Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology: Ch 14 Brain & Cranial Nerves Flashcards

1) The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue.

A) 15 percent

B) 25 percent

C) 68 percent

D) 97 percent

E) 35 percent

2) Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains.

1. A) larger
2. B) smaller
3. C) the same size
4. D) very smooth
5. E) more convoluted

3) During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum?

A) telencephalon

B) diencephalon

C) mesencephalon

D) metencephalon

E) myelencephalon

4) Which of these is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain?

1. A) cerebrum
2. B) diencephalon
3. C) prosencephalon
4. D) midbrain
5. E) pons

5) Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem?

A) medulla oblongata

B) pons

C) mesencephalon

D) diencephalon

E) cerebellum

6) The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the

1. A) hypothalamus.
2. B) thalamus.
3. C) brain stem.
4. D) mesencephalon.
5. E) myelencephalon

7) The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the

1. A) medulla oblongata.
2. B) pons.
3. C) mesencephalon.
4. D) diencephalon.
5. E) thalamus.

8) Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the

1. A) medulla oblongata.
2. B) pons.
3. C) mesencephalon.
4. D) diencephalon.
5. E) cerebellum

9) The cerebellum and pons develop from the

1. A) telencephalon.
2. B) diencephalon.
3. C) mesencephalon.
4. D) metencephalon.
5. E) myelencephalon

10) Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the

1. A) medulla oblongata.
2. B) pons.
3. C) midbrain.
4. D) thalamus.
5. E) cerebellum

11) A neural cortex is found on the surface of the

1. A) cerebrum.
2. B) pons.
3. C) thalamus.
4. D) midbrain.

12) As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level become

1. A) more complex.
2. B) simpler.
3. C) better understood.
4. D) more crucial to visceral functions.
5. E) critical to reflexes

13) The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems.

1. A) cerebellum
2. B) medulla oblongata
3. C) cerebrum
4. D) pons
5. E) hypothalamus

14) The thin partition that separates the first and second ventricles is the

1. A) falx cerebri.
2. B) septum pellucidum.
3. C) septum insula.
4. D) interventricular foramina.
5. E) cerebral aqueduct

15) The most obvious feature that one notices about the cerebrum is the

1. A) smoothness of the surface of the cortex.
2. B) extensiveness of the gyri and sulci.
3. C) small size of it compared to other brain areas.
4. D) transverse fissure running through it.
5. E) color of the cerebrum compared to the other brain areas

16) The third and fourth ventricles are linked by a slender canal designated as the

1. A) central canal.
2. B) tentorium cerebelli.
3. C) cerebral aqueduct.
4. D) interventricular foramina.
5. E) pontine canal.

17) The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the

1. A) first.
2. B) second.
3. C) third.
4. D) fourth.
5. E) lateral.

18) Specialized ________ cells form the secretory component of the choroid plexus.

1. A) epididymal
2. B) ependymal
3. C) appended
4. D) astrocytes
5. E) blood

19) The dural sinuses are located in the

1. A) paranasal cavity.
2. B) arachnoid.
3. C) pia mater.
4. D) dural folds.
5. E) tentorium cerebelli

20) What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain?

1. A) pia mater
2. B) arachnoid
3. C) dura mater
4. D) cranial plexus
5. E) choroid plexus

21) The brain requires a substantial blood supply. The vessels that deliver blood to the brain are the

1. A) external carotid arteries.
2. B) facial arteries.
3. C) jugular veins.
4. D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries.
5. E) dural sinuses

22) Which of the following is a property of the blood-brain barrier?

1. A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.
2. B) It is generally permeable to lipid-soluble compounds.
3. C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.
4. D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.
5. E) All of the answers are correct

23) The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the

1. A) dural sinus.
2. B) falx cerebri.
3. C) tentorium cerebelli.
4. D) falx cerebelli.
5. E) choroid plexus

24) Cerebrospinal fluid

1. A) is secreted by ependymal cells.
2. B) is formed by a passive process.
3. C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed.
4. D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma.
5. E) contains blood cells and blood plasma

25) Which statement is true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid of the spinal cord and brain?

