Define microbe
Cellular entity that is not a component of a tissue or similar structure as that which comprises metazoans.
T/F: Microbes are generally only able to be seen with the aid of a microscope
True
T/F: Microbes are visible to the naked eye when they form aggregations such as a biofilm or a colony.
True
T/F: Microbes are found among the domains Eukarya, Bacteria, and Archaea.
True
T/F: Microbes include viruses which are not considered cells.
True
T/F: Microbes and/or microbial activities are involved in the decomposition of organic matter in the soil.
True
T/F: Microbes and/or microbial activities are involved in water treatment plants.
True
T/F: Microbes and/or microbial activities are involved in the production of vaccines and antibiotics.
True
T/F: Microbes and/or microbial activities are involved in many biotechnology applications.
True
You are observing a cell through a light microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most likely...
is either a bacteria or archaea
T/F: Regarding Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, there was air involved
True
T/F: Regarding Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, there was a food source involved
True
T/F: Regarding Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, all microorganisms were killed before the beginning of the experiment
True
T/F: Regarding Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, any possibility of contamination was removed.
True
T/F: In order to establish that a certain bacterium causes disease, it is necessary to obtain a pure culture of the bacterium from an infected animal
True
T/F: In order to establish that a certain bacterium causes disease, it is necessary to inject a healthy animal with a pure culture of the suspected bacterium
True
T/F: In order to establish that a certain bacterium causes disease, it is necessary to show that the bacterium is not present in healthy animals
True
T/F: In order to establish that a certain bacterium causes disease, it is necessary to perform a Gram stain on the bacterial cells
False
T/F: In order to establish that a certain bacterium causes disease, it is necessary to show the same bacterium is isolated from infected animals
True
What are Chemolithotrophs?
Soil bacteria discovered by Winogradsky; capable of using inorganic molecules as energy sources.
T/F: Resolution can be improved by using a longer wavelength of light
False
T/F: Resolution can be improved by using a lens with high value of numerical aperture
True
T/F: Resolution can be improved by using immersion oil and the oil immersion objective lens
True
T/F: Resolution can be improved by improving contrast by use of a stain or other method
True
Which microscope has similar resolution to the light microscope, does not require staining of the sample, allows one to view cells in their living state, and takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures to provide contrast?
Phase-contrast microscope
Total magnification=
(Objective lens magnification) x (ocular lens magnification)
What is the purpose of the parabolic surface of the objective lens?
refracts light that then meets at a focal point
What enables lenses to magnify an image?
Refraction
What enables selective labeling of cellular structures with light emitting dyes?
Fluorescence microscopy
What will typically stain some cells one color and other cells another color?
A differential stain
In comparing light microscopy with electron microscopy, one would employ the:
(Q11)
...
T/F: Electron microscopy has a resolution about 1000X greater than a light microscope
True
For electron microscopy, ________rather than lenses are used to focus the beam of electrons.
Magnets
T/F: Live specimens are not able to be observed by electron microscopy
True
T/F: For electron microscopy, scanning EM reveals the surface features of a specimen
True
What are prokaryotic cell membranes comprised of?
Phospholipids and proteins
Gram_______ bacteria have two phospholipid-containing membranes
negative
What are Hopanoids?
Small hydrophobic molecules that serve to reinforce the phospholipid bilayer
__________ are prokaryotes whose phospholipid fatty acid structure differs from otherprokaryotes
Mycobacteria and Archaea
List components of peptidoglycan
N-acetylglucosamine,
N-acetylmuramic acid,
amino acids,
peptide cross-links
Lipid inclusions contain_________.
poly-hydroxybutyrate (PHB) or poly-hydroxyalkanoate (PHA)
What do Magnetosomes enable cells to do?
orient themselves directionally, i.e., north/south
Gas vacuoles are a feature of ________.
aquatic bacteria
Carboxysomes are found in __________.
bacteria that utilize carbon dioxide
Fimbriae and Pili are generally used for__________.
attachment, not motility.
