Microbiology With Diseases by Body System + Modified Masteringmicrobiology With Pearson Etext: Review 4 - Medical Micro Flashcards

The dots on the map represent reported cases of a disease. This distribution in a(n) ______.

1. endemic
2. pandemic
3. epidemic
4. emerging
5. sporadic

The conditions known as microbial antagonism may be defined as _____.

1. microorganisms that remain with a person throughout life.
2. an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.
3. a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.
4. a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.
5. a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits.

An axenic environment is one _____.

1. that is a source of contamination.
2. that is free of microbes.
3. contaminated by microbial toxins.
4. in which microorganisms remain with the person throughout life.
5. in which microorganisms remain present only for a short time.

The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n) _____.

1. nonsymbiotic relationship
2. relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.
3. relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.
4. unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.
5. relationship between two organisms where only on member benefits and the other is unharmed.

Several days after a walk in the woods, Cheryl develops a localized rash. It is not painful and soon fades so she thinks nothing of it. Several months later she experiences increasing fatigue, low-grade fever, and pain in the joints. These symptoms persist for months before she seeks medical attention. This description is most consistent with a(n) _____ infection.

1. asymptomatic
2. chronic
3. subclinical
4. latent
5. acute

A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by public heath agencies to stop the spread?

1. Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected.
2. Educate members of the public about ways to protect themselves.
3. Shut down public transportation.
4. Facilitate access to vaccines.
5. Identify and treat people who are infected.

Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as _____.

1. microorganisms that never cause disease.
2. any microorganisms that cause disease.
3. organisms that remain with the person throughout life.
4. microorganisms that may cause disease under certain circumstances.

The taxonomic approach to classifying diseases is based on the

1. type of host for the microbe.
2. severity and duration of the disease.
3. organs or organ systems affected by the disease.
4. type of microbe that causes the disease.
5. means of transmission.

Microbes know as transient microbiota are

1. microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances.
2. sources of microbial contamination.
3. microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.
4. unsuccessful microbial invaders because of the presence of preexisting microbes.
5. organisms that remain the body for a short time.

A true pathogen may also be described as

1. easily transmitted
2. opportunistic
3. very common
4. a component of the microbiota
5. highly virulent

Which of the following combinations of pathogen and virulence factor is CORRECT?

1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and endotoxin
2. Gram-positive bacteria and lipid A
3. Streptococcus pyogenes and protein M
4. Escherichia coli and cytotoxin
5. Staphylococcus aureus and neurotoxin

Treatment with high doses of antibiotics may lead to which type of health care associated infection?

1. endogenous infection
2. exogenous infection
3. latent infection
4. iatrogenic disease
5. zoonosis

Two children attend the same daycare, but one child is at the facility in the morning and the other child attends the facility in the afternoon. Both children have become ill with fifth disease within one day of each other. How might the pathogen have infected both children?

1. droplet transmission
2. vertical transmission
3. direct contact transmission
4. fomite transmission
5. vector transmission

Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process?

1. convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline
2. illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline
3. prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline
4. incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
5. incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline

The pattern of new cases reported in North America represented in this graph is consistent with ______ transmission.

1. direct contact
2. housefly
3. airborne
4. mosquito vector
5. fecal-oral

Which of the following pairings of microbe and disease was disproven using Koch's postulates?

1. varicella-zoster virus and chickenpox
2. Haemophilus influenzae and the flu
3. HIV and AIDS
4. Mycobacterium laprae and leprosy
5. hepatitis B and D and liver cancer

An example of direct contact transmission is

1. the bite of a kissing bug
2. fecal contaminates of the hands of a restaurant worker
3. inhalation of respiratory aerosols
4. saliva exchanged during a kiss
5. a door knob contaminated with respiratory secretions.

What is the relationship between prevalence and incidence for an acute disease like influenza?

1. the incidence is always greater than the prevalence.
2. the incidence and prevalence are essentially equal
3. the incidence rises while prevalence declines
4. the prevalence is always greater than the incidence
5. there is no predictable relationship

Which of the following types of epidemiology applies to Koch's postulates to study a disease?

1. analytical
2. experimental
3. retrospective
4. descriptive
5. systemic

Ten months after the 2010 earthquake in Haiti, there was a sharp increase in the number of cases of cholera. What was the most likely source of the disease?

1. airborne
2. direct contact with infected individuals
3. waterborne
4. foodborne
5. indirect contact with contaminated equipment

A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose that ability to produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen lost?

1. the ability to move from location in the body to another
2. the ability to prevent phagocytes killing it
3. the ability to adhere to cell of the body
4. the ability to establish latent infection
5. the ability to produce an endotoxin

The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases. This means

1. there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the United States in the year 2000.
2. there were 12.43 tubercle bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the United States in the year 2000.
3. 12.43 of every 100,000 cases of tuberculosis were treated in the United States in the year 2000.
4. 12.43 of every 100,000 people in the United States had tuberculosis in the year 2000.
5. 12.43 of every 100,00 people died of tuberculosis in the U.S. in the year 2000.