1. A) Spinal fluid is secreted both in the brain and in the spinal cord areas.
2. B) There is an epidural space associated with the spinal meninges, but not with the cranial meninges.
3. C) The meninges around the brain are not the same as those around the spinal cord.
4. D) There is a subarachnoid space within the spinal meninges but not the cranial meninges.
5. E) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord.

26) The choroid plexus is composed of

1. A) lymphatic vessels.
2. B) blood vessels.
3. C) nerve fibers.
4. D) ganglia.
5. E) subarachnoid granulations

27) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the

1. A) jugular veins.
2. B) dural drain.
3. C) arachnoid granulations.
4. D) tentorium cerebelli.
5. E) frontal sinus

28) Which of the following help to protect the brain?

1. A) the blood-brain barrier
2. B) the bones of the skull
3. C) the cranial meninges
4. D) the CSF
5. E) All of the answers are correct

29) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows?

1. A) subdural space
2. B) dural sinus
3. C) falx cerebri
4. D) subarachnoid space
5. E) pia mater

30) Ependymal cells work to

1. A) surround the capillaries of the choroid plexus.
2. B) secrete CSF into the ventricles.
3. C) remove waste products from CSF.
4. D) adjust the composition of CSF.
5. E) All of the answers are correct

31) A brain hemorrhage is life-threatening because

1. A) neurological changes will occur.
2. B) some areas of the brain will not be receiving blood.
3. C) the person can lose consciousness.
4. D) the pressure increase within the space can distort and potentially damage brain tissue.
5. E) All of these problems are related to brain hemorrhages

32) Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

1. A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues
2. B) provides buoyant support for the brain
3. C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients
4. D) provides ATP for impulse transmission
5. E) acts as a transport medium for waste products

33) Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid?

1. A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma.
2. B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person.
3. C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord.
4. D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus.
5. E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis

34) The cells that cover the outer surfaces of CNS capillary endothelial cells are the

1. A) blastocytes.
2. B) astrocytes.
3. C) monocytes.
4. D) leukocytes.
5. E) lymphocytes.

35) The layer of the meninges that closely follows every gyrus and sulcus is the

1. A) pia mater.
2. B) dura mater.
3. C) arachnoid membrane.
4. D) neural cortex.
5. E) subarachnoid mater

36) Hydrocephalus, or "water on the brain," may result from

1. A) deficient production of cerebrospinal fluid.
2. B) excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid.
3. C) blockage of circulation of CSF.
4. D) excessive water intake.
5. E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production.

46) The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the

1. A) cerebrum.
2. B) cerebellum.
3. C) diencephalon.
4. D) medulla oblongata.
5. E) heart.

47) The medulla oblongata regulates

1. A) somatic motor contractions.
2. B) food intake.
3. C) auditory reflexes.
4. D) vision and hearing
5. E) blood pressure and respiration

48) The respiratory rhythmicity center is located in the

1. A) pons.
2. B) cerebrum.
3. C) medulla oblongata.
4. D) cerebellum.
5. E) midbrain.

49) Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because

1. A) electrical activity originates within the medulla.
2. B) the vital centers for blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there.
3. C) the blood might not be able to circulated properly around the brain.
4. D) control of body temperature and thermoregulation are its functions.
5. E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla.

50) Jane, a 79-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a tumor in the brain. She has lost some sensory and motor functions associated with the face, like control of facial muscles for emotion and various sensory functions like taste. In addition, she has some hearing loss and balance problems. The location of the tumor is likely to be the

1. A) cerebellum.
2. B) cerebrum.
3. C) medulla.
4. D) thalamus.
5. E) pons.

51) If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected?

1. A) breathing
2. B) control of blood pressure
3. C) coordination
4. D) sleep patterns
5. E) judgment

52) Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the

1. A) cerebrum.
2. B) mesencephalon.
3. C) cerebellum.
4. D) pons.
5. E) medulla oblongata.

53) The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the

1. A) flocculonodular lobe.
2. B) arbor vitae.
3. C) folia.
4. D) vermis.
5. E) pyramid.

54) The white matter of the cerebellum forms the

1. A) flocculonodular lobe.
2. B) arbor vitae.
3. C) folia.
4. D) vermis.
5. E) pyramid.

55) The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the

1. A) pons.
2. B) medulla.
3. C) cerebral cortex.
4. D) cerebellar cortex.
5. E) arbor vitae.

56) The cerebellum can be permanently damaged by stroke or temporarily affected by drugs or alcohol. The resulting disturbance in motor control is known as

