Exam 3 Flashcards

The initial work on anaphylaxis was done by

Watson and Crick.
Pasteur.
Fleming.
Richet and Portier.

If the immune system responds inadequately to antigenic stimulation, this is termed

hypersensitivity.
autoimmunity.
cell-mediated immunity.
immunodeficiency.

The immunoglobulin associated with Type I hypersensitivity is

IgG.
IgA.
IgM.
IgE.
IgD.

IgE molecules involved in hypersensitivity reactions have become attached to

neutrophils.
mast cells.
B cells.
macrophages.
mast cells AND B cells.

To produce an allergic reaction in Type I hypersensitivity, the antigen

must bind to mast cells.
must bind to free IgE molecules.
must bind to IgE on mast cells.
must crosslink two IgE molecules on mast cells.

During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, the mast cells

become phagocytic.
release IgE antibodies.
degranulate.
immediately release histamine.
degranulate AND immediately release histamine.

Urticaria is characterized by

living in Utica.
wheal and flare.
asthma.
inflammation.

Generalized anaphylaxis is generally characterized by

wheal and flare.
inflammation.
shock.
rash.

Most cases of generalized anaphylaxis are a result of

fire ant stings.
aspirin.
bananas.
peanuts, bee stings or penicillin injections.

Desensitization

stimulates an increase in IgG.
reduces the number of mast cells.
increases the number of basophil cells.
is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions.
stimulates an increase in IgG AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions.

The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and T suppressor cells and a decrease in IgE is known as

desensitization.
immunity.
sensitization.
exposure.
anaphylaxis.

Recombinant human monoclonal antibody (rhuMAb)

appears promising as a treatment for asthma.
decreases the levels of IgG.
uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.
promotes crosslinking between IgE molecules on the mast cells.
appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.

The type of hypersensitivity expressed with the lysing of red blood cells is

Type I.
Type II.
Type III.
Type IV.
Type V.

A transfusion reaction primarily involves

leukocytes.
phagocytes.
platelets.
erythrocytes.

The natural antibodies in serum that react with A or B polysaccharide antigens are mostly of the class

IgG.
IgE.
IgM.
IgD.
IgA.

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

are considered natural antibodies.
are present at birth.
are typically IgM.
easily cross the placenta.
are considered natural antibodies AND are typically IgM.

Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen, both

result in destruction of red blood cells.
utilize complement to destroy red blood cells.
utilize antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells.
result in destruction of only leukocytes.

Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called

natural.
acquired.
injurious.
active.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

may not manifest itself fully until after birth.
is due to the action of IgM.
is due to the action of IgE.
is a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
may not manifest itself fully until after birth AND is due to the action of IgE.

The cell type responsible for Type II hypersensitivity is the

mast cell.
B cell.
macrophage.
platelet.
neutrophils.

Immune complexes

consist of antigen-antibody bound together.
are usually cleared rapidly from the body.
bind to Fc receptors on cells.
are involved in Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
All of the choices are correct.

Localized injury or death of tissue resulting from repeated injections of an antigen into a person with high levels of circulating specific antibody is known as

farmer's lung.
German measles.
serum sickness.
an Arthus reaction.

Arthus reactions and serum sickness are examples of _________ hypersensitivity.

type I
type II
type III
type IV
type V

Which of the following disease states is not among those caused by immune complexes?

farmer's lung
serum sickness
hay fever
glomerulonephritis

Delayed hypersensitivity is also known as ___________ hypersensitivity.

type I
type II
type III
type IV
type V

Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves

erythrocytes.
B cells.
T cells.
mast cells.

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within

minutes.
hours.
12 hours.
2-3 days.

Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis?

poison ivy
latex
tuberculin skin test
hay fever
poison ivy, latex AND tuberculin skin test

The redness and induration found after a tuberculin skin test

involve the action of
sensitized T cells.
IgE.
complement.
basophil cells.

Patch tests are used to detect

hives.
serum sickness.
immune complexes.
contact hypersensitivity.

