1. A nurse is describing the process by which blood is ejected into
circulation as the chambers of the heart become smaller. The
instructor categorizes this action of the heart as what?
A)
Systole
B) Diastole
C) Repolarization
D) Ejection fraction
Ans: A
Feedback:
Systole is the action of the chambers of
the heart becoming smaller and ejecting blood. This action of the
heart is not diastole (relaxations), ejection fraction (the amount of
blood expelled), or repolarization (electrical charging).
2. During a shift assessment, the nurse is identifying the client’s
point of maximum impulse (PMI). Where will the nurse best palpate the
PMI?
A) Left midclavicular line of the chest at the level of the
nipple
B) Left midclavicular line of the chest at the fifth
intercostal space
C) Midline between the xiphoid process and the
left nipple
D) Two to three centimeters to the left of the sternum
Ans: B
Feedback:
The left ventricle is responsible for
the apical beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally
palpated in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth
intercostal space.
3. The nurse is calculating a cardiac patient’s pulse pressure. If
the patient’s blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg, what is the patient’s
pulse pressure?
A) 46 mm Hg
B) 99 mm Hg
C) 198 mm
Hg
D) 76 mm Hg
Ans: A
Feedback:
Pulse pressure is the difference between
the systolic and diastolic pressure. In this case, this value is 46 mm Hg.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with unstable angina.
The laboratory result for the initial troponin I is elevated in this
patient. The nurse should recognize what implication of this
assessment finding?
A) This is only an accurate indicator of
myocardial damage when it reaches its peak in 24 hours.
B)
Because the patient has a history of unstable angina, this is a poor
indicator of myocardial injury.
C) This is an accurate indicator
of myocardial injury.
D) This result indicates muscle injury, but
does not specify the source.
Ans: C
Feedback:
Troponin I, which is specific to cardiac
muscle, is elevated within hours after myocardial injury. Even with a
diagnosis of unstable angina, this is an accurate indicator of
myocardial injury.
5. The nurse is conducting patient teaching about cholesterol levels.
When discussing the patient’s elevated LDL and lowered HDL levels, the
patient shows an understanding of the significance of these levels by
stating what?
A) Increased LDL and decreased HDL increase my
risk of coronary artery disease.
B) Increased LDL has the
potential to decrease my risk of heart disease.
C) The
decreased HDL level will increase the amount of cholesterol moved away
from the artery walls.
D) The increased LDL will decrease the
amount of cholesterol deposited on the artery walls.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Elevated LDL levels and decreased HDL
levels are associated with a greater incidence of coronary artery disease.
6. The physician has placed a central venous pressure (CVP)
monitoring line in an acutely ill patient so right ventricular
function and venous blood return can be closely monitored. The results
show decreased CVP. What does this indicate?
A) Possible
hypovolemia
B) Possible myocardial infarction (MI)
C)
Left-sided heart failure
D) Aortic valve regurgitation
Ans: A
Feedback:
Hypovolemia may cause a decreased CVP.
MI, valve regurgitation and heart failure are less likely causes of
decreased CVP.
7. While auscultating a patient’s heart sounds, the nurse hears an
extra heart sound immediately after the second heart sound (S2). An
audible S3 would be considered an expected finding in what
patient?
A) An older adult
B) A 20-year-old patient
C)
A patient who has undergone valve replacement
D) A patient who
takes a beta-adrenergic blocker
Ans: B
Feedback:
S3 represents a normal finding in
children and adults up to 35 or 40 years of age. In these cases, it is
called a physiologic S3. It is an abnormal finding in a patient with
an artificial valve, an older adult, or a patient who takes a beta blocker.
8. The physical therapist notifies the nurse that a patient with
coronary artery disease (CAD) experiences a much greater-than-average
increase in heart rate during physical therapy. The nurse recognizes
that an increase in heart rate in a patient with CAD may result in
what?
