Queen's Notecard Set For Sharma Chapter 38 Flashcards


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created 9 years ago by Dezheng_Zhao
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This set was made specifically to appease the Queen and allow her to get a good night's sleep. Don't ask me how this works, but it does.
updated 9 years ago by Dezheng_Zhao
Grade levels:
Preschool
Subjects:
biology as well as the anatomy of a horse
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1

1) The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have

A) a complete gut.

B) bilateral symmetry.

C) radial symmetry.

D) a closed circulatory system.

E) excitable membranes.

C

2

Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in

  1. A) Hydra
  2. B) cnidarians.
  3. C) Planaria
  4. D) sea stars.
  5. E) invertebrate animals with radial symmetry.

C

3

Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.

A) astrocytes—metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness

B) oligodendrocytes—produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system

C) microglia—produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the central nervous system

D) radial glia—the source of immunoprotection against pathogens.

E) Schwann cells—provide nutritional support to nonmyelinated neurons

A

4

The cerebrospinal fluid is

A) a filtrate of the blood.

B) a secretion of glial cells.

C) a secretion of interneurons.

D) cytosol secreted from ependymal cells.

E) secreted by the hypothalamus.

A

5

The blood-brain barrier

A) is formed by tight junctions.

B) is formed by oligodendrocytes.

C) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.

D) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.

E) provides support to the brain tissue.

A

6

Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in

A) the gray matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord.

B) the white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.

C) the gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.

D) the white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord.

E) all areas of the brain and spinal cord.

D

7

Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as all of the following except

A) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain.

B) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain.

C) formed from layers of connective tissue.

D) functioning to cushion the brain.

E) filling cavities in the brain called ventricles.

C

8

The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are the

A) motor and sensory systems.

B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

C) presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.

D) forebrain and hindbrain.

E) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

B

9

Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system.

A) sympathetic

B) somatic

C) central

D) visceral

E) parasympathetic

A

10

Exercise and emergency reactions include

A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system.

B) increased activity in the sympathetic division and decreased activity in the parasympathetic division.

C) decreased activity in the sympathetic division and increased activity in the parasympathetic division.

D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system.

E) reduced heart rate and blood pressure.

B

11

The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with

A) resting and digesting.

B) release of epinephrine into the blood.

C) increased metabolic rate.

D) fight-or-flight responses.

E) intensive aerobic exercise.

A

12

In a cephalized invertebrate, the system that transmits "efferent" impulses from the anterior ganglion to distal segments is the

A) central nervous system.

B) peripheral nervous system.

C) autonomic nervous system.

D) parasympathetic nervous system.

E) sympathetic nervous system.

B

13

Afferent neuronal systems include the

A) sensory systems.

B) peripheral nervous system.

C) autonomic nervous system.

D) parasympathetic nervous system.

E) sympathetic nervous system.

A

14

Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state with

A) increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.

B) decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.

C) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.

D) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.

E) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, decreased activity in the parasympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the enteric nervous system.

C

15

The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of the smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the

A) central nervous system.

B) motor system.

C) autonomic nervous system.

D) parasympathetic nervous system.

E) sympathetic nervous system.

C

16

The 11 pairs of appendages projecting from the rostral area of star-nosed moles are

A) chemosensory structures.

B) tactile structures.

C) olfactory structures.

D) highly sensitive photoreceptors.

E) gustatory structures.

B

17

Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and behavior resides in the

A) pituitary gland.

B) hypothalamus.

C) cerebrum.

D) cerebellum.

E) thalamus.

B

18

The endogenous nature of biological rhythms is based on the observation that animals isolated from light and dark cues

A) continue to have cycles of exactly 24 hours in duration.

B) continue to have cycles of approximately 24 hours in duration–some more rapid, some slower.

C) synchronize activity with whatever lighting cycle is imposed on them.

D) cease having any rhythms.

E) are independent of any genetic determinants.

B

19

The bottlenose dolphin breathes air but can sleep in the ocean because it

A) ceases breathing while sleeping and remains underwater.

B) sleeps for only 30 minutes at a time, the maximum interval for which it can cease breathing.

C) fills its swim bladder with air to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water while it sleeps.

D) moves to shallow water to sleep, so it does not need to swim to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water.

E) alternates which half of its brain is asleep and which half is awake.

E

20

The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal

A) develops as the neural tube differentiates.