Which of the following have been an effective immunosuppressant for use in transplantation?

amphotericin B and cyclosporin A
FK506 and cephalosporin
cyclosporin A and tacrolimus
cephalosporin and amphotericin B
FK506 and amphotericin B

Graft-versus-host disease is primarily a

Type I reaction.
Type II reaction.
Type III reaction.
Type IV reaction.
Type V reaction.

The tissue antigens most involved in graft rejection involve

Rh.
ABO.
MHC.
MLB.

Killing of graft cells occurs through a complex series of mechanisms including

sensitized T cytotoxic cells.
NK cells.
erythrocytic cells.
basophilic cells.
sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells.

Cyclosporin A

is a relatively general immunosuppressive agent.
suppresses T cell proliferation.
activates macrophages.
stimulates antibody production.
is a relatively general immunosuppressive agent AND suppresses T cell proliferation.

Allografts

are normally rejected within hours.
are normally rejected within 10-14 days.
are grafts between non-identical members of the same species.
would include the fetus.
are normally rejected within 10-14 days, are grafts between non-identical members of the same species AND would include the fetus.

Immunologically privileged sites include the

brain.
eyes.
testes.
kidney.
brain, eyes AND testes.

The fetus is not rejected because

it is too small.
it is in an immunologically privileged site.
the father is immunosuppressed.
it has no antigens.
it is in an immunologically privileged site AND the father is immunosuppressed.

Which of the following primary immunodeficiencies is the most common?

severe combined immunodeficiency
selective IgA deficiency
agammaglobulinemia
Di George's syndrome

If the thymus fails to develop

functional T cells are absent.
functional B cells are absent.
Di George's syndrome exists.
complement deficiencies exist.
functional T cells are absent AND Di George's syndrome exists.

If a patient lacks B cells, the resulting disease is

SCID.
AIDS.
Di George's syndrome.
agammaglobulinemia.

Defects in bone marrow stem cells result in a condition known as

SCID.
AIDS.
Di George's syndrome.
Chediak-Higashi disease.

A defect in which of the following systems leads to granulomatous disease?

lymphatic system
circulatory system
oxidase system
Golgi system

The condition that results from ineffective digestion after phagocytosis is

AIDS.
Chediak-Higashi disease.
Di George's syndrome.
agammaglobulinemia.

Secondary immunodeficiency disease is not the result of

genetic defects.
malignancies.
advanced age.
malnutrition.

HIV

appears to cause AIDS.
is an RNA virus.
destroys T helper cells.
makes the patient vulnerable to infections, especially those caused by opportunists.
All of the choices are correct.

If the body recognizes parts of itself as being foreign, this is termed

immunodeficiency disease.
agammaglobulinemia.
autoimmune disease.
AIDS.

Myasthenia gravis is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves

sensitized T cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
antibodies.
IgD.

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of an

autoimmune disease that involves
sensitized T cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
antibodies.
IgD.

Stem cells

have an almost unlimited capacity to divide.
can differentiate into different tissues.
may be used to test the effects of drugs on human cells.
come from fetal material.
All of the above

First exposure to an allergen results in a violent hypersensitivity reaction.

True
False

Anaphylaxis is the name given to allergic reactions caused by IgE-mediated release of mast cell granules.

True
False

Generalized anaphylaxis may be quickly controlled with the use of antihistamines.

True
False

Allergic rhinitis and hives may both respond to antihistamines.

True
False

Type O blood is missing both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

True
False

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are natural antibodies and are present at birth.

True
False

Mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen results in lysis of red blood cells by complement.

True
False

Anti-Rh antibodies may not cross the placenta.

True
False

MHC plays a pivotal role in transplant rejection.

True
False

A lack of T cells makes one more vulnerable to intracellular parasites.

True
False

The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by

Fracastorius.
Pasteur.
Thucydides.
Leeuwenhoek.

The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by
Fracastorius.
Pasteur.
Koch.
Leeuwenhoek.