In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza ("swine flu") in the United States. By the summer, the number of confirmed cases was reported as over 40,000. The pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) ______ disease.

1. sporadic
2. opportunistic
3. epidemic
4. pandemic
5. endemic

A person is exposed to desert air containing fungus spores and develops valley fever as a result. Valley fever is an example of a ______ disease.

1. subacute
2. noncommunicable
3. contagious
4. chronic
5. latent

Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?

1. cockroach transmission Shigella
2. mosquito transmission of Plasmodium
3. louse transmission of Rickettsia
4. tsetse fly transmission of Trypansoma
5. flea transmission of Yersinia

Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body.

1. hyaluronidase
2. coagulase
3. hemolysin
4. enterotoxin
5. coagulase and hemolysin

Bacterial contaminants grow in food in a closed container. The food is heated after the container is opened, but a person develops food poisoning after eating it. The bacteria were producing

1. antiphagocytic factors
2. capsules
3. endotoxin
4. an exotoxin
5. an exoenzyme

Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens?

1. growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine.
2. growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin
3. presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the colon
4. growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of the teeth
5. treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?

1. the baby acquires the residential microbiota in the colon after the first meal
2. microbes enter the nose and moth when the baby is in the birth canal.
3. microorganisms grow in the respiratory tract after the baby's first breath
4. microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy
5. Staphylococcus epidermidis is transferred from the hospital staff to the newborn after delivery

A person licks a needle before injecting a drug into a vein. The person later develops a bacterial infection of the blood. This is an example of

1. a member of the microbiota gaining access to an unusual location in the body.
2. a disruptions of the normal microbial population of the blood
3. microbial antagonism
4. microbial synergism
5. immune suppression leading to disease

Symptoms are

1. laboratory tests used to diagnose a disease
2. subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel
3. characteristics of a disease, such as sweating
4. objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others.
5. objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured.

Infection occurs when

1. a person swallows microbes in/on food
2. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
3. contaminants are present on the skin
4. a person inhales microbes in the air
5. All of the choices are correct.

All infectious diseases

1. are contagious
2. are caused by microorganisms or their products
3. are caused by vectors
4. involve viruses as the pathogen
5. only occur in humans

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are

1. on fomites
2. the patient's own normal flora
3. transmitted from one person to another
4. in food
5. in the air

STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common

1. portals of entry
2. infections of the fetus and neonate
3. sexually transmitted diseases
4. genera of resident flora
5. vectors

A student has their teeth cleaned. The hygienist nicks their gum tissue. The student develops endocarditis due to Streptococcus. What kind of pattern of infection is this?

1. Systemic
2. Localized
3. Focal
4. Mixed Infection
5. All of the choices are correct.

A veterinary hospital had an outbreak of Salmonella infantis. Within the facility, how can Salmonella be spread?

1. Multiple animals using the same stalls without proper cleaning
2. Feces
3. Contaminated objects
4. Unwashed hands
5. All of the choices are correct

Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. That is understood to mean the disease is transmitted

1. between higher and lower animals
2. from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta
3. from parent to offspring via respiratory route
4. between people living or working in the same building
5. by contact between siblings

Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which nosocomial infection is she at greatest risk for contracting?

1. urinary tract
2. respiratory
3. surgical site
4. meningitis
5. septicemia

Joe contracted Hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is ______ and the reservoir is ______.

1. Joe, the doughnut
2. the doughnut, humans
3. flour, Joe
4. humans, Joe
5. humans, flour

All of the following are signs of infectious disease, except

1. fever
2. leucopenia
3. antibodies in serum
4. nausea
5. swollen lymph nodes

If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?

1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. They are equally virulent
4. It is impossible to determine

Which of the following is correct about skatole?

1. It is a chemical released by gram positive bacilli during inflammation.
2. It is a mixture of amines and gases that give feces its characteristic stench.
3. It is another term for the sexually transmitted disease, syphilis.
4. It is a general term for the endogenous flora in humans.
5. It is the general term for the flora of the gastrointestinal tract.

When would Koch's Postulates be utilized?

1. To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab.
2. Whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbial problem.
3. To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab.
4. To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab.
5. To determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab.

Nosocomial infections involve all of the following, except

1. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence
2. the patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent
3. they are only transmitted by medical personnel
4. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents
5. the often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.

During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication?

1. Lysozyme production
2. Interferon production
3. Complement production
4. Inflammation
5. Phagocytosis

Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action?