A) Development of an atrial-septal defect
B)
Myocardial ischemia
C) Formation of a pulmonary embolism
D)
Release of potassium ions from cardiac cells
Ans: B
Feedback:
Unlike other arteries, the coronary
arteries are perfused during diastole. An increase in heart rate
shortens diastole and can decrease myocardial perfusion. Patients,
particularly those with CAD, can develop myocardial ischemia. An
increase in heart rate will not usually result in a pulmonary embolism
or create electrolyte imbalances. Atrial-septal defects are congenital.
9. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of heart
disease. What factor should the nurse identify as possibly
contributing to a decrease in cardiac output?
A) A change in
position from standing to sitting
B) A heart rate of 54
bpm
C) A pulse oximetry reading of 94%
D) An increase in
preload related to ambulation
Ans: B
Feedback:
Cardiac output is computed by
multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate. Cardiac output can be
affected by changes in either stroke volume or heart rate, such as a
rate of 54 bpm. An increase in preload will lead to an increase in
stroke volume. A pulse oximetry reading of 94% does not indicate
hypoxemia, as hypoxia can decrease contractility. Transitioning from
standing to sitting would more likely increase rather than decrease
cardiac output.
10. The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old patient. The nurse knows
that changes in cardiac structure and function occur in older adults.
What is a normal change expected in the aging heart of an older
adult?
A) Decreased left ventricular ejection time
B)
Decreased connective tissue in the SA and AV nodes and bundle
branches
C) Thinning and flaccidity of the cardiac values
D)
Widening of the aorta
10. The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old patient. The nurse knows
that changes in cardiac structure and function occur in older adults.
What is a normal change expected in the aging heart of an older
adult?
A) Decreased left ventricular ejection time
B)
Decreased connective tissue in the SA and AV nodes and bundle
branches
C) Thinning and flaccidity of the cardiac values
D)
Widening of the aorta
11. A resident of a long-term care facility has complained to the
nurse of chest pain. What aspect of the resident’s pain would be most
suggestive of angina as the cause?
A) The pain is worse when the
resident inhales deeply.
B) The pain occurs immediately following
physical exertion.
C) The pain is worse when the resident
coughs.
D) The pain is most severe when the resident moves his
upper body.
Ans: B
Feedback:
Chest pain associated with angina is
often precipitated by physical exertion. The other listed aspects of
chest pain are more closely associated with noncardiac etiologies.
12. The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a central
venous pressure (CVP) monitoring system. The nurse notes that the
patient’s CVP is increasing. Of what may this indicate?
A)
Psychosocial stress
B) Hypervolemia
C) Dislodgment of the
catheter
D) Hypomagnesemia
Ans: B
Feedback:
CVP is a useful hemodynamic parameter to
observe when managing an unstable patient’s fluid volume status. An
increasing pressure may be caused by hypervolemia or by a condition,
such as heart failure, that results in decreased myocardial
contractility. Stress, dislodgement of the catheter, and low magnesium
levels would not typically result in increased CVP.
13. The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary
artery pressure monitoring system. The nurse is aware that pulmonary
artery pressure monitoring is used to assess left ventricular
function. What is an additional function of pulmonary artery pressure
monitoring systems?
A) To assess the patient’s response to fluid
and drug administration
B) To obtain specimens for arterial blood
gas measurements
C) To dislodge pulmonary emboli
D) To
diagnose the etiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Ans: A
Feedback:
Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is
an important tool used in critical care for assessing left ventricular
function (cardiac output), diagnosing the etiology of shock, and
evaluating the patient’s response to medical interventions, such as
fluid administration and vasoactive medications. Pulmonary artery
monitoring is preferred for the patient with heart failure over
central venous pressure monitoring. Arterial catheters are useful when
arterial blood gas measurements and blood samples need to be obtained
frequently. Neither intervention is used to clear pulmonary emboli.
14. The cardiac care nurse is reviewing the conduction system of the
heart. The nurse is aware that electrical conduction of the heart
usually originates in the SA node and then proceeds in what
sequence?
A) SA node to bundle of His to AV node to Purkinje
fibers
B) SA node to AV node to Purkinje fibers to bundle of
His
C) SA node to bundle of His to Purkinje fibers to AV
node
D) SA node to AV node to bundle of His to Purkinje fibers
Ans: D
Feedback:
The normal electrophysiological
conduction route is SA node to AV node to bundle of HIS to Purkinje fibers.