T/F: Specialized pili are used used for DNA transfer between bacterial cells
True
Counterclockwise flagellar movement results in________.
smooth forward motion
T/F: Flagellar motion in a bacterium occurs in a wave-like motion like a eukaryotic flagellum
False
T/F: When a bacterium is tumbling it is not moving in any particular direction and stops.
True
Stalk formation in certain bacteria results in____________.
immobilization of the cells in their environment.
Archaea have cell walls that are not made of peptidoglycan, but rather of a similar structure called___________.
pseudomurein
A____________ is a polysaccharide layer that is only loosely associated with the exterior of the cell
slime layer
T/F: The periplasmic space is an area that lies outside of the LPS layer of Gram-negative cells
False
_____________ follows DNA replication in bacteria and is where new cell wall synthesis occurs.
Septum formation
What are specific nutrients that a cell cannot make and must obtain from its environment?
(Q20)
...
If you prepared a liquid (aqueous) growth media containing mineral salts, trace elements, no organic carbon source, and light you would be selecting for________.
Photoautotrophs
The formation of a mother cell, the production of dipicolinic acid, asymmetric septation are all part of which process?
endospore formation
T/F: A fed batch culture will grow indefinitely
False
T/F: The best method for determining viable cell numbers in a sample is to ____________.
dilute the sample and do the spread plate method.
T/F: Differential media allows one to visualize different biochemical properties among bacteria.
True
The____________ transports molecules into the cell then phosphorylates the molecule, thereby maintaining the gradient to allow more molecules to move inside
phosphotransferase system (PTS)
___________ are the prominent flora beneath icebergs in the arctic and antarctic.
Pyschrophilic bacteria
Exposure to temperatures above 40-45C will trigger the heat shock response in___________.
mesophilic bacteria
The fastest growth rate for a species occurs at temperatures where___________.
a cell's proteins work most efficiently
____________ possess features that allow their proteins and cell membranes to function at high temperature.
Thermophiles
T/F: Eukaryotic cells are generally as heat tolerant as bacteria
True
(Q29)
...
List enzymes that help protect cells from damage caused by reactive oxygen species (superoxide radical, hydroxyl radical)
Catalase, SOD, and peroxidase enzymes
Concerning catalase, SOD, and peroxidase enzymes, __________ have only some, or none of these protective enzymes.
Anaerobic bacteria
Concerning catalase, SOD, and peroxidase enzymes, an __________ typically has all of these enzymes.
obligate aerobe
T/F: Antiseptics are of higher strength since they are used for cleaning of inanimate objects; disinfectants are used on living tissue such wound cleaning or surgical preparation.
False
Gases like ethylene oxide are effective in sterilizing_____________.
areas that are difficult to penetrate with liquid antimicrobials
T/F: Probiotics are antibiotics used to eliminate certain groups of bacteria from the gut.
False
Organisms adapted to grow at overwhelmingly high pressures are called___________.
barophiles
By themselves, heterorophs would deplete the world of__________ sources and starve to death.
organic carbon
During respiration, electrons (originating from cytoplasmic reductions) are______________.
passed through carriers of increasing reduction potential
Anaerobic respiration is the use of______________.
an alternative electron acceptor in respiration (i.e., anything other than oxygen)
Define nitrification.
the complete reduction of nitrate to N2 during anaerobic respiration
This atmospheric gas is produced from the reduction of an alternative terminal electron acceptor in microbial respiration.
N2
The proteins of the electron transport systems are usually_____________.
located within a membrane where they can produce a
transmembrane ion gradient
Why is a large amount of energy is released when oxygen accepts electrons?
because oxygen is a strong electron acceptor/oxidizing agent
Define cofactors
Small molecules that associate with the protein
Many of the redox centers that comprise the electron transport system (ETS) are integral components of larger protein complexes, whereas others, such as_______, freely diffuse within the membrane as they ferry electrons between other ETS components.
quinones
During___________redox reactions happen in the cytoplasm and ATP is generated via substrate-level phosphorylation.
fermentation
What is the most likely explanation for the high numbers of sulfate reducers present in marine environments?