1. A) ataxia.
2. B) aphasia.
3. C) dysphagia.
4. D) Parkinson's.
5. E) epilepsy.

57) Stimulation of the reticular activating system results in

1. A) increased consciousness.
2. B) sleep.
3. C) coma.
4. D) decreased cerebral function.
5. E) coughing.

58) The medulla oblongata relays auditory information to the

1. A) substantia nigra.
2. B) red nuclei.
3. C) cerebral peduncles.
4. D) superior colliculi.
5. E) inferior colliculi

59) The structure of the brain that carries ascending sensory information to the thalamus is the

1. A) midbrain.
2. B) cerebral aqueduct.
3. C) 4th ventricle.
4. D) basal ganglion.
5. E) cerebellum

60) Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the

1. A) tegmenta.
2. B) corpora quadrigemina.
3. C) cerebral peduncles.
4. D) superior colliculi.
5. E) inferior colliculi

61) The tectum of the mesencephalon contains the

1. A) substantia nigra.
2. B) red nuclei.
3. C) superior and inferior colliculi.
4. D) cerebral peduncles.
5. E) basal ganglia.

62) The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the

1. A) four cerebral lobes.
2. B) superior and inferior colliculi.
3. C) first four cranial nerves.
4. D) the 4th cranial nerve.
5. E) two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles.

63) The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the mesencephalon. Which nuclei accomplish this?

1. A) substantia nigra
2. B) red nuclei
3. C) tectum
4. D) superior colliculi
5. E) inferior colliculi

64) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with

1. A) control of autonomic function.
2. B) regulation of body temperature.
3. C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.
4. D) conscious control of skeletal muscles.
5. E) control of breathing.

65) Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the

1. A) nucleus gracilis.
2. B) nucleus cuneatus.
3. C) motor cortex.
4. D) substantia nigra.
5. E) red nucleus.

66) The pineal gland is part of the

1. A) hypothalamus.
2. B) diencephalon.
3. C) midbrain.
4. D) mesencephalon.
5. E) 3rd ventricle

67) Which of the following is a property of the mamillary bodies?

1. A) controls reflex eating movements
2. B) processes olfactory information
3. C) located in posterior hypothalamus
4. D) shaped like little breasts
5. E) All of the answers are correct

68) The hypothalamus is a key player in the endocrine system because

1. A) it controls the pituitary gland directly underneath it.
2. B) it communicates with all other endocrine organs of the body.
3. C) it produces enzymes that are involved in the production of hormones.
4. D) its autonomic controls also run all of the endocrine organs.
5. E) None of the answers is correct.

69) Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?

1. A) produces ADH
2. B) controls autonomic centers
3. C) regulates body temperature
4. D) secretes oxytocin
5. E) All of the answers are correct

70) Which of the following is/are true of the epithalamus?

1. A) contains the mammillary body
2. B) forms the roof of the diencephalon
3. C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum
4. D) forms the cerebrum
5. E) creates the lateral ventricles

71) The anterior nuclei of the thalamus

1. A) are part of the limbic system.
2. B) secrete pituitary hormones.
3. C) secrete melatonin.
4. D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve.
5. E) secrete pituitary hormones and melatonin.

72) The medial nuclei of the thalamus

1. A) are part of the limbic system.
2. B) connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe.
3. C) produce the hormone oxytocin.
4. D) process visual information.
5. E) process olfactory information

73) The posterior nuclei of the thalamus includes the

1. A) basal nuclei.
2. B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei.
3. C) mamillary body.
4. D) interthalamic adhesion.
5. E) All of the answers are correct

74) The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the

1. A) pulvinar.
2. B) lateral geniculates.
3. C) medial geniculates.
4. D) supraoptic nuclei.
5. E) paraventricular nuclei

75) Which of the following is a function of the thalamus?

1. A) secrete cerebrospinal fluid
2. B) secrete melatonin
3. C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum
4. D) store memories
5. E) regulate food intake

76) The thalamus is often called the "air traffic controller" of the brain because it

1. A) controls the autonomic functions of the body, such as the fight-or-flight response.
2. B) determines what can enter the brain from the blood.
3. C) controls reflexes.
4. D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area.
5. E) passes motor information on to the cerebellum

77) The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus

1. A) regulate lactation.
2. B) secrete oxytocin.
3. C) control feeding reflexes.
4. D) control heart rate and blood pressure.
5. E) secrete antidiuretic hormone

78) The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex.