15. A patient has had a myocardial infarction and has been diagnosed
as having damage to the layer of the heart responsible for the pumping
action. You are aware that the damage occurred where?
A)
Endocardium
B) Pericardium
C) Myocardium
D) Visceral pericardium
Ans: C
Feedback:
The myocardium is the layer of the heart
responsible for the pumping action.
16. The nurse working on a cardiac care unit is caring for a patient
whose stroke volume has increased. The nurse is aware that afterload
influences a patient’s stroke volume. The nurse recognizes that
afterload is increased when there is what?
A) Arterial
vasoconstriction
B) Venous vasoconstriction
C) Arterial
vasodilation
D) Venous vasodilation
Ans: A
Feedback:
Arterial vasoconstriction increases the
systemic vascular resistance, which increases the afterload. Venous
vasoconstriction decreases preload thereby decreasing stroke volume.
Venous vasodilation increases preload.
17. A nurse is preparing a patient for scheduled transesophageal
echocardiography. What action should the nurse perform?
A)
Instruct the patient to drink 1 liter of water before the
test.
B) Administer IV benzodiazepines and opioids.
C)
Inform the patient that she will remain on bed rest following the
procedure.
D) Inform the patient that an access line will be
initiated in her femoral artery.
Ans: C
Feedback:
During the recovery period, the patient
must maintain bed rest with the head of the bed elevated to 45
degrees. The patient must be NPO 6 hours preprocedure. The patient is
sedated to make him or her comfortable, but will not be heavily
sedated, and opioids are not necessary. Also, the patient will have a
peripheral IV line initiated preprocedure.
18. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with angina who is
scheduled for cardiac catheterization. The patient is anxious and asks
the reason for this test. What is the best response?
A) Cardiac
catheterization is usually done to assess how blocked or open a
patients coronary arteries are.
B) Cardiac catheterization is
most commonly done to detect how efficiently a patient’s heart muscle
contracts.
C) Cardiac catheterization is usually done to
evaluate cardiovascular response to stress.
D) Cardiac
catheterization is most commonly done to evaluate cardiac electrical activity.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Cardiac catheterization is usually used
to assess coronary artery patency to determine if revascularization
procedures are necessary. A thallium stress test shows myocardial
ischemia after stress. An ECG shows the electrical activity of the heart.
19. The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who has had an
MI. The nurse should expect to assist with establishing what
hemodynamic monitoring procedure to assess the patient’s left
ventricular function?
A) Central venous pressure (CVP)
monitoring
B) Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring (PAPM)
C)
Systemic arterial pressure monitoring (SAPM)
D) Arterial blood
gases (ABG)
Ans: B
Feedback:
PAPM is used to assess left ventricular
function. CVP is used to assess right ventricular function; SAPM is
used for continual assessment of BP. ABG are used to assess for acidic
and alkalotic levels in the blood.
20. A critically ill patient is admitted to the ICU. The physician
decides to use intra-arterial pressure monitoring. After this
intervention is performed, what assessment should the nurse prioritize
in the plan of care?
A) Fluctuations in core body
temperature
B) Signs and symptoms of esophageal varices
C)
Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome
D) Perfusion distal to
the insertion site
Ans: D
Feedback:
The radial artery is the usual site
selected. However, placement of a catheter into the radial artery can
further impede perfusion to an area that has poor circulation. As a
result, the tissue distal to the cannulated artery can become ischemic
or necrotic. Vigilant assessment is thus necessary. Alterations in
temperature and the development of esophageal varices or compartment
syndrome are not high risks.
21. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill patient who has central
venous pressure monitoring in place. What intervention should be
included in the care plan of a patient with CVP in place?
A)
Apply antibiotic ointment to the insertion site twice daily.
B)
Change the site dressing whenever it becomes visibly soiled.
C)
Perform passive range-of-motion exercises to prevent venous
stasis.
D) Aspirate blood from the device once daily to test pH.