1. IL-1
2. TNF
3. Chemokines
4. IL-6
5. IFN

All of the following are correct about lymph, except

1. it travels in vessels similar to blood vessels
2. its composition is similar to plasma
3. it is made mostly of water
4. it transports numerous white blood cells
5. it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart

Joan's inflamed and painful joints are likely due to which of the following chemicals?

1. Gamma interferon
2. Histamine
3. Prostaglandins
4. Interleukin 5
5. Platelet-activating factor

Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means

1. warmth.
2. pain.
3. loss of function.
4. redness.
5. swelling.

Due to the way the lymph drains from lymph nodes, cell and products of immunity continually

1. enter the regular circulatory system
2. enter the liver
3. enter the gall bladder
4. enter the gastrointestinal tract
5. enter the thymus gland.

All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained, except

1. Monocytes
2. Eosinophils
3. Neutrophils
4. Basophils
5. They are all granulocytes

Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?

1. Interferon
2. Anatomical barriers in the body
3. Inflammatory response
4. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils
5. T cell and B cell responses

Which is mismatched?

1. tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis
2. interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication
3. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells
4. interleukin-2 - stimulate T cell mitosis and B cell antibody production
5. serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction

Which is incorrect about inflammation?

1. Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
2. Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen
3. Basophils and mast cells release histamine
4. serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction
5. it can last hours to years

All of the following are events of early inflammation, except

1. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis
2. exudate and pus can accumulate
3. chemical mediators and cytokines are released
4. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema
5. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation

Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck?

1. Spleen
2. Thymus
3. GALT
4. Lymph nodes
5. Tonsils

The reticuloendothelial system

1. provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs.
2. is heavily populated with macrophages.
3. is a support network of connective tissue fibers.
4. originates in the cellular basal lamina.
5. All of the choices are correct.

All of the following pertain to platelets, except

1. the contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
2. they function in blood clotting and inflammation.
3. the are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.
4. they are also called thrombocytes.
5. they originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.

Hemopoiesis is the

1. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
2. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
3. production of only red blood cells.
4. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
5. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.

First line of defense may be described as

1. the coating of a pathogen by complement.
2. intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth.
3. nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
4. damage resulting in cell lysis.
5. the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes

1. are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
2. respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement.
3. release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.
4. are specialists in killing bacteria.
5. increase in allergies and helminth infection.

Structures and products of pathogens that immune cells detect and respond to are called

1. PAMPs
2. NODs
3. prostaglandins
4. TLR
5. leukotrienes

Which of the following statements is TRUE of eosinophils?

1. They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement.
2. They decline during allergic reaction.
3. They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.
4. They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.
5. They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites.

Wandering macrophages recognize microorganisms by means of

1. lectins and C3 protein
2. NOD proteins
3. TLRs
4. lectins
5. both TLR and NOD proteins.

Which of the following leukocyte functions do macrophages carry out?

1. phagocytosis of pathogens and debris
2. secretion of leukotrienes
3. release of alpha interferon
4. phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes
5. phagocytosis of pathogens and production NETs

What feature of the skin creates a physical barrier to microbial invasion?

1. the outer layers are composed of cells full of protein which forms NETs to trap microbes until they are shed.
2. The fine hairs move microbes to mucous membranes for phagocytosis.
3. The surface is constantly patrolled by phagocytic cells.
4. The outer layers are dead cells, tightly linked together, and are frequently shed.
5. The oil secreted onto the surface of the skin traps microbes preventing penetration.

The process shown in the figure will lead to

1. chemotaxis and opsonization
2. vasodilation
3. formation MACs
4. capillary constriction
5. formation of NETs

Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature

1. increases vasodilation, bringing more leukocytes to the site of infection.
2. denatures viral proteins.
3. results in virus being shed in sweat.
4. prevents viral infection of fibroblasts.
5. increases the effectiveness of interferons.

Which complement protein is the key to activating the alternative pathway of complement activation?

1. C1
2. C2
3. C3
4. C4
5. C5

Which of the following substances stimulates the phagocytic activity of phagocytes?

1. leukotrienes
2. alpha interferons
3. gamma interferons
4. beta interferons
5. antiviral proteins

Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is TRUE?

1. TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins.
2. TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes.
3. MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins.
4. NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs.
5. Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors.

Which of the following iron-binding proteins is NOT part of the body's iron storage and transport system?

1. gastroferritin
2. ferritin
3. lactoferrin
4. transferrin
5. siderophores

In addition to phagocytosis, neutrophils can kill bacteria by producing

1. interferons
2. nitric oxide
3. histamines
4. hypochlorite
5. both hypochlorite and nitric oxide.

Neutrophils produce ______, which can be triggered by sugar molecules on the surface of microbes to damage the microbes.