1. A) cerebrum
2. B) thalamus
3. C) pons
4. D) medulla oblongata
5. E) cerebellum

79) Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem?

1. A) an intense thirst
2. B) an uncontrolled sex drive
3. C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature
4. D) an insatiable appetite
5. E) production of a large volume of urine

80) Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located?

1. A) prefrontal cortex
2. B) postcentral gyrus
3. C) basal nuclei
4. D) hypothalamus
5. E) reticular formation

81) Which of the following is not a component of the limbic system?

1. A) amygdaloid body
2. B) cingulate gyrus
3. C) globus pallidus
4. D) hippocampus
5. E) fornix

82) Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system?

1. A) contains cerebral and diencephalic components
2. B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather
3. C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon
4. D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brain stem
5. E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory

83) The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories.

1. A) amygdaloid body
2. B) cingulate gyrus
3. C) mamillary bodies
4. D) hippocampus
5. E) fornix

84) A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the

1. A) amygdaloid body.
2. B) cingulate gyrus.
3. C) mamillary bodies.
4. D) hippocampus.
5. E) fornix.

85) Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged?

1. A) the prefrontal lobe
2. B) the general interpretive area
3. C) the limbic system
4. D) the thalamus
5. E) the putamen

86) Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the main symptom of

1. A) Parkinson's disease.
2. B) rabies.
3. C) Alzheimer's disease.
4. D) myasthenia gravis.
5. E) tetanus.

87) The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the

1. A) longitudinal fissure.
2. B) central sulcus.
3. C) transverse fissure.
4. D) parieto-occipital sulcus.
5. E) postcentral sulcus

88) Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are

1. A) fissures.
2. B) sinuses.
3. C) lobes.
4. D) sulci.
5. E) gyri.

89) The cerebral area posterior to the central sulcus is the

1. A) parietal lobe.
2. B) temporal lobe.
3. C) frontal lobe.
4. D) occipital lobe.
5. E) insula.

90) The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is/are the

1. A) parietal lobe.
2. B) temporal lobe.
3. C) frontal lobe.
4. D) occipital lobe.
5. E) parietal and frontal lobes

91) The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the

1. A) parietal lobe.
2. B) temporal lobe.
3. C) frontal lobe.
4. D) occipital lobe.
5. E) insula.

92) The primary motor cortex is the surface of the

1. A) insula.
2. B) precentral gyrus.
3. C) postcentral gyrus.
4. D) arcuate gyrus.
5. E) corpus callosum.

93) The sense of taste projects to the gustatory cortex located in the ________ and ________.

1. A) insula; parietal lobe
2. B) frontal lobe; temporal lobe
3. C) insula; frontal lobe
4. D) precentral gyrus; prefrontal cortex.
5. E) corpus callosum; fornix

94) The corpus callosum is composed of

1. A) arcuate fibers.
2. B) longitudinal fasciculi.
3. C) association fibers.
4. D) commissural fibers.
5. E) projection fibers.

95) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex.

1. A) primary sensory
2. B) primary motor
3. C) visual
4. D) olfactory
5. E) auditory

96) Commissural fibers

1. A) carry pain information to the correct brain structure.
2. B) are divided by the longitudinal fissure.
3. C) link the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon.
4. D) interconnect areas of cerebral cortex.
5. E) cross from one cerebral hemisphere to the other hemisphere

97) The visual cortex is located in the

1. A) frontal lobe.
2. B) parietal lobe.
3. C) temporal lobe.
4. D) occipital lobe.
5. E) insula.

98) The auditory cortex is located in the

1. A) frontal lobe.
2. B) parietal lobe.
3. C) temporal lobe.
4. D) occipital lobe.
5. E) insula.

99) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas.

1. A) commissural
2. B) sensory
3. C) association
4. D) somesthetic
5. E) processing

100) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the

1. A) prefrontal cerebral cortex.
2. B) occipital association cortex.
3. C) reticular formation.
4. D) temporal lobe.
5. E) cerebral ganglia

101) Parkinson's disease is the result of

1. A) inadequate production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei.
2. B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra.
3. C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons.
4. D) hyperactivity of the limbic system.
5. E) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon

102) After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe.