Ans: B
Feedback:
Gauze dressings should be changed every
2 days or transparent dressings at least every 7 days and whenever
dressings become damp, loosened, or visibly soiled. Passive ROM
exercise is not indicated and it is unnecessary and inappropriate to
aspirate blood to test it for pH. Antibiotic ointments are contraindicated.
22. A patient is brought into the ED by family members who tell the
nurse the patient grabbed his chest and complained of substernal chest
pain. The care team recognizes the need to monitor the patient’s
cardiac function closely while interventions are performed. What form
of monitoring should the nurse anticipate?
A) Left-sided heart
catheterization
B) Cardiac telemetry
C) Transesophageal
echocardiography
D) Hardwire continuous ECG monitoring
Ans: D
Feedback:
Two types of continuous ECG monitoring
techniques are used in health care settings: hardwire cardiac
monitoring, found in EDs, critical care units, and progressive care
units; and telemetry, found in general nursing care units or
outpatient cardiac rehabilitation programs. Cardiac catheterization
and transesophageal echocardiography would not be used in emergent
situations to monitor cardiac function.
23. The nurse is performing an intake assessment on a patient with a
new diagnosis of coronary artery disease. What would be the most
important determination to make during this intake assessment?
A)
Whether the patient and involved family members understand the role of
genetics in the etiology of the disease
B) Whether the patient
and involved family members understand dietary changes and the role of
nutrition
C) Whether the patient and involved family members are
able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem and respond
appropriately
D) Whether the patient and involved family members
understand the importance of social support and community agencies
Ans: C
Feedback:
During the health history, the nurse
needs to determine if the patient and involved family members are able
to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem, such as acute
coronary syndrome (ACS) or HF, and seek timely treatment for these
symptoms. Each of the other listed topics is valid, but the timely and
appropriate response to a cardiac emergency is paramount.
24. The nurse is relating the deficits in a patient’s synchronization
of the atrial and ventricular events to his diagnosis. What are the
physiologic characteristics of the nodal and Purkinje cells that
provide this synchronization? Select all that apply.
A) Loop
connectivity
B) Excitability
C) Automaticity
D)
Conductivity
E) Independence
Ans: B, C, D
Feedback:
Three physiologic characteristics
of two types of specialized electrical cells, the nodal cells and the
Purkinje cells, provide this synchronization: automaticity, or the
ability to initiate an electrical impulse; excitability, or the
ability to respond to an electrical impulse; and conductivity, the
ability to transmit an electrical impulse from one cell to another.
Loop connectivity is a distracter for this question. Independence of
the cells has nothing to do with the synchronization described in the scenario.
25. The nurse’s assessment of an older adult client reveals the
following data: Lying BP 144/82 mm Hg; sitting BP 121/69 mm Hg;
standing BP 98/56 mm Hg. The nurse should consequently identify what
nursing diagnosis in the patient’s plan of care?
A) Risk for
ineffective breathing pattern related to hypotension
B) Risk for
falls related to orthostatic hypotension
C) Risk for ineffective
role performance related to hypotension
D) Risk for imbalanced
fluid balance related to hemodynamic variability
Ans: B
Feedback:
Orthostatic hypotension creates a
significant risk for falls due to the dizziness and lightheadedness
that accompanies it. It does not normally affect breathing or fluid
balance. The patient’s ability to perform normal roles may be
affected, but the risk for falls is the most significant threat to safety.
26. A brain (B-type) natriuretic peptide (BNP) sample has been drawn
from an older adult patient who has been experienced vital fatigue and
shortness of breath. This test will allow the care team to investigate
the possibility of what diagnosis?
A) Pleurisy
B) Heart
failure
C) Valve dysfunction
D) Cardiomyopathy
Ans: B
Feedback:
The level of BNP in the blood increases
as the ventricular walls expand from increased pressure, making it a
helpful diagnostic, monitoring, and prognostic tool in the setting of
HF. It is not specific to cardiomyopathy, pleurisy, or valve dysfunction.
27. A lipid profile has been ordered for a patient who has been
experiencing cardiac symptoms. When should a lipid profile be drawn in
order to maximize the accuracy of results?
