1. The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to
a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly
addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?
A)
Monthly self-breast exams
B) Smoking cessation
C) Annual
colonoscopies
D) Monthly testicular exams
Ans: B
Feedback:
Cancer is second only to cardiovascular
disease as a leading cause of death in the United States. Although the
numbers of cancer deaths have decreased slightly, more than 570,000
Americans were expected to die from a malignant process in 2011. The
leading causes of cancer death in the United States, in order of
frequency, are lung, prostate, and colorectal cancer in men and lung,
breast, and colorectal cancer in women, so smoking cessation is the
health promotion initiative directly related to lung cancer.
2. A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who
has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following
chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patient’s skin appears yellow.
Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical
sign?
A) Liver function tests (LFTs)
B) Complete blood count
(CBC)
C) Platelet count
D) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
Ans: A
Feedback:
Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice and
the liver is a common organ affected by metastatic disease. An LFT
should be done to determine if the liver is functioning. A CBC,
platelet count and tests of renal function would not directly assess
for liver disease.
3. The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high
school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can
increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, “Research has
shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of
cancer.” Which of the following menu selections would be the best
choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer?
A) Smoked
salmon and green beans
B) Pork chops and fried green
tomatoes
C) Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli
D)
Liver, onions, and steamed peas
Ans: C
Feedback:
Fruits and vegetables appear to reduce
cancer risk. Salt-cured foods, such as ham and processed meats, as
well as red meats, should be limited.
4. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer
prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both
primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary
prevention?
A) Yearly Pap tests
B) Testicular
self-examination
C) Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
D)
Screening mammograms
Ans: C
Feedback:
Primary prevention is concerned with
reducing the risks of cancer in healthy people through practices such
as use of sunscreen. Secondary prevention involves detection and
screening to achieve early diagnosis, as demonstrated by Pap tests,
mammograms, and testicular exams.
5. The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history
of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the
results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is
requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what
type of oncologic surgery?
A) Salvage surgery
B) Palliative
surgery
C) Prophylactic surgery
D) Reconstructive surgery
Ans: C
Feedback:
Prophylactic surgery is used when there
is an extensive family history and nonvital tissues are removed.
Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an
extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer
after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Palliative surgery
is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as
ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion.
Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an
attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect.
6. The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving
external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing
patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse
discuss with the patient?
A) Impaired nutritional status
B)
Cognitive changes
C) Diarrhea
D) Alopecia
Ans: A
Feedback:
Alterations in oral mucosa, change and
loss of taste, pain, and dysphasia often occur as a result of
radiotherapy to the head and neck. The patient is at an increased risk
of impaired nutritional status. Radiotherapy does not cause cognitive
changes. Diarrhea is not a likely concern for this patient. Radiation
only results in alopecia when targeted at the whole brain; radiation
of other parts of the body does not lead to hair loss.
7. While a patient is receiving IV doxorubicin hydrochloride for the
treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV
site. The nurse should prioritize what action?
A) Stopping the
administration of the drug immediately
B) Notifying the patient’s
physician
C) Continuing the infusion but decreasing the
rate
D) Applying a warm compress to the infusion site
Ans: A
Feedback:
Doxorubicin hydrochloride is a
chemotherapeutic vesicant that can cause severe tissue damage. The
nurse should stop the administration of the drug immediately and then
notify the patient’s physician. Ice can be applied to the site once
the drug therapy has stopped.
8. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin
chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory
guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most
common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
A)
Pruritis (itching)
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Altered glucose
metabolism
D) Confusion
Ans: B
Feedback:
Nausea and vomiting, the most common
side effects of chemotherapy, may persist for as long as 24 to 48
hours after its administration. Antiemetic drugs are frequently
prescribed for these patients. Confusion, alterations in glucose
metabolism, and pruritis are not common adverse effects.
9. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a
chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side
effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should
the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
A)
Interrupted sleep pattern
B) Hot flashes
C) Epistaxis (nose
bleed)
D) Increased weight
Ans: C
Feedback:
Patients with thrombocytopenia are at
risk for bleeding due to decreased platelet counts. Patients with
thrombocytopenia do not exhibit interrupted sleep pattern, hot
flashes, or increased weight.
10. The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit. When
reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what
action should the nurse emphasize?
A) Adjust the dose to the
patient’s present symptoms.
B) Wash hands with an alcohol-based
cleanser following administration.
C) Use gloves and a lab coat
when preparing the medication.
D) Dispose of the antineoplastic
wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.