1. TLRs
2. antimicrobial peptides
3. NOD proteins
4. interferons
5. C3 and C5

Receptors known as NOD proteins detect molecules associated with microbes

1. on the surface of cells.
2. in the cytoplasmic membrane.
3. in the extracellular fluid.
4. in the cytoplasm.
5. in the phagolysosome.

Which of the following cells can use nonphagocytic means to kill bacteria?

1. natural killer cells
2. macrophages
3. eosinophils
4. neutrophils
5. both eosinophils and neutrophils

Which of the following statements concerning the alternative complement system is TRUE?

1. Its activation is independent of antibodies
2. It is more efficient than the classical pathway.
3. It plays a very significant role in the elimination of parasitic helminths.
4. It works best on Gram-positive bacteria.
5. It is not useful in the early stages of fungal infection.

Which of the following is the key difference in the roles of the classical and alternative pathways of the complement system?

1. triggering inflammation
2. the formation MACs
3. the effectiveness in killing Gram-negative bacteria
4. the range of microbe types that can be targeted
5. production of chemotactic factors.

What is the functions of NK cells?

1. They identify and poison virus-infected cells.
2. They release toxins to damage helminth parasites.
3. They phagocytose virus particles.
4. They release defensins to damage bacteria.
5. They release interferons in response to deactivating virus particles.

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?

1. The mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes.
2. The mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals.
3. The mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules.
4. Both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently.
5. The mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

Which of the following is the BEST definition of "microbial antagonism"?

1. The presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions.
2. The presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body an in cavities that connect to the surface.
3. The presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body.
4. The presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions.
5. the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens.

Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

A mucus layer traps and removes microbes.

Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

Tears contain lysozyme and salt.

Tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.

Tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

1. the lack of suitable environment in the body.
2. the salty, acidic condition of normal skin.
3. the presence of phagocytes in the tissues.
4. the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment.
5. both the absence of receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

What do the nasal cavity, mouth, and urinary systems have in common?

1. The outer layers remain intact for many days.
2. They have roles in excretion of waste products.
3. They are lined with tightly packed dead cells.
4. They are lined with mucous membranes.
5. They are poorly vascularized.

The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of

1. innate immunity.
2. species resistance.
3. microbial antagonism.
4. adaptive immunity.
5. both species resistance and adaptive immunity.

Mucus and sweat contain ______ which damage and kill bacteria.

1. salts
2. NOD proteins
3. antimicrobial peptides
4. complement fragments
5. antibodies

A CD4+ T cell detects its epitope presented by an APC and receives IL-4 signals. It will differentiate to become a(n)

1. Tr lymphocyte
2. APC
3. CTL
4. Th2 cell
5. Th1 cell

How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented?

1. T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated.
2. Regulator T cells suppress autoimmune responses.
3. Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation.
4. Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.
5. T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion.

IgE antibodies are best described as

1. the antibodies found in body secretions.
2. the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC).
3. a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.
4. the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.
5. those involved in complement activation.

Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies?

1. The are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.
2. They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity.
3. They are the antibody class found in body secretions.
4. They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.
5. They interact with phagocytes and NK cells.

Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ______ immunity.

1. artificial passive
2. natural active
3. natural passive
4. artificial active
5. both active and passive

Leukocytes migrate to a site of infection in response to

1. interleukin 10 (IL-10)
2. interferon alpha
3. tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
4. chemokines
5. bradykinins

What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

1. display of epitope - MHC i complexes on the surface of the cell
2. suppression of the immune response to the microbe
3. activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell
4. display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins
5. display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface

Which of the following cytokines helps regulate inflammation?

1. IL-4 (interleukin-4)
2. alpha interferon
3. IL-12
4. chemokines
5. tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

What is the role of interleukins?

1. production of virally infected cells
2. ensuring production of enough leukocytes
3. complement activation
4. chemotaxis of leukocytes
5. signaling between leukocytes

Type 1 helper T (Th1) cells produce ______ to stimulate increased phagocytosis.

1. alpha interferon (INF-)
2. growth factors
3. chemokines
4. gamma interferon
5. tumor necrosis factors (TFNs)

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infection have different treatment options, so the physician request antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

1. The child has a current RSV and was previously exposed to influenza.
2. The child has neither influenza nor RSV.
3. The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.
4. The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.
5. The results do not proved sufficient data to draw a conclusion.

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?

1. naturally acquired passive immunity
2. innate immunity
3. artificially acquired active immunity
4. naturally acquired active immunity
5. artificially acquired passive immunity

The appendix and the Peyer's patches of the intestines are components of the

1. thymus-associated organs
2. MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
3. lymphatic vessel system
4. innate immune system
5. clonal deletion process

The perforin-granzyme pathway involves

1. the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen.
2. the production of fever, which kills the pathogen.
3. binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis.
4. presenting the foreign antigen to B cells.
5. the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells.