Sulfate is a very abundant anion in seawater, second only to chloride
Arrange the following items in the order in which they receive electrons from glycolysis and TCA oxidations and harness the energy to establish a transmembrane proton gradient.
1. NAD+
2. Oxidoreductase
3. Quinone
4. Terminal oxidase
5. Oxygen
The relationship between the reduction potential, E, and the change in free energy, ΔG is such that if E is __________, then ΔG is __________ and the reaction is __________.
positive; negative; favorable
For what process are the electrons from glycolytic reactions returned to the partially oxidized food source instead of being passed through an ETS system to a terminal electron acceptor.
fermentation
What processes contribute to the proton motive force during aerobic respiration?
TCA cycle, glycolysis, electron transport system
What determines which electron donor and electron acceptor a given microbe uses in its anaerobic ETS?
The available donors and acceptors will induce gene expression of their redox enzymes, thereby allowing their use.
The earliest life forms on our planet may have used which electron acceptor?
Fe3+
T/F: Autotrophs comprise only those types that can use light energy, i.e. photosynthesize
False
What are the types of autotroph?
photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs
Though not all members of this kingdom fit into one of the following 3 groups, many can be categorized as being methanogens, halophiles, or thermophiles, including hyperthermophiles
Archaea
An attenuated strain of a pathogenic bacteria or virus provided to a person__________.
may prevent disease in the individual by later exposure too a more virulent form of the strain
Pasteur's work with the french wine industry proved what?
- That microbes are responsible for the chemical processes that produce wine
- Microbial growth and metabolism can occur in the absence of air
- The formation of acetic acid during wine production was due to the presence of contaminating microbes
T/F: Pasteur's work with the french wine industry proved that microbes can cause disease
False
T/F: Viruses are considered cells
False
Though changes were made later, the__________was originally formed to contain all microorganisms
Kingdom Protista
The evolution of_________allowed for later evolution of cells with an aerobic metabolism
Cyanobacteria
The__________contains the peptidoglycan layer of gram-negative bacteria
periplasmic space
Crystization of membrane phospholipid fatty acids (like cyclopropane) would confer_____________.
more rigid straighter hydrocarbon chains
Polysome formation in bacteria is able to occur because_____________.
They lack a nuclear membrane
What serves to help maintain the shape of the cell?
Bacterial cytoskeleton element MreB
What yields a high quantity of polypeptide in a short time interval?
Polysome formation
What is duplicated in the initial stage of DNA replication?
Ori sequence
What is a loose, unorganized assemblage of polysaccharide-protein material secreted by a bacterium that surrounds the cell.
Slime layer
Who discovered lithotrophic bacteria?
Winogradsky and Beijerinck
Who performed experiments with the swan necked flask?
Louis Pasteur
What did Louis Pasteur use the swan necked flask to show?
Oxygen does not allow spontaneous generation
The most abundant molecule in the cell is___________.
water
A second, outer membrane is found in____________.
Gram-negative bacteria
Aspirin, like many pharmaceutical drugs, can access the cell because it is a weak acid. This occurs because_____________.
As a weak acid it can cross the membrane when in its uncharged form.
Bacteria carry out bidirectional replication of their single chromosome by using_____replisomes that each contain______DNA polymerase enzymes.
2;2
How many different cellular components are in Gram-negative bacterium?
4
What are metachromatic granules?
Energy storage granule
What are sulfur granules a product of?
phototrophic or lithotrophic bacteria
Which of the following specialized structures/inclusion would aquatic photoautotrophic bacteria likely possess?
Thylakoids, Carboxysomes, and Gas vacuoles
What are thylakoids?