Ans: D
Feedback:
The nurse should use surgical gloves and
disposable long-sleeved gowns when administering antineoplastic
agents. The antineoplastic wastes are disposed of as hazardous
materials. Dosages are not adjusted on a short-term basis. Hand and
arm hygiene must be performed before and after administering the medication.
11. A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is
preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell
transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the
nurse emphasize to the patient’s family and friends?
A) “Your
family should likely gather at the bedside in case there’s a negative
outcome.”
B) “Make sure she doesn’t eat any food in the 24 hours
before the procedure.”
C) “Wear a hospital gown when you go into
the patient’s room.”
D) “Do not visit if you’ve had a recent infection.”
Ans: D
Feedback:
Before HSCT, patients are at a high risk
for infection, sepsis, and bleeding. Visitors should not visit if they
have had a recent illness or vaccination. Gowns should indeed be worn,
but this is secondary in importance to avoiding the patient’s contact
with ill visitors. Prolonged fasting is unnecessary. Negative outcomes
are possible, but the procedure would not normally be so risky as to
require the family to gather at the bedside.
12. A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and
one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related
to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of
infection-related death in oncology patients?
A) Encourage
several small meals daily.
B) Provide skin care to maintain skin
integrity.
C) Assist the patient with hygiene, as needed.
D)
Assess the integrity of the patient’s oral mucosa regularly.
Ans: B
Feedback:
Nursing care for patients with skin
reactions includes maintaining skin integrity, cleansing the skin,
promoting comfort, reducing pain, preventing additional trauma, and
preventing and managing infection. Malnutrition in oncology patients
may be present, but it is not the leading cause of infection-related
death. Poor hygiene does not normally cause events that result in
death. Broken oral mucosa may be an avenue for infection, but it is
not the leading cause of death in an oncology patient.
13. You are caring for an adult patient who has developed a mild oral
yeast infection following chemotherapy. What actions should you
encourage the patient to perform? Select all that apply.
A) Use a
lip lubricant.
B) Scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled
toothbrush.
C) Use dental floss every 24 hours.
D) Rinse the
mouth with normal saline.
E) Eat spicy food to aid in eradicating
the yeast.
Ans: A, C, D
Feedback:
Stomatitis is an inflammation of
the oral cavity. The patient should be encouraged to brush the teeth
with a soft toothbrush after meals, use dental floss every 24 hours,
rinse with normal saline, and use a lip lubricant. Mouthwashes and hot
foods should be avoided.
14. The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a
patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority
nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Fatigue related to altered
metabolic processes
B) Altered nutrition: less than body
requirements related to anorexia
C) Risk for infection related to
altered immunologic response
D) Body image disturbance related to
weight loss and anorexia
Ans: C
Feedback:
A priority nursing diagnosis for this
patient is risk for infection related to altered immunologic response.
Because the patient’s immunity is suppressed, he or she will be at a
high risk for infection. The other listed nursing diagnoses are valid,
but they are not as high a priority as is risk for infection.
15. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient who has developed
erythema following radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct
the patient to do?
A) Periodically apply ice to the area.
B)
Keep the area cleanly shaven.
C) Apply petroleum jelly to the
affected area.
D) Avoid using soap on the treatment area.
Ans: D
Feedback:
Care to the affected area must focus on
preventing further skin irritation, drying, and damage. Soaps,
petroleum ointment, and shaving the area could worsen the erythema.
Ice is also contraindicated.
16. The nurse is caring for a patient has just been given a 6-month
prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive stage small-cell lung
cancer. The patient states that he would like to die at home, but the
team believes that the patient’s care needs are unable to be met in a
home environment. What might you suggest as an alternative?
A)
Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital.
B) Panel the
patient for a personal care home.
C) Discuss a referral for acute
care.
D) Discuss a referral for hospice care.
Ans: D
Feedback:
Hospice care can be provided in several
settings. Because of the high cost associated with free-standing
hospices, care is often delivered by coordinating services provided by
both hospitals and the community. The primary goal of hospice care is
to provide support to the patient and family. Patients who are
referred to hospice care generally have fewer than 6 months to live.
Each of the other listed options would be less appropriate for the
patient’s physical and psychosocial needs.
17. The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology
patient. He complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his first
week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best
reassure this patient?
A) “These symptoms usually result from
radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your
laboratory and x-ray studies.”
B) “These symptoms are part of
your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with
cancer.”
C) “Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every
patient feels this way after having radiation therapy.”
D) “Even
though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only
the cancer cells are dying.”