B) develops from the midbrain.

C) is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates.

D) gives rise to the cerebrum.

E) divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

D

21

Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity of the

A) corpus callosum.

B) medulla oblongata.

C) thalamus.

D) pituitary.

E) cerebellum.

B

22

The unconscious control of respiration and circulation is associated with the

A) thalamus.

B) cerebellum.

C) medulla oblongata.

D) corpus callosum.

E) cerebrum.

C

23

Which of the following structures are correctly paired?

A) forebrain and medulla oblongata

B) forebrain and cerebellum

C) midbrain and cerebrum

D) hindbrain and cerebellum

E) brainstem and anterior pituitary gland

D

24

Hormones that are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the

A) cerebrum.

B) cerebellum.

C) thalamus.

D) hypothalamus.

E) medulla oblongata.

D

25

he coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the

A) cerebrum.

B) cerebellum.

C) thalamus.

D) hypothalamus.

E) medulla oblongata.

B

26

The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the

A) cerebrum.

B) cerebellum.

C) thalamus.

D) hypothalamus.

E) medulla oblongata.

D

27

The regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems are found in the

A) cerebrum.

B) cerebellum.

C) thalamus.

D) hypothalamus.

E) medulla oblongata.

E

28

Food and water appetites are under the regulatory influence of the

A) cerebrum.

B) cerebellum.

C) thalamus.

D) hypothalamus.

E) medulla oblongata.

D

29

The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the

A) thalamus.

B) hypothalamus.

C) epithalamus.

D) amygdala.

E) Broca's area.

B

30

Calculation, contemplation, and cognition are human activities associated with increased activity in the

A) pituitary gland.

B) hypothalamus.

C) cerebrum.

D) cerebellum.

E) spinal cord.

C

31

An organism that lacks integration centers

A) cannot receive stimuli.

B) will not have a nervous system.

C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.

D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.

C

32

The motor cortex is part of the

A) cerebrum.

B) cerebellum.

C) spinal cord.

D) midbrain.

E) medulla oblongata.

A

33

In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very convoluted neocortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because they have

A) a more advanced cerebellum.

B) a cerebellum with several flat layers.

C) a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei.

D) microvilli to increase the brain's surface area.

C

34

Wernicke's and Broca's regions of the brain affect

A) olfaction.

B) vision.

C) speech.

D) memory.

E) hearing.

C

35

Which of the following shows a brain structure correctly paired with one of its primary functions?

A) frontal lobe—decision making

B) occipital lobe—control of skeletal muscles

C) temporal lobe—visual processing

D) cerebellum—language comprehension

E) occipital lobe—speech production

A

36

If you were writing an essay, the part of your brain that would be actively involved in this task is

A) the temporal and frontal lobes.

B) the parietal lobe.

C) Broca's area.

D) Wernicke's area.

E) the occipital lobe.

A

37

Our understanding of mental illness has been most advanced by discoveries involving the

A) degree of convolutions in the brain's surface.

B) evolution of the telencephalon.

C) sequence of developmental specialization.

D) chemicals involved in brain communications.

E) nature of the blood-brain barrier.

D

38

Wernicke's area

A) is active when speech is heard and comprehended.

B) is active during the generation of speech.

C) coordinates the response to olfactory sensation.

D) is active when you are reading silently.

E) is found on the left side of the brain.

A

39

Failure of an embryonic neuron to establish a synaptic connection to another cell

A) converts that neuron to an ependymal cell.

B) causes the neuron to migrate to another part of the brain.

C) converts that neuron to a glial cell.

D) leads to Alzheimer's disease.

E) results in the apoptosis of that neuron.

E

40

Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the

A) brainstem.

B) medulla.

C) hypothalamus.

D) hippocampus.

E) cranial nerves.

D

41

Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the

A) thalamus.

B) hypothalamus.

C) hippocampus.

D) somatosensory cortex.

E) primary motor cortex.

C

42

When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe he experienced

A) loss of the ability to reason.

B) loss of all short-term memory.

C) greatly altered emotional responses.

D) loss of all long-term memory.

E) loss of his sense of balance.

C

43

An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair the function of the

A) primary visual cortex.

B) thalamus.

C) optic chiasma.

D) sense of taste.

E) sense of touch.

A

44

A ligand for the umami receptor in the sense of taste is

A) glucose.

