer to twigs of different species.
B) Stocks come
from vines, but scions come from trees.
C) Stocks provide root
systems for grafting.
D) Grafting creates new species.
E)
Stocks and scions must come from unrelated species.
Answer: C
83) Some dioecious species have the XY genotype for male and XX for
female. After double fertilization, what would be the genotypes of the
embryos and endosperm nuclei?
A) embryo X/endosperm XX or embryo Y/endosperm XY
B)
embryo XX/endosperm XX or embryo XY/endosperm XY
C) embryo
XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XYY
D) embryo
XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XXY
E) embryo
XY/endosperm XXX or embryo XX/endosperm XXY
Answer: C
84) A small flower with green petals is most likely
A)
bee-pollinated.
B) bird-pollinated.
C) bat-pollinated.
D) wind-pollinated.
E) moth-pollinated.
Answer: D
85) The pollen produced by wind-pollinated plants is often smaller
than the pollen produced by animal-pollinated plants. A reason for
this might be that
A) wind-pollinated plants, in general, are
smaller than animal-pollinated plants.
B) wind-pollinated plants
release pollen in the spring, before the plant has stored enough
energy to make large pollen grains.
C) small pollen grains can
be carried farther by the wind.
D) animal pollinators are more
facile at picking up large pollen grains.
E) wind-pollinated
flowers don't need large pollen grains because they don't have to
attract animal pollinators.
Answer: C
86) The black dots that cover strawberries are actually individual
fruits. The fleshy and tasty portion of a strawberry derives from the
receptacle of a flower with many separate carpels. Therefore, a
strawberry is
A) both a multiple fruit and an aggregate fruit.
B) both a multiple fruit and an accessory fruit.
C) both a
simple fruit and an aggregate fruit.
D) both an aggregate fruit
and an accessory fruit.
E) a simple fruit with many seeds.
Answer: D