Ans: A
Feedback:
Fatigue and weakness result from
radiation treatment and usually do not represent deterioration or
disease progression. The symptoms associated with radiation therapy
usually decrease after therapy ends. The symptoms may concern the
patient and should not be belittled. Radiation destroys both cancerous
and normal cells.
18. A 16-year-old female patient experiences alopecia resulting from
chemotherapy, prompting the nursing diagnoses of disturbed body image
and situational low self-esteem. What action by the patient would best
indicate that she is meeting the goal of improved body image and
self-esteem?
A) The patient requests that her family bring her
makeup and wig.
B) The patient begins to discuss the future with
her family.
C) The patient reports less disruption from pain and
discomfort.
D) The patient cries openly when discussing her disease.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Requesting her wig and makeup indicates
that the patient with alopecia is becoming interested in looking her
best and that her body image and self-esteem may be improving. The
other options may indicate that other nursing goals are being met, but
they do not necessarily indicate improved body image and self-esteem.
19. A 50-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia will begin
chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common
adverse effects of chemotherapy?
A) Administer an
antiemetic.
B) Administer an antimetabolite.
C) Administer a
tumor antibiotic.
D) Administer an anticoagulant.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Antiemetics are used to treat nausea and
vomiting, the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy.
Antihistamines and certain steroids are also used to treat nausea and
vomiting. Antimetabolites and tumor antibiotics are classes of
chemotherapeutic medications. Anticoagulants slow blood clotting time,
thereby helping to prevent thrombi and emboli.
20. A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge
resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray
shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke.
Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
A)
“Smoking is the reason you are here.”
B) “The doctor left orders
for you not to smoke.”
C) “You are anxious about the surgery. Do
you see smoking as helping?”
D) “Smoking is OK right now, but
after your surgery it is contraindicated.”
Ans: C
Feedback:
Stating “You are anxious about the
surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?” acknowledges the patient’s
feelings and encourages him to assess his previous behavior. Saying
“Smoking is the reason you are here” belittles the patient. Citing the
doctor’s orders does not address the patient’s anxiety. Sanctioning
smoking would be highly detrimental to this patient.
21. An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a
patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patient’s wife
has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells.
What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?
A)
Malignant cells contain more fibronectin than normal body
cells.
B) Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific
antigens.
C) Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more
durable and stable than those of normal cells.
D) The nuclei of
cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.
Ans: B
Feedback:
The cell membranes are altered in cancer
cells, which affect fluid movement in and out of the cell. The cell
membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called
tumor-specific antigens. Malignant cellular membranes also contain
less fibronectin, a cellular cement. Typically, nuclei of cancer cells
are large and irregularly shaped (pleomorphism). Fragility of
chromosomes is commonly found when cancer cells are analyzed.
22. A patient’s most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his
lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most
likely mechanism by which the patient’s cancer cells spread?
A)
Hematologic spread
B) Lymphatic circulation
C)
Invasion
D) Angiogenesis
Ans: B
Feedback:
Lymph and blood are key mechanisms by
which cancer cells spread. Lymphatic spread (the transport of tumor
cells through the lymphatic circulation) is the most common mechanism
of metastasis.
23. The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of
cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant
melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer
cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following
aspects? Select all that apply.
A) Rate of growth
B) Ability
to cause death
C) Size of cells
D) Cell contents
E)
Ability to spread
Ans: A, B, E
Feedback:
Benign and malignant cells differ
in many cellular growth characteristics, including the method and rate
of growth, ability to metastasize or spread, general effects,
destruction of tissue, and ability to cause death. Cells come in many
sizes, both benign and malignant. Cell contents are basically the
same, but they behave differently.
24. A 54-year-old has a diagnosis of breast cancer and is tearfully
discussing her diagnosis with the nurse. The patient states, “They
tell me my cancer is malignant, while my coworker’s breast tumor was
benign. I just don’t understand at all.” When preparing a response to
this patient, the nurse should be cognizant of what characteristic
that distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same
tissue type?
A) Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells
B)
Different proteins in the cell membrane
C) Differing size of the
cells
D) Different molecular structure in the cells
Ans: B
Feedback:
The cell membrane of malignant cells
also contains proteins called tumor-specific antigens (e.g.,
carcinoembryonic antigen [CEA] and prostate-specific antigen [PSA]),
which develop over time as the cells become less differentiated
(mature). These proteins distinguish malignant cells from benign cells
of the same tissue type.
25. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and
radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one
means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one
place to another?