The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as

Pasteur's postulates.
Lister's aseptics.
Linnaeus taxonomics.
Koch's postulates.

The interaction of all organisms within a biological community is called a(n)

dialogue.
chat room.
ecosystem.
relationship.

The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called

abnormal flora.
transient flora.
variant flora.
normal flora.

The microorganisms that are occasionally found in or on the body are called

abnormal flora.
transient flora.
variant flora.
normal flora.

Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed

mutualism.
parasitism.
symbiosis.
transient flora.

The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

The resident microbial population of the human fetus is

zero.
sparse.
complex.
symbiotic.

Which of the following is true about the role normal flora plays in maintaining host health?

They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader.
They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins.
They produce antimicrobial substances.
They stimulate the immune system.
All of the choices are true.

Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibit the growth of Candida albicans?

E. coli.
Lactobacillus species.
Staphylococci species.
Propionibacterium species.

The composition of the normal flora may be affected by

hormonal changes.
use of antibiotics.
obesity level.
diet.
All of the choices are correct.

The "hygiene hypothesis" proposes that

lack of exposure to microbes can promote development of allergies.
cleanliness truly is next to godliness.
hand washing is the best preventative measure against infection.
the immune system develops best in a clean environment.

The infectious dose

is the same for all microorganisms.
may be 10-100 cells for Salmonella.
is expressed as ID50.
is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.
is expressed as ID50 AND is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.

The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the

infectious dose.
fatal number.
minimum lethal dose.
pathogenic number.

A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n)

avirulent infection.
colony.
commensal.
pathogen.

Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens

are usually saprophytes.
take advantage of special circumstances.
are usually mutualistic.
always cause disease.

The suffix -emia means in the

body.
lymph.
interstitial tissue.
blood.

Attributes

of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called
disease factors.
colonization factors.
mutualistic.
virulence factors.

Avirulent organisms are

more likely to cause disease.
more likely to cause severe disease.
unable to cause disease.
pathogenic.

Which of the following may be considered virulence factor(s)?

adhesins
capsules
endotoxins
proteases
All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host?

plasmids
pili
flagella
capsules

Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease?

headache
pain
nausea
fever of 39°C

People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any overt symptoms of illness are called

primary infections.
secondary infections.
mutualists.
carriers.

The spread of toxin via circulation is called

septicemia.
bacteremia.
sepsis.
toxemia.

A more modern equivalent to Koch's Postulates is termed

Pasteur's Systematics.
Hoch's Postulates.
Atomic Theory.
Protein Theory.
Molecular Postulates.

Species of both Shigella and Streptococcus

invade host cells.
produce a toxin.
cause ergot poisoning.
are delivered via flea bites.
invade host cells AND produce a toxin.

Which of the following causes a foodborne intoxication?

Staphylococcus aureus
E. coli O157:H7
Clostridium botulinum
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7 AND Clostridium botulinum

Adhesins are

involved in the first step of the infectious process.
often found at the tip of pili.
found in flagella.
endotoxins.
involved in the first step of the infectious process AND often found at the tip of pili.

The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must

invade host tissues.
attach to host cells.
evade phagocytes.
produce toxins.

Which of the following factors is not considered important for the establishment of an infection?

adherence
dose
toxicity
virulence factors

Typically, adhesins

are found on pili.
help bacteria attach to host cells.
are proteins.
are found on host cells.
are found on pili, help bacteria attach to host cells AND are proteins.

The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the

secretion of exotoxins.
presence of endotoxins.
action of IL-2.
lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be

production of a comet's tail.
protease production.
inhibition of MHC Class I antigen production.
changing the pilus type.
production of a comet's tail AND protease production.

Colonization of the body is inhibited by

the shedding of skin cells.
the movement of mucus by cilia.
peristalsis.
the flushing action of the urinary tract.
All of the choices are correct.

The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is termed

exocytosis.
pinocytosis.
endocytosis.
phagosome fusion.