B) sodium ions.

C) potassium ions.

D) hydrogen ions.

E) monosodium glutamate.

E

45

The olfactory bulbs are located in the

A) nasal cavity.

B) anterior pituitary gland.

C) posterior pituitary gland.

D) brain.

E) brainstem.

D

46

The correct sequence of sensory processing is

A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception.

B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.

C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation.

D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation.

E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction.

B

47

Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's capsaicin-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of

A) cold temperature.

B) hot temperature.

C) tactile stimulus.

D) odor of pepper.

E) deep pressure.

B

48

Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's menthol-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of

A) cold temperature.

B) hot temperature.

C) tactile stimulus.

D) odor of pepper.

E) deep pressure.

A

49

Tastes and smells are distinct kinds of environmental information in that

A) neural projections from taste receptors reach different parts of the brain than the neural projections from olfactory receptors.

B) the single area of the cerebral cortex that receives smell and taste signals can distinguish tastes and smells by the pattern of action potentials received.

C) tastant molecules are airborne, whereas odorant molecules are dissolved in fluids.

D) distinguishing tastant molecules requires learning, whereas smell discrimination is an innate process.

E) odorants bind to receptor proteins, but none of the tastant stimuli will bind to receptors.

A

50

Stimuli alter the activity of excitable sensory cells via

A) integration.

B) transmission.

C) transduction.

D) transcription.

E) amplification.

C

51

Choose the correct sequence of the following events leading to the sensory processing of a stimulus.

1) transmission

2) transduction

3) integration

4) amplification

A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4

B) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3

C) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3

D) 3 → 1 → 2 → 4

E) 3 → 1 → 4 → 2

C

52

Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to

A) sensory adaptation.

B) accommodation.

C) the increase of transduction.

D) reduced motor unit recruitment.

E) reduced receptor amplification.

A

53

A given photon of light may trigger an action potential with thousands of times more energy because the signal strength is magnified by

A) the receptor.

B) a G protein.

C) an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.

D) sensory adaptation.

E) triggering several receptors at once.

C

54

The generation of action potentials in olfactory neurons initiated by odors drawn into the nasal cavity is an example of

A) perception.

B) sensory transduction.

C) sensory adaptation.

D) habituation.

E) lateral inhibition.

B

55

Umami perception would be stimulated by

A) sugar water.

B) chocolate milk.

C) a savory and rich cheese.

D) acidic orange juice.

E) salt water.

C

56

Proteins coded by a very large family of related genes are active in the sensory transduction of

A) gustatory stimuli.

B) olfactory stimuli.

C) visual stimuli.

D) auditory stimuli.

E) stimuli related to the position of the head.

B

57

Statocysts contain cells that are

A) mechanoreceptors used to detect orientation relative to gravity.

B) chemoreceptors used in selecting migration routes.

C) photoreceptors used in setting biological rhythms.

D) thermoreceptors used in prey detection.

E) chemoreceptors used in acid-base balance.

A

58

An earthworm without a statocyst would not be able to

A) move.

B) sense light.

C) hear.

D) orient with respect to gravity.

E) respond to touch.

D

59

The cellular membrane across which ion flow varies during auditory transduction is the

A) tectorial membrane.

B) tympanic membrane.

C) round-window membrane.

D) hair cell membrane.

E) basilar membrane.

D

60

Sound waves arriving at a listener first strike the

A) tectorial membrane.

B) tympanic membrane.

C) round-window membrane.

D) hair cell membrane.

E) basilar membrane.

B

61

The pathway leading to the perception of sound by mammals begins with the

A) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the basilar membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane.

B) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the tympanic membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane.

C) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the tectorial membrane, coming in contact with the basilar membrane.

D) hair cells of the organ of Corti coming in contact with the tectorial membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window.

E) hair cells on the tympanic membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window.

A

62

The cochlea is an organ of auditory transduction that contains

A) fluid and cells that can undergo mechanosensory transduction.

B) air and cells that produce wax.

C) air and small bones that vibrate in response to sound waves.

D) fluid with stacks of chemosensory cells.

E) air and statocysts activated by movement.

A

63

Dizziness is a perceived sensation that can occur when

A) the hair cells in the cochlea move more than their normal limits.

B) moving fluid in the semicircular canals encounters a stationary cupula.