Membrane-bound compartments inside chloroplasts and cyanobacteria. They are the site of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
The carboxysome is likely found in__________.
an autotroph
What is the H antigen?
The slender threadlike portion of the flagellum
Counterclockwise rotation of flagella/flagellum produces__________.
runs toward an attachment
What can produce a type of motility involving intermittant attachment?
fimbrae/pili
What can the Enter-Douderoff pathway, the Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway, and the Pentose Phosphate shunt all do?
Oxidize glucose to different intermediates and generate NADH and/or NADPH
Are catabolic processes exothermic or endothermic?
Exothermic
What type of process leads to the formation of smaller mmolecules from larger, complex molecules.
Catabolic processes
Food sources for catabolism supply___________; the energy from these is ultimately used to form ATPs.
electrons
Glycolysis inititially requires energy input in the form of_________.
ATP hydrolysis
Glycolysis forms ATP via_____________.
substrate level phosphorylation
What does glycolysis yield?
ATP and NADH
What is an example of anabolism?
DNA replication
What is anabolism?
The synthesis of complex molecules in living organisms from simpler ones together with the storage of energy; constructive metabolism.
Lactic acid fermentation is so named because lactic acid is which of the following?
end product
During lactic acid fermentation, NADH reduces ________to________.
pyruvate;lactic acid
If a small molecule is found at greater concentration inside the cell than outside, it can be concluded that____________.
energy was required to produce the concentration gradient.
In addition to generating reducing power (i.e., NADPH) for biosynthesis, the pentose phosphate pathway also provides precursors for synthesis of which of the following?
nucleic acids, aromatic amino acids
If one molecule of glucose were fully catabolized via aerobic respiration to CO2 and H2O, the ATP yield would be roughly times______that obtained from fermentation.
20
Ethanolic fermentation results in what end product(s)?
alcohol and carbon dioxide
The breakdown of starch is
a________process carried out by_________?
catabolic; bacteria
What is important for catabolism of sugars? respiration, fermentation, or both?
Both
What is the main electron carrier for both respiration and fermentation?
NADH
What is a major intermediate for both respiration and fermentation?
Pyruvate
A high ATP yield (most from oxidative phosphorylation) is a characteristic of what?
Respiration
Most carbon being released as CO2 is a characteristic of
what?
Respiration
Electrons reducing an external electron acceptor (e.g., O2), is a characteristic of what?
Respiration
A low ATP yield (primarily from glycolysis) is a characteristic of what?
Fermentation
Electrons from catabolism ending up back on partially oxidized substrate is a characteristic of what?
Fermentation
Reactions that oxidize the organic materialhave a________H and a________∆S.
negative; positive
Why does the process of acquiring nutrients from a more dilute external environment require expenditure of energy by the cell?
Entropy is decreased.
Fermentation pathways have the __________ in common.
oxidation of NADH to NAD+
Bioremediation of certain pollutants (such as aromatic hydrocarbons) may be effectively accomplished via syntrophy, involving__________.
different species of microbes catalyzing sequential
reactions.
Define Syntrophy
A relationship involving exchange of nutrients.
What pathway would be fully operational only in respiring bacteria?
TCA cycle
What are Mycoplasma?
Bacterial species that lack a cell wall.
What are mycolic acids?
Unusual cell wall components of mycobacteria species
What bacteria are unable to grow in the complete absence of oxygen?
Microaerophiles
The aggregation of cells, attachment to a surface, and formation of an extracellular polysaccharide miatrix are all part of which process?
biofilm formation
Define generation time
The length of time needed for a cell to divide.
Determining the nutritional requirements of a particular bacterial species is best determined by____________.
the length of time needed for the cell to divide
The reactions that extract energy from molecules like glucose are called____________.
catabolic reactions
____________refers to all of the metabolic reactions that build or assemble more complex molecules from simpler ones.
Anabolism