Bacteria that resist killing by complement proteins are termed

carriers.
serum resistant.
balanced pathogens.
mutualistic.
carriers AND serum resistant.

C5a peptidase

is a virulence factor.
synthesizes C5a.
is produced by the host cell in response to infection.
is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.
is a virulence factor AND is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by

preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome.
lysing the phagosome.
producing comet tails.
preventing fusion of two phagosomes.
preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome.

The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a

protein.
nucleic acid.
lipid.
lipopolysaccharide.

The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a

protein.
carbohydrate.
lipid.
lipopolysaccharide.

Which is true about superantigens?

They are a type of exotoxin.
They bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.
They enhance specific antibody production.
They are processed intracellularly.
They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.

Which is true about botox?

It is an endotoxin.
It is produced by S. aureus.
It may cause botulism.
It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.
It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins?

Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule.
The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came.
The lipid A is immunogenic.
They are proteins.
The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came AND they are proteins.

Which is/are true of viruses?

They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein.
They may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein.
They may prevent cell suicide.
They may bind to MHC class II antigens.
They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein, they may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein AND they may prevent cell suicide

Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are

cold sores.
genital herpes.
typhus.
shingles.
All of the choices are correct.

The damage caused by parasites may be due to

competition for nutrients.
the physical blocking of organs.
the direct digestion of host tissue.
the host's immune response.
All of the choices are correct.

The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts.

True
False

A human fetus has no resident microbial population.

True
False

Infection always leads to disease.

True
False

A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.

True
False

Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media.

True
False

During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.

True
False

The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.

True
False

A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.

True
False

High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.

True
False

Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.

True
False

One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was

Koch.
Hooke.
Fleming.
Ehrlich.

The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called

penicillin.
sulfa.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

The first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was

penicillin.
sulfa.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce

penicillin.
sulfanilamide.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

The use of Salvarsan and Prontosil to treat microbial infections were early examples of

antibiotics.
toxins.
inhibitors.
chemotherapy.

Penicillin was discovered by

Koch.
Hooke.
Fleming.
Ehrlich.

The most effective form of penicillin is

A.
B.
E.
G.

One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was

penicillin.
ampicillin.
Salvarsan.
streptomycin.

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics?

Penicillium
Streptomyces
Bacillus
All of the choices are correct.
Penicillium AND Streptomyces

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called

anti-metabolic.
catabolic.
synthetic.
semi-synthetic.

The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called

insecticides.
biocides.
antiseptics.
antibiotics.

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the

selective toxicity.
biocide index.
biostatic index.
therapeutic index.

A high therapeutic index is

more toxic to the patient.
less toxic to the patient.
has no effect on the patient.
has no effect on the pathogen.

Drugs that are bacteriostatic

kill bacteria.
promote bacterial growth.
inactivate bacterial spores.
inhibit the growth of bacteria.

Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix

-cidal.
-static.
-anti.
-genic.

Antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix

-cidal.
-static.
-anti.
-genic.

Antibiotics that affect various strains of Gram-positive bacteria and various strains of Gram-negative bacteria are called

isolate usable.
stress-induced.
narrow-spectrum.
broad-spectrum.

The rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its

metabolic destructive rate.
half-life.
effective time.
dosage rate.

Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed

narrow-spectrum.
broad-spectrum.
targeted spectrum.

Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called

energetic.
antagonistic.
subtractive.
synergistic.

If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately, they are called

energetic.
antagonistic.
additive.
synergistic.

Antimicrobials may produce

allergic reactions.
toxic effects.
suppression of normal flora.
All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin?

S. aureus
S. epidermidis
M. luteus
Mycoplasma

Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan?

penicillin
cephalosporin
vancomycin
bacitracin
All of the choices are correct.

All members of the penicillin family have

beta-lactam rings.
alpha-lactam rings.
phenolic rings.
sulfanilic rings.