A) As close to the end
of the day as possible
B) After a meal high in fat
C) After
a 12-hour fast
D) Thirty minutes after a normal meal
Ans: C
Feedback:
Although cholesterol levels remain
relatively constant over 24 hours, the blood specimen for the lipid
profile should be obtained after a 12-hour fast.
28. When hemodynamic monitoring is ordered for a patient, a catheter
is inserted into the appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. When
assessing a patient who has such a device in place, the nurse should
check which of the following components? Select all that
apply.
A) A transducer
B) A flush system
C) A
leveler
D) A pressure bag
E) An oscillator
Ans: A, B, D
Feedback:
To perform hemodynamic monitoring,
a CVP, pulmonary artery, or arterial catheter is introduced into the
appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. It is connected to a
pressure monitoring system that has several components. Included among
these are a transducer, a flush system, and a pressure bag. A pressure
monitoring system does not have a leveler or an oscillator.
29. The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who has been
experiencing bradycardia after cardiovascular surgery. The nurse knows
that the heart rate is determined by myocardial cells with the fastest
inherent firing rate. Under normal circumstances where are these cells
located?
A) SA node
B) AV node
C) Bundle of His
D)
Purkinje cells
Ans: A
Feedback:
The heart rate is determined by the
myocardial cells with the fastest inherent firing rate. Under normal
circumstances, the SA node has the highest inherent rate (60 to 100
impulses per minute).
30. The nurse is doing discharge teaching with a patient who has
coronary artery disease. The patient asks why he has to take an
aspirin every day if he doesn’t have any pain. What would be the
nurse’s best response?
A) “Taking an aspirin every day is an easy
way to help restore the normal function of your heart.”
B) “An
aspirin a day can help prevent some of the blockages that can cause
chest pain or heart attacks.”
C) “Taking an aspirin every day is
a simple way to make your blood penetrate your heart more
freely.”
D) “An aspirin a day eventually helps your blood carry
more oxygen that it would otherwise.”
Ans: B
Feedback:
An aspirin a day is a common
nonprescription medication that improves outcomes in patients with CAD
due to its antiplatelet action. It does not affect oxygen carrying
capacity or perfusion. Aspirin does not restore cardiac function.
31. The physician has ordered a high-sensitivity C-reactive protein
(hs-CRP) drawn on a patient. The results of this test will allow the
nurse to evaluate the role of what process that is implicated in the
development of atherosclerosis?
A) Immunosuppression
B)
Inflammation
C) Infection
D) Hemostasis
Ans: B
Feedback:
High-sensitivity CRP is a protein
produced by the liver in response to systemic inflammation.
Inflammation is thought to play a role in the development and
progression of atherosclerosis.
32. The patient has a homocysteine level ordered. What aspects of
this test should inform the nurse’s care? Select all that
apply.
A) A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing the blood
sample.
B) Recent inactivity can depress homocysteine
levels.
C) Genetic factors can elevate homocysteine
levels.
D) A diet low in folic acid elevates homocysteine
levels.
E) An ECG should be performed immediately before drawing
a sample.
Ans: A, C, D
Feedback:
Genetic factors and a diet low in
folic acid, vitamin B6, and vitamin B12 are associated with elevated
homocysteine levels. A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing a
blood sample for an accurate serum measurement. An ECG is unnecessary
and recent inactivity does not influence the results of the test.
33. A patient with a complex cardiac history is scheduled for
transthoracic echocardiography. What should the nurse teach the
patient in anticipation of this diagnostic procedure?
A) The test
is noninvasive, and nothing will be inserted into the patient’s
body.
B) The patient’s pain will be managed aggressively during
the procedure.
C) The test will provide a detailed profile of the
heart’s electrical activity.
D) The patient will remain on bed
rest for 1 to 2 hours after the test.
33. A patient with a complex cardiac history is scheduled for
transthoracic echocardiography. What should the nurse teach the
patient in anticipation of this diagnostic procedure?
A) The test
is noninvasive, and nothing will be inserted into the patient’s
body.
B) The patient’s pain will be managed aggressively during
the procedure.
C) The test will provide a detailed profile of the
heart’s electrical activity.