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parsite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because

1. RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents.
2. red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigens.
3. RBCs never enter the lymphoid tissue.
4. complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs.
5. the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs.

Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE?

1. A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.
2. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated.
3. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill be producing hydrogen peroxide.
4. Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
5. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target.

After an initial exposure to a pathogen, the phenomenon of ______ produces a faster, more effective response to subsequent exposures.

1. self-tolerance
2. clonal selection
3. immunological synapse
4. clonal deletion
5. immunological memory

Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is TRUE?

1. They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis.
2. The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for years.
3. They live for many years and function as memory cells.
4. They secrete a variety of antibody molecules specific for multiple eptiopes.
5. They are descended from activated T cells.

Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC II antigens and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors?

1. MHC I
2. CCR5
3. CCR3
4. CD26
5. CD4

Which of the following molecules would contain T-independent antigens.

1. steroids
2. polysaccharides
3. lipoproteins
4. phospholipids
5. glycoproteins

The role of dendrites in the adaptive immune response is to

1. degrade exogenous antigens for presentation on MHC II molecules.
2. attack and destroy invading pathogens.
3. detect autoreactive lymphocytes and trigger apoptosis.
4. process endogenous antigens for presentation on MHC I molecules.
5. distinguish between endogenous and exogenous antigens.

Which of the following components of antigen processing is MISMATCHED?

1. endoplasmic reticulum: endogenous antigen
2. exogenous antigen: MHC II
3. endogenous antigen: MHC I
4. phagosome: exogenous antigen
5. endogenous antigen: MHC II

What will be the direct result of the interaction shown in this figure? (This interaction is occurring in a lymph node.)

1. activation of a B lymphocyte
2. clonal deletion of a T lymphocyte
3. activation of a helper T lymphocyte
4. activation of a cytotoxic T lymphocyte
5. clonal deletion of a B lymphocyte

Major histocompatibility antigens are

1. not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens
2. glycoproteins found in the cytoplasmic membranes of most vertebrate animal cells.
3. antigens that provoke allergic reactions.
4. antigens that must be processed by cells called histiocytes in order to recognized by the immune system.
5. antigens attached to foreign invaders.

Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

1. interferons
2. interleukins
3. chemokines
4. tumor necrosis factors
5. growth factors

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE?

1. They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.
2. They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter.
3. Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 10¹¹ different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.
4. They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.
5. Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR

Which of the following function(s) in agglutination?

1. IgD antibodies
2. IgG antibodies
3. IgA antibodies
4. IgE antibodies
5. IgA and IgG antibodies

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated here is

1. IgD
2. IgA
3. IgG
4. IgE
5. IgM

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

1. NK lymphocytes and neutrophils
2. neutrophils and dendritic cells
3. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes
4. macrophages and eosinophils
5. macrophages and neutrophils

You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the

1. appendix
2. spleen
3. lymph nodes of the groin (inguinal)
4. lymph nodes of the neck (cervical)
5. lymph nodes of the armpit

In what way is the lymphatic system similar to the circulatory system?

1. Fluid flows from larger vessels to capillaries.
2. The lymph nodes can contract to push fluid through the system.
3. the composition of lymphatic fluid is similar to that of blood plasma.
4. The same types of cells flow through both systems.
5. The lymphatic system is also a circulatory system.

Large accumulations of unactivated self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in

1. lymph nodes
2. the thymus
3. the MALT
4. the MALT and lymph nodes
5. the MALT, lymph nodes, and thymus

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

1. B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.
2. Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs.
3. The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation"
4. Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized.
5. Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

1. Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.
2. To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.
3. Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.
4. Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.
5. Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a singlt antigenic determinant.

Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy bacteria, viral infected cells, and cancer cells.

1. T_H
2. CD4
3. MHC
4. T_C

Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response?

1. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production.
2. Presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production, lymphocyte development.
3. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B cells.
4. Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens.
5. Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens.

All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except

1. it should not require numerous boosters.
2. it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen.
3. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
4. it should be easy to administer.
5. it should have a relatively long shelf life.

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

1. they require fewer boosters.
2. they require smaller doses.
3. they confer longer lasting protection.
4. they produce infection but not disease.
5. they can mutate back to a virulent strain.

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

1. they confer longer lasting protection.
2. they require fewer boosters.
3. they require smaller doses.
4. they produce infection but not disease.
5. they can be transmitted to other people.

Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations?

1. Asthma
2. All of the choices are correct
3. Autism
4. Diabetes
5. None of the choices are correct

Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients?

1. Immune serums
2. Killed, inactivated vaccines
3. Toxoids
4. Attenuated vaccines
5. Subunit vaccines

The DTaP immunization

1. contains diphtheria toxoid.
2. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material.
3. contains tetanus toxoid
4. is administered in childhood
5. All of the choices are correct.