C) rods and cones provide information that does not correspond with information received by cochlear hair cells.

D) the basilar membrane makes physical contact with the tectorial membrane.

E) the utricle is horizontal but the saccule is vertical.

B

64

he perceived pitch of a sound depends on

A) which part of the tympanic membrane is being vibrated by sound waves.

B) which part of the oval window produces waves in the cochlear fluid.

C) which region of the basilar membrane was set in motion.

D) whether or not the sound moves the incus, malleus, and stapes.

E) the listener having had training in music.

C

65

The sand grains or other dense materials resting on mechanoreceptors used by most invertebrates to sense gravity are called

A) cochlea.

B) statoliths.

C) stapes.

D) pinnae.

E) antennae.

B

66

It can be very difficult to select an angle for sneaking up to a grasshopper to catch it because grasshoppers have

A) excellent hearing for detecting predators.

B) compound eyes with multiple ommatidia.

C) eyes with multiple fovea.

D) a camera-like eye with multiple fovea.

E) binocular vision.

B

67

Sensory transduction of light/dark information in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by

A) ganglion cells.

B) amacrine cells.

C) bipolar cells.

D) horizontal cells.

E) rods and cones.

E

68

Rods exposed to light will

A) depolarize due to the opening of sodium channels.

B) hyperpolarize due to the closing of sodium channels.

C) depolarize due to the opening of potassium channels.

D) hyperpolarize due to the closing of potassium channels.

E) fire one action potential for each photon received.

B

69

A rod exposed to light will

A) fire action potentials that will increase its release of glutamate.

B) undergo a graded depolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.

C) undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.

D) undergo a graded depolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.

E) undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.

E

70

In the human retina

A) cone cells can detect color, but rod cells cannot.

B) cone cells are more sensitive than rod cells to light.

C) cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment.

D) rod cells are most highly concentrated in the center of the retina.

E) rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells.

A

71

Experiments with genetically altered mice showed that the mice would consume abnormally high amounts of bitter-tasting compounds in water after their

A) hormone receptors for digestive hormones were reduced or eliminated, showing that bitter tastes are reinforced by digestive responses.

B) salt-taste cells were altered to express receptors for bitter tastants, suggesting that animals have unregulated salt appetites.

C) visual sense was reduced or eliminated, suggesting that mice learn visual cues about bitter tastes.

D) olfactory sense was reduced or eliminated, suggesting that mice learn odor cues about bitter tastes.

E) sweet-taste cells were altered to express receptors for bitter tastants, suggesting that the sensation of taste depends only on which taste cell is stimulated.

E

72

Patients with damage to Wernicke’s area have difficulty

A) coordinating limb movement.

B) generating speech.

C) recognizing faces.

D) understanding language.

E) experiencing emotion.

D

73

The cerebral cortex does not play a major role in

A) short-term memory.

B) long-term memory.

C) circadian rhythm.

D) foot-tapping rhythm.

E) breath holding.

C

74

The middle ear converts

A) air pressure waves to fluid pressure waves.

B) fluid pressure waves to air pressure waves.

C) air pressure waves to nerve impulses.

D) fluid pressure waves to nerve impulses.

E) pressure waves to hair cell movements.

A

75

If the following events are arranged in the order in which they occur for an animal hiding in response to seeing a predator, which is the fourth event in the series?

A) signaling by an afferent PNS neuron

B) signaling by an efferent PNS neuron

C) information processing in the CNS

D) activation of a sensory receptor

E) activation of a motor system

B

76

Injury to just the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt

A) short-term memory.

B) coordination during locomotion.

C) executive functions, such as decision making.

D) sorting of sensory information.

E) regulation of body temperature.

E

77

Which sensory distinction is not encoded by a difference in which axon transfers the information to the brain?

A) white and red

B) red and green

C) loud and faint

D) salty and sweet

E) spicy and cool

C

78

Although some sharks close their eyes just before they bite, their bites are on target. Researchers have noted that sharks often misdirect their bites at metal objects and that they can find batteries buried under sand. This evidence suggests that sharks keep track of their prey during the split second before they bite in the same way that

A) a rattlesnake finds a mouse in its burrow.

B) an insect avoids being stepped on.

C) a star-nosed mole locates its prey in tunnels.

D) a platypus locates its prey in a muddy river.

E) a flatworm avoids light places.

D