1. A) right frontal
2. B) left frontal
3. C) right temporal
4. D) left temporal
5. E) occipital

103) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the

1. A) prefrontal cortex.
2. B) postcentral gyrus.
3. C) cerebral nuclei.
4. D) limbic system.
5. E) occipital lobe.

104) The general interpretive area

1. A) is the speech center of the brain.
2. B) is responsible for predicting future consequences.
3. C) is the site of long-term memory storage.
4. D) allows us to interpret what is read or heard.
5. E) may be damaged by even a small stroke

105) Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to

1. A) the prefrontal cortex.
2. B) the general interpretive area.
3. C) Broca's area.
4. D) Wernicke's area.
5. E) the temporal lobe.

106) Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the

1. A) anterior commissures.
2. B) basal nuclei.
3. C) motor association areas.
4. D) visual cortex.
5. E) auditory cortex.

107) Integrative centers of the brain

1. A) receive information from many sensory association areas.
2. B) can impact higher intellectual functions.
3. C) direct motor activities.
4. D) include the Wernicke's area.
5. E) All of the answers are correct

108) Which cerebral area is involved with judgment and predictive abilities?

1. A) Broca's area
2. B) Brodmann area
3. C) prefrontal cortex
4. D) Wernicke's area
5. E) general interpretive area

109) The highest levels of information processing occur in the

1. A) cerebrum.
2. B) diencephalon.
3. C) cerebellum.
4. D) medulla oblongata.
5. E) corpus callosum.

110) If the corpus callosum is surgically cut,

1. A) the two cerebral hemispheres operate independently.
2. B) symptoms of the "disconnection syndrome" appear.
3. C) objects touched by the left hand can be recognized but not verbally identified.
4. D) conscious decisions are made without regard to sensations from the left side.
5. E) All of the answers are correct

111) A person with a damaged visual association area may be

1. A) unable to see rows of letters.
2. B) declared legally blind.
3. C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings.
4. D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words.
5. E) unable to understand spoken words.

112) Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to

1. A) speak.
2. B) move her left arm.
3. C) verbally identify an object placed in her left hand.
4. D) recognize written words.
5. E) touch her nose with her eyes closed.

113) ________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech.

1. A) Frontal
2. B) Integrative
3. C) Communication
4. D) Terminal
5. E) Vocal

114) Integrative centers concerned with the performance of complex processes are restricted to either the left or the right hemisphere. These complex processes include

1. A) speech.
2. B) writing.
3. C) mathematical computation.
4. D) understanding spatial relationships.
5. E) All of the answers are correct.

115) What symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with damage to the basal nuclei?

1. A) inability to process thoughts in a rational way
2. B) visual problems
3. C) facial tics
4. D) problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles
5. E) anger problems

116) Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his

1. A) vestibulocochlear nerve.
2. B) general interpretive area.
3. C) speech center.
4. D) prefrontal lobe.
5. E) temporal lobe.

117) Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to

1. A) understand written words.
2. B) understand spoken words.
3. C) understand visual images.
4. D) play the piano.
5. E) sense the texture of velvet

118) Excitation of neurons in the basal nuclei would lead to

1. A) increased muscle tone.
2. B) loss of consciousness.
3. C) inability to sense pain.
4. D) sexual arousal.
5. E) involuntary speech production

119) ________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior.

1. A) Dyslexia
2. B) Apraxia
3. C) Aphasia
4. D) Parkinson's disease
5. E) A seizure

120) A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brain's electrical activity over a period of time.

1. A) electrocardiogram
2. B) electroencephalogram
3. C) x-ray
4. D) MRI
5. E) CT scan

121) ________ is a disorder affecting the ability to speak or read.

1. A) Aphasia
2. B) Ataxia
3. C) Apraxia
4. D) Bell's palsy
5. E) Dysphagia

122) The basal nuclei

1. A) plan and coordinate voluntary muscle activity.
2. B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking.
3. C) coordinate sensory information.
4. D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland.
5. E) control respiration and blood pressure.