Antitoxins

1. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.
2. contain attenuated organisms.
3. use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
4. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
5. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.

Variolation involved using

1. a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus.
2. preparations of human cowpox lesions.
3. antibodies to the smallpox virus.
4. dried, ground smallpox scabs.
5. None of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

1. Gamma globulin
2. Booster
3. Antibodies to toxin
4. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
5. Adjuvant

Toxoids

1. confer passive immunity.
2. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
3. are always genetically engineered.
4. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
5. all of the choices are correct.

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make

1. antibodies to toxin
2. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
3. gamma globulin
4. adjuvant
5. booster

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines

1. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
2. confer passive immunity
3. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules
4. are always genetically engineered
5. all of the choices are correct

Live, attenuated vaccines

1. include the Sabin polio vaccine.
2. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
3. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
4. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
5. All of the choices are correct.

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by

1. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation
2. long-term subculturing of the microbe.
3. removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
4. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts of tissue culture.
5. All of the choices are correct.

High titers of specific antibodies are components of

1. attenuated vaccines.
2. immune serum globulin (ISG).
3. gamma globulin.
4. toxoids.
5. specific immune globulin (SIG).

Edward Jenner's work involved

1. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
2. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
3. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
4. development of passive immunotherapy.
5. All of the choices are correct.

Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this?

1. Natural passive immunity.
2. Artificial active immunity.
3. Natural active immunity.
4. Artificial passive immunity.
5. None of the choices will protect him.

Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?

1. Artificial passive immunity.
2. Natural active immunity.
3. Artificial active immunity.
4. Natural passive immunity.
5. None of the choices will help him.

Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for

1. asthma
2. breast cancer
3. Chron's disease
4. respiratory syncytical virus
5. All of the choices are correct

The process of clonal deletion is designed to

1. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen.
2. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.
3. slow down the immune system in the elderly.
4. destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
5. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient.

All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except

1. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response.
2. a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response.
3. it is also known as the anamnestic response.
4. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response.
5. it mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.

Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?

1. B cells
2. Suppressor T cells
3. Cytotoxic T cells
4. Helper T cells
5. Plasma cells

An example of natural passive immunity would be

1. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
2. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
3. chicken pox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
4. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
5. None of the choices are correct.

An example of artificial passive immunity would be

1. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
2. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
3. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
4. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox
5. None of the choices are correct.

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except

1. it contains a central J chain.
2. it is a dimer.
3. it has 10 antigen binding sites.
4. it can fix complement.
5. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

1. Anamnestic response
2. Complement fixation
3. Agglutination
4. Neutralization
5. Opsonization

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?

1. Complement fixation
2. Agglutination
3. Neutralization
4. Anamnestic response
5. Opsonization

Which of the following does not belong with transformed cancer cells?

1. Increased rate of growth.
2. Oncogenic viruses
3. Changed surface molecules
4. Chromosomal alterations
5. Capacity for limited division

All of the following cells participate in immune surveillance, except

1. plasma cells.
2. cytotoxic T cells.
3. natural killer cells.
4. macrophages.
5. All of the choices participate.

The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a

1. homograft
2. heterograft
3. autograft
4. allograft
5. xenograft

All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases, except

1. myasthenia gravis.
2. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.
3. Hashimoto thyroiditis.
4. multiple sclerosis.
5. Graves disease.

All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except

1. persons with this type of blood are considered universal donors.
2. persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC.
3. this is the most common blood type among all racial groups in the U.S.
4. persons with this type of blood have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma.
5. None of the above.

Which of these chemicals is a powerful inflammatory agent that also stimulates uterine contractions?

1. Prostaglandins
2. Leukotriene
3. Histamine
4. Platelet-activating factor
5. Bradykinin

Which of the following is mismatched?

1. Injectant - vaccine
2. Inhalant - bee sting
3. Ingestant - nuts
4. Ingestant - food additive
5. Contactant - rubber

What is the Arthus reaction?

1. An acute response to a second infection of vaccines at the same site.
2. The name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test.
3. A positive tuberculosis skin test.
4. the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion.
5. An autoimmune disorder.

A xenograft is a tissue exchange

1. between siblings
2. between individuals of different species
3. between identical twins
4. from one site on the body to another site
5. None of the above

Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this?

1. Autograft
2. Xenograft
3. Heterograft
4. Allograft
5. None of the choices are correct

Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome?

1. Common childhood diseases can be fatal in affected children.
2. Symptoms include reduced growth an unusual facial characteristics.
3. Sometimes it is associated with a deletion in chromosome 22.
4. It is a severe deficiency of T cells.
5. The major therapy is a bone marrow transplant.