Penicillin-binding proteins

primarily function in the cell to bind to beta-lactam drugs.
are enzymes.
are involved in cell wall synthesis.
inhibit non-growing bacteria.
are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

Beta-lactamases

bind to penicillin-binding proteins.
bind to peptides.
prevent the linking of glycan chains in peptidoglycan.
break the beta-lactam ring.

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are

aminoglycosides.
tetracyclines.
macrolides.
bacitracins.
→ aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides.

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on

peptidoglycan precursors.
penicillin-binding proteins.
ribosomes.
porin proteins.

Which is true of aminoglycosides?

They are bacteriostatic.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
They block peptidoglycan synthesis.
They are bactericidal.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

Fluoroquinolones typically target

ribosomes.
penicillin-binding proteins.
peptidoglycan.
DNA gyrase.

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both

examples of metabolic inhibitors.
folate inhibitors.
protein synthesis inhibitors.
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis.
examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

Folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of

topoisomerases.
proteins.
DNA gyrases.
sulfonamides.
coenzymes.

Sulfonamides are similar in structure to

DNA gyrases.
LPS.
ribosomes.
PABA.

Sulfonamides work as

competitive inhibitors.
noncompetitive inhibitors.
ribosome-binding molecules.
feedback inhibitors.

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n)

antagonistic effect.
synergistic effect.
energetic effect.
subtractive.

Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of

S. aureus.
S. epidermidis.
M. luteus.
M. tuberculosis.

The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the

infectious dose.
lethal dose.
effective dose.
minimum inhibitory concentration.

The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _______ of a specific type of bacteria.

10%
50%
99.9%
100%

The diffusion bioassay

determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial?

MIC
MIB
MLB
Kirby-Bauer test

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced

by the drug's
size.
stability.
concentration.
All of the choices are correct.

A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the

A test.
B test.
C test.
D test.
E test.

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to

drug-inactivating enzymes.
alteration in the target molecule.
decreased uptake of the drug.
increased elimination of the drug.
All of the choices are correct.

The most common method of transfer of antimicrobialresistance is through the use of

viruses.
R plasmids.
introns.
exons.

Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of

Streptococcus.
Staphylococcus.
Mycobacterium.
Pseudomonas.

Antiviral drugs may target

uncoating.
nucleic acid synthesis.
viral assembly.
viral ribosomes.
uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly.

The target of most antifungal drugs is

the ribosome.
nucleus.
cholesterol.
ergosterol.
cholesterol AND ergosterol.

The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.

True
False

Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.

True
False

Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.

True
False

Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.

True
False

Drugs that target peptidoglycan do not affect eukaryotes.

True
False

Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.

True
False

The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.

True
False

Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.

True
False

Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.

True
False

Antifungal drugs usually target the cell membrane.

True
False

Naturally acquired immunity

What does immunization do?

What two subdivisions can natural or artifical immunity be divided into

Active immunity

Passive Immunity

How does passive immunity occur naturally?

What does artifical passive immunity involve?

Attenuated vaccines

What happens when the strain replicates in vaccine recipient (attenuated vaccines)

Anthrax

Advantages of attenuated vaccines

Disadvantages of attentuated vaccines

Attenuated vaccines in use include

Inactivated vaccines

What two categories do inactivated vaccines fall under?

Whole Agents (inactivated vaccines)

Fragments (inactivated vaccines)

Seronegative

Seropositive

Titer

Serum

Plasma

What is used to produce known antibodies?

How are animals used to produce known antibodies?

Quantifying antigen-antibody reactions

What do antigen-antibody complexes form?

Antigen-antibody binding can be seen in what kind of reactions

Precipitation Reactions

How to achieve concentrations in precipiation reactions?

Most widely known immunodiffusion test

Antigen and antibody are placed in seperate wells cut in the gell and they diffuse and meet between the wells what does this form?

Radial immunodiffusion test

How does radial immunodiffusion test go?

Immunoelectrophoresis

What can high levels of certain antibody classes indicate?

Aggulation reactions

Direct agglutination

Indirect agglutination

Using labeled antibodies to detect interactions

Which tests are included in labeled antibody detection?