123) Higher-order functions

1. A) can be adjusted over time based on experience.
2. B) involve complex interactions among areas of the cortex.
3. C) combine both conscious and unconscious information processing.
4. D) occur in the cerebrum.
5. E) All of the answers are correct.

124) The only sensation that is received directly by the cerebrum is

1. A) olfaction.
2. B) gustation.
3. C) hearing.
4. D) vision.
5. E) dizziness.

125) Gustatory information reaches the brain by way of

1. A) cranial nerve I.
2. B) cranial nerve II.
3. C) cranial nerve X.
4. D) cranial nerve IV.
5. E) cranial nerve IX

126) ________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve.

1. A) Cerebral palsy
2. B) Bell's palsy
3. C) Addison's disease
4. D) Gout
5. E) Hydrocephalus

127) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves.

1. A) 2
2. B) 6
3. C) 12
4. D) 22
5. E) 31

128) Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve.

1. A) optic
2. B) oculomotor
3. C) trochlear
4. D) olfactory
5. E) abducens

129) The cranial nerves that innervate the eye muscles are

1. A) I, II, and III.
2. B) III, IV, and VI.
3. C) II, III, and IV.
4. D) II and VI.
5. E) III and V.

130) The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the

1. A) abducens.
2. B) facial.
3. C) vagus.
4. D) trigeminal.
5. E) glossopharyngeal

131) Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve.

1. A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal
2. B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal
3. C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal
4. D) glossopharyngeal
5. E) hypoglossal

132) Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)?

1. A) vagus
2. B) facial
3. C) glossopharyngeal
4. D) hypoglossal
5. E) glossopharyngeal and vagus

133) A reflex that is used to assess the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the ________ reflex.

1. A) corneal
2. B) tympanic
3. C) auditory
4. D) vestibulo-ocular
5. E) consensual

134) Which of the cranial nerves is named for the fact that it "wanders," that is, innervates structures throughout the thorax and abdomen?

1. A) VIII
2. B) IX
3. C) X
4. D) XI
5. E) XII

135) Which sensation(s) does the vestibulocochlear nerve carry?

1. A) hearing
2. B) equilibrium
3. C) atmospheric pressure
4. D) hearing and equilibrium
5. E) hearing, equilibrium, and taste

136) Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb?

1. A) trochlear
2. B) trigeminal
3. C) facial
4. D) glossopharyngeal
5. E) hypoglossal

137) Tic douloureux is

1. A) a disorder of the maxillary and mandibular branches of nerve V.
2. B) characterized by almost totally debilitating pain.
3. C) triggered by contact with the lip, tongue, or gums.
4. D) also called trigeminal neuralgia.
5. E) All of the answers are correct.

138) You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to

139) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the

1. A) medulla.
2. B) thalamus.
3. C) cerebral cortex.
4. D) olfactory bulb.
5. E) olfactory tract.

140) At the optic chiasm,

1. A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross.
2. B) axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross.
3. C) axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half.
4. D) the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain.
5. E) the optic nerve enters the cerebellum.

141) A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected?

1. A) glossopharyngeal
2. B) hypoglossal
3. C) vagus
4. D) spinal accessory
5. E) trigeminal

142) Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve?

1. A) loss of the sense of taste
2. B) tooth pain
3. C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
4. D) lack of facial expression
5. E) dry mouth from lack of saliva

143) The patient has the following symptoms: change in vocal tone, problems swallowing, inability to control urination, erratic heart rate, and gastric problems. You would identify the problem as being related to the

1. A) vagus nerve.
2. B) pineal gland.
3. C) abducens nerve.
4. D) trigeminal nerve.
5. E) amygdala.

1) The medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain comprise the

1. A) basal ganglia.
2. B) brain stem.
3. C) mesencephalon.
4. D) ventricles.
5. E) cortical lobes of the cerebrum.

2) The folds of the cerebrum are called

1. A) sulci.
2. B) arachnoid granulations.
3. C) cortical folds.
4. D) gyri.
5. E) dural sinuses.

3) The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the

1. A) cerebral aqueduct.
2. B) fornix.
3. C) falx cerebri.
4. D) corpus callosum.
5. E) septum pellucidum

4) The passageway between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle is the

1. A) foramen of Magendi.
2. B) interventricular foramen.
3. C) cerebral aqueduct.
4. D