D) The patient will remain on bed
rest for 1 to 2 hours after the test.
34. A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a hemodynamic
monitoring system in place. For what complications should the nurse
assess? Select all that apply.
A) Pneumothorax
B)
Infection
C) Atelectasis
D) Bronchospasm
E) Air embolism
Ans: A, B, E
Feedback:
Complications from use of
hemodynamic monitoring systems are uncommon, but can include
pneumothorax, infection, and air embolism. Complications of
hemodynamic monitoring systems do not include atelectasis or bronchospasm.
35. The nurse is caring for a patient who has central venous pressure
(CVP) monitoring in place. The nurse’s most recent assessment reveals
that CVP is 7 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s most appropriate
action?
A) Arrange for continuous cardiac monitoring and
reposition the patient.
B) Remove the CVP catheter and apply an
occlusive dressing.
C) Assess the patient for fluid overload and
inform the physician.
D) Raise the head of the patient’s bed and
have the patient perform deep breathing exercise, if possible.
Ans: C
Feedback:
The normal CVP is 2 to 6 mm Hg. Many
problems can cause an elevated CVP, but the most common is due to
hypervolemia. Assessing the patient and informing the physician are
the most prudent actions. Repositioning the patient is ineffective and
removing the device is inappropriate.
36. A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary
artery catheter in place. What does this catheter measure that is
particularly important in critically ill patients?
A) Pulmonary
artery systolic pressure
B) Right ventricular afterload
C)
Pulmonary artery pressure
D) Left ventricular preload
Ans: D
Feedback:
Monitoring of the pulmonary artery
diastolic and pulmonary artery wedge pressures is particularly
important in critically ill patients because it is used to evaluate
left ventricular filling pressures (i.e., left ventricular preload).
This device does not directly measure the other listed aspects of
cardiac function.
37. A patient’s declining cardiac status has been attributed to
decreased cardiac action potential. Interventions will be aimed at
restoring what aspect of cardiac physiology?
A) The cycle of
depolarization and repolarization
B) The time it takes from the
firing of the SA node to the contraction of the ventricles
C) The
time between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the
ventricles
D) The cycle of the firing of the AV node and the
contraction of the myocardium
Ans: A
Feedback:
This exchange of ions creates a
positively charged intracellular space and a negatively charged
extracellular space that characterizes the period known as
depolarization. Once depolarization is complete, the exchange of ions
reverts to its resting state; this period is known as repolarization.
The repeated cycle of depolarization and repolarization is called the
cardiac action potential.
38. A patient has been scheduled for cardiovascular computed
tomography (CT) with contrast. To prepare the patient for this test,
what action should the nurse perform?
A) Keep the patient NPO for
at least 6 hours prior to the test.
B) Establish peripheral IV
access.
C) Limit the patient’s activity for 2 hours before the
test.
D) Teach the patient to perform incentive spirometry.
Ans: B
Feedback:
An IV is necessary if contrast is to be
used to enhance the images of the CT. The patient does not need to
fast or limit his or her activity. Incentive spirometry is not
relevant to this diagnostic test.
39. The student nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a patient
being discharged status post MI. What should the student include in
the teaching plan? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Need for careful
monitoring for cardiac symptoms
B) Need for carefully regulated
exercise
C) Need for dietary modifications
D) Need for early
resumption of prediagnosis activity
E) Need for increased fluid intake
Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
Dietary modifications, exercise,
weight loss, and careful monitoring are important strategies for
managing three major cardiovascular risk factors: hyperlipidemia,
hypertension, and diabetes. There is no need to increase fluid intake
and activity should be slowly and deliberately increased.
40. The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing an exercise
stress test. Prior to reaching the target heart rate, the patient
develops chest pain. What is the nurse’s most appropriate
response?
A) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin to allow the
patient to finish the test.
B) Initiate cardiopulmonary
resuscitation.
C) Administer analgesia and slow the test.
D)
Stop the test and monitor the patient closely.
Ans: D
Feedback:
Signs of myocardial ischemia would
necessitate stopping the test. CPR would only be necessary if signs of
cardiac or respiratory arrest were evident.