A) Adhering to primary tumor cells
B)
Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
C) Phagocytizing
healthy cells
D) Invading healthy host tissues
Ans: D
Feedback:
Invasion, which refers to the growth of
the primary tumor into the surrounding host tissues, occurs in several
ways. Malignant cells are less likely to adhere than are normal cells.
Malignant cells do not cause healthy cells to mutate. Malignant cells
do not eat other cells.
26. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult
resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During
the nurse’s interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks
around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does
this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
A) Malignant
melanoma
B) Brain cancer
C) Breast cancer
D) Esophageal
cancer
E) Liver cancer
Ans: C, D, E
Feedback:
Dietary substances that appear to
increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or
smoked meats, nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, and red and
processed meats. Alcohol increases the risk of cancers of the mouth,
pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, colorectum, and breast.
27. The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and
sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to
determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back
positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast
cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?
A)
“Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can provide all the
protection you need against breast cancer.”
B) “Research has
shown that taking the drug tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast
cancer.”
C) “Research has shown that exercising at least 30
minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer.”
D)
“Research has shown that there is little you can do to reduce your
risk of breast cancer if you have a genetic predisposition.”
Ans: B
Feedback:
Large-scale breast cancer prevention
studies supported by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) indicated
that chemoprevention with the medication tamoxifen can reduce the
incidence of breast cancer by 50% in women at high risk for breast
cancer. A healthy diet and regular exercise are important, but not
wholly sufficient preventive measures.
28. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that
is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and
What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but
the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program
is an example of what type of health promotion activity?
A)
Disease prophylaxis
B) Risk reduction
C) Secondary
prevention
D) Tertiary prevention
Ans: C
Feedback:
Secondary prevention involves screening
and early detection activities that seek to identify early stage
cancer in individuals who lack signs and symptoms suggestive of
cancer. Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of
disease through health promotion strategies. Tertiary prevention is
the care and rehabilitation of the patient after having been diagnosed
with cancer.
29. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for
a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon
will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread
to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will
have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago.
What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most
likely undergo?
A) Lymphadenectomy
B) Needle biopsy
C)
Open biopsy
D) Sentinel node biopsy
Ans: D
Feedback:
Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB), also
known as sentinel lymph node mapping, is a minimally invasive surgical
approach that, in some instances, has replaced more invasive lymph
node dissections (lymphadenectomy) and their associated complications
such as lymphedema and delayed healing. SLNB has been widely adopted
for regional lymph node staging in selected cases of melanoma and
breast cancer.
30. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her
stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The
oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the
progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist
offer?
A) Palliative
B) Reconstructive
C)
Salvage
D) Prophylactic
Ans: A
Feedback:
When cure is not possible, the goals of
treatment are to make the patient as comfortable as possible and to
promote quality of life as defined by the patient and his or her
family. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve
complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage,
pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow
curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or
obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an
additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach
to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less
extensive primary approach. Prophylactic surgery involves removing
nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk to develop cancer.
31. The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of
breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has
metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient
struggling to breath and the nurse’s rapid assessment reveals that the
patient’s jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the
development of what oncologic emergency?
A) Increased
intracranial pressure
B) Superior vena cava syndrome
(SVCS)
C) Spinal cord compression
D) Metastatic tumor of the neck
Ans: B
Feedback:
SVCS occurs when there is gradual or
sudden impaired venous drainage giving rise to progressive shortness
of breath (dyspnea), cough, hoarseness, chest pain, and facial
swelling; edema of the neck, arms, hands, and thorax and reported
sensation of skin tightness and difficulty swallowing; as well as
possibly engorged and distended jugular, temporal, and arm veins.
Increased intracranial pressure may be a part of SVCS, but it is not
what is causing the patient’s symptoms. The scenario does not mention
a problem with the patient’s spinal cord. The scenario says that the
cancer has metastasized, but not that it has metastasized to the neck.
32. The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her
home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the
patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that
signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse
teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patient’s risk of
hypercalcemia?
A) Stool softeners are contraindicated.
B)
Laxatives should be taken daily.
C) Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid
daily.
D) Restrict calcium intake.
Ans: C
Feedback:
The nurse should identify patients at
risk for hypercalcemia, assess for signs and symptoms of
hypercalcemia, and educate the patient and family. The nurse should
teach at-risk patients to recognize and report signs and symptoms of
hypercalcemia and encourage patients to consume 2 to 4 L of fluid
daily unless contraindicated by existing renal or cardiac disease.
Also, the nurse should explain the use of dietary and pharmacologic
interventions, such as stool softeners and laxatives for constipation,
and advise patients to maintain nutritional intake without restricting
normal calcium intake.