Which of the following can cause secondary acquired immunodeficiencies in T cells and B cells?

1. Radiation
2. Infection
3. Chemotherapy
4. Organic disease
5. All of the choices are correct

A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is

1. Type I diabetes
2. agammaglobulinemia
3. AIDS
4. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
5. DiGeoge syndrome

Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to

1. delayed hypersensitivity
2. autoantibodies
3. failure of B cell development and maturity
4. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland
5. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

This can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity

1. graft versus host disease
2. formation of autoantibodies
3. host rejection of graft
4. hypogammaglobulinemia
5. None of the choices are correct

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except

1. Graves' disease
2. myasthenia gravis
3. tuberculin reaction
4. rheumatoid arthritis
5. multiple sclerosis

Treatment for agammaglobulinemia is

1. continuous immunosuppressive therapy
2. allografts of skin
3. bone marrow transplant
4. passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy.
5. frequent transfusions of Rh+ blood

Histamine causes of all the following, except

1. constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine.
2. wheal and flare reaction in skin
3. relaxes vascular smooth muscle
4. increased sensitivity to light
5. pruritis and headache

Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies?

1. They are found mainly in the lymph nodes.
2. Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines.
3. They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them.
4. They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind IgE antibodies.
5. None of the above is incorrect.

Which is mismatched?

1. Serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity
2. Hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity
3. Poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity
4. Food allergy - Type 1 hypersensitivity
5. Transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by

1. treating the fetus with immune globulin
2. treating the mother with RhoGAM early in the pregnancy
3. birth by cesarean section
4. injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth
5. None of the choices are correct.

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when

1. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus.
2. maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus.
3. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother.
4. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother.
5. fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother.

A female who is Rh+

1. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
2. inherited two recessive genes.
3. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status.
4. can only have an Rh positive baby.
5. All of the choices are correct.

A person with O type blood

1. lacks A and B antigens
2. is called a universal recipient.
3. could not have the Rh factor.
4. lacks antibodies to A and B blood types.
5. All of the choices are correct.

Atopy an anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category

1. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.
2. Type 4 only.
3. Type 1 and Type 4.
4. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3.
5. Type 1 only.

Tissue samples can be tested for pathogen using ______ assays.

1. immunodiffusion precipitation
2. viral neutralization
3. immunoblot
4. direct fluorescent antibody
5. viral hemagglutination inhibition

Precipitation assays involve the formation of immune complexes with ______ while agglutination tests involve agglutination of ______.

1. soluble antigens; large particles
2. soluble antibodies; insoluble complexes
3. soluble antigens;complement factors
4. insoluble antigens; soluble antigens
5. soluble antigens; insoluble antigens

A positive result in a(n) ______ assay results in a line of immune precipitate on an agar plate.

1. immunoblot
2. viral hemagglutination inhibition
3. immunodiffusion
4. viral neutralization
5. direct fluorescent antibody

Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies) with fluorescent molecules covalently attached are used for

1. direct fluorescent antibody tests.
2. indirect ELISAs.
3. indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
4. direct ELISAs
5. both indirect ELISA and indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Serologic tests for diagnosis of disease may detect

1. antibodies specific for antigens
2. microbial antigens
3. the level of complement factor in the serum
4. the concentration of serum proteins
5. either antigens or antibodies specific for certain antigens

Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests?

1. The Fc portion of the molecule can be modified without interferering with antigen binding.
2. Antibodies can bind two antigens simultaneously.
3. The Fc portion can trigger the classical complement system upon antigen binding.
4. The Fc portion of IgG becomes enzymatically active upon antigen binding.
5. Antibodies can neutralize the ability of viruses to infect cells.

The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be

1. a fluorescent precipitate
2. a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs
3. a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube
4. loss of color in the tube
5. a cloudy solution in tube

In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when

1. the amount of antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen
2. a toxin is present
3. the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions
4. the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody
5. a complex solution of many antibodies is used.

Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE?

1. The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule.
2. The are not quantitative.
3. They can be used to detect antibody or antigen.
4. They involve the use of membrane filters.
5. They require large amounts of serum.

Viral neutralization testing based on the fact that

1. antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen
2. antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.
3. antibodies have different molecular weights
4. the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid
5. viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect.

Titration is a serological procedure that

1. has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen.
2. must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV
3. identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease.
4. is used for blood grouping.
5. determines the amount of an antibody in the blood.

Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure?

1. a direct ELISA
2. an indirect immunofluorescence assay
3. an immunodiffusion assay
4. an indirect ELISA
5. a western blot

During a visit to a hospital, a child receives the oral polio vaccine. He then returns to his distant village. Sometime later a polio outbreak occurs in the village, but the child and his siblings, who had not had the vaccine, are spared. What is the explanation for this event?