33. The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology
patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for
non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse’s assessment should include
examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?
A)
Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
B) Syndrome of inappropriate
antiduretic hormone (SIADH)
C) Disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC)
D) Hypercalcemia
Ans: A
Feedback:
TLS is a potentially fatal complication
that occurs spontaneously or more commonly following radiation,
biotherapy, or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or
rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia, lymphoma, and small cell
lung cancer. DIC, SIADH and hypercalcemia are less likely
complications following this treatment and diagnosis.
34. The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to
surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the
patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the
consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments
related to what health problem?
A) Cognitive deficits
B)
Impaired wound healing
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Tumor lysis syndrome
Ans: B
Feedback:
Combining other treatment methods, such
as radiation and chemotherapy, with surgery contributes to
postoperative complications, such as infection, impaired wound
healing, altered pulmonary or renal function, and the development of
deep vein thrombosis.
35. An oncology patient has just returned from the postanesthesia
care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient’s plan of nursing
care should prioritize which of the following?
A) Assess the
patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome.
B) Assess the
patient’s fine motor skills once per shift.
C) Assess the
patient’s wound for dehiscence every 4 hours.
D) Maintain the
patient’s head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times.
Ans: C
Feedback:
Postoperatively, the nurse assesses the
patient’s responses to the surgery and monitors the patient for
possible complications, such as infection, bleeding, thrombophlebitis,
wound dehiscence, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, and organ
dysfunction. Fine motor skills are unlikely to be affected by surgery
and compartment syndrome is a complication of fracture casting, not
abdominal surgery. There is no need to maintain a high head of bed.
36. The hospice nurse has just admitted a new patient to the program.
What principle guides hospice care?
A) Care addresses the needs
of the patient as well as the needs of the family.
B) Care is
focused on the patient centrally and the family peripherally.
C)
The focus of all aspects of care is solely on the patient.
D) The
care team prioritizes the patient’s physical needs and the family is
responsible for the patient’s emotional needs.
Ans: A
Feedback:
The focus of hospice care is on the
family as well as the patient. The family is not solely responsible
for the patient’s emotional well-being
37. A 60-year-old patient with a diagnosis of prostate cancer is
scheduled to have an interstitial implant for high-dose radiation
(HDR). What safety measure should the nurse include in this patient’s
subsequent plan of care?
A) Limit the time that visitors spend at
the patient’s bedside.
B) Teach the patient to perform all
aspects of basic care independently.
C) Assign male nurses to the
patient’s care whenever possible.
D) Situate the patient in a
shared room with other patients receiving brachytherapy.
Ans: A
Feedback:
To limit radiation exposure, visitors
should generally not spend more than 30 minutes with the patient.
Pregnant nurses or visitors should not be near the patient, but there
is no reason to limit care to nurses who are male. All necessary care
should be provided to the patient and a single room should be used.
38. An oncology patient has begun to experience skin reactions to
radiation therapy, prompting the nurse to make the diagnosis Impaired
Skin Integrity: erythematous reaction to radiation therapy. What
intervention best addresses this nursing diagnosis?
A) Apply an
ice pack or heating pad PRN to relieve pain and pruritis
B) Avoid
skin contact with water whenever possible
C) Apply phototherapy
PRN
D) Avoid rubbing or scratching the affected area
Ans: D
Feedback:
Rubbing and or scratching will lead to
additional skin irritation, damage, and increased risk of infection.
Extremes of hot, cold, and light should be avoided. No need to avoid
contact with water.
39. A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to
tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes
the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse
identify as best meeting this patient’s nutritional needs?
A)
Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV
B) TPN
administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter
C)
Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds
D)
Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion
Ans: B
Feedback:
If malabsorption is severe, or the
cancer involves the upper GI tract, parenteral nutrition may be
necessary. TPN is administered by way of a central line, not a
peripheral IV. An NG would be contraindicated for this patient.
Long-term NPO status would result in malnutrition.
40. An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who
has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments.
As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic
response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a
therapeutic effect by what means?
A) Promoting the synthesis and
release of leukocytes
B) Focusing the patient’s immune system
exclusively on the tumor
C) Potentiating the effects of
chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy
D) Altering the
immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient
Ans: D
Feedback:
BRFs alter the immunologic relationship
between the tumor and the cancer patient (host) to provide a
therapeutic benefit. They do not necessarily increase white cell
production or focus the immune system solely on the tumor. BRFs do not
potentiate radiotherapy and chemotherapy.