1. herd immunity
2. active immunity
3. natural immunity
4. contact immunity
5. passive immunity

The saliva of a highly venomous reptile is found to contain multiple toxic compounds. What is a practical approach to providing people with protection from the deadly effects of a bite from this reptile?

1. Prepare antitoxins by immunizing a large animal with the toxins, and use extracted antibodies for treating exposed persons.
2. Use recombinant techniques to prepare modified versions of the toxins.
3. Prepare extracts of the toxins, inactivate them, and use them one at a time in a series of immunizations.
4. Prepare antibodies from the blood of people who survived bites to prepare antisera.
5. Prepare hybidomas specific for each toxin and use the resulting monoclonal antibodies for passive immunotherapy.

An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?

1. Attenuated
2. toxoid
3. subunit
4. inactivated whole
5. combination

The figure represents the HIV infection cycle. What virus-specified proteins are required for the events indicated by 1 and 2? (Be sure they are in the correct sequence)

1. RNA polymerase, gp120
2. integrase, protease
3. reverse transcriptase, protease
4. integrase, gp120
5. gp41, protease

Severe malnutrition may lead to immunodeficiency by

1. preventing to proliferation B cells
2. promoting the development of food allergies
3. triggering the proliferation of T cells
4. decreasing the ability of the body to produce phagocytes
5. triggering an inflammatory response

Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include

1. Kaposi's sarcoma
2. tuberculosis
3. Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma
4. Pneumocystis pneumonia
5. tuberculosis and shingles

Antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristic of

1. type I hypersensitivity
2. type II hypersensitivity
3. type III hypersensitivity
4. graft rejection
5. autoimmunity

Which of the following statements concerning allografts is TRUE?

1. They are the rarest type of transplants
2. They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppressive drugs.
3. They are the best type of transplants because they are not associated with rejection.
4. They are impossible to perform because the antigens between donor and recipient are so different.
5. They always require complete destruction of the recipient's bone marrow cells.

The disease known as ______ is a disorder in which phagocytes are inefficient at killing bacteria.

1. chronic granulomatous disease
2. severe combined immunodeficiency disease
3. hemolytic disease of the newborn
4. immune thrombocytopenic purpura
5. autoimmune hemolytic anemia

The name systemic lupus erythematosus refers in part to the distinctive rash resulting from

1. autoantibodies causing mast cell degranulation
2. CTL attack on skin cells altered by sun damage
3. antibody-antigen complexes accumulating in the skin
4. the release of histmines and kinins in response to sunburn
5. CTL attack on connective tissue fibroblasts

A child has a history of repeated severe infections and frequently has recurring infections with the same bacterial pathogen. A blood sample shows some lymphopenia and serological tests are negative. Based on this information, which of the following is the likeliest diagnosis for this child?

1. hemolytic disease of the newborn
2. Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia
3. severe combined immune deficiency (SCID)
4. systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)
5. DiGeorge syndrome

Monoclonal antibodies that bind the IL-2 receptor have been successfully used to reverse graft rejection. Why is this approach effective?

1. IL-2 suppresses Th2 cells.
2. B cells are suppressed by exposure to IL-2
3. IL-2 stimulates the activity of CTL
4. IL-2 is an immunosuppresive cytokine
5. IL-2 contributes to type VI hypersensitivity

A young woman comes into the clinic complaining of itchy, red skin and swelling on her arms and legs. She had not been any parks or wooded areas recently, but she had been shopping. A blood sample reveals elevated levels of granulocytes. What treatment is the physical likely to prescribe at this point?

1. interferon
2. methotrexate
3. antihistamines
4. cyclophosphamide
5. corticosteroids

A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to

1. type I hypersensitivity
2. Type II hypersensitivity
3. type III hypersensitivity
4. type IV hypersensitivity
5. immunodeficiency

If circulating immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli, the ensuing type III hypersensitivity reaction can result in

1. pneumonitis
2. rheumatoid arthritis
3. multiple sclerosis
4. allergic contact dermatitis
5. kidney damage

An agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing, which becomes progressively worse. Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent?

1. type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity
2. acquired immunodeficiency
3. autoimmunity
4. allergic reaction
5. type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity

An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of these events?

1. The blood transfusion contained pyrogens.
2. The recipient had previously been exposed to foreign blood group antigens
3. The blood transfusion was mismatched
4. The blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens
5. The blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens.

How is hemolytic disease of the newborn prevented?

1. treating with cytokines to prevent B cell activation late in pregnancy
2. administering anti-IgG antibodies during pregnancy
3. immunizing a woman against Rh factor prior to pregnancy
4. treating with clucocorticoids throughout the pregnancy
5. administering anti-Rh IgG late in pregnancy and after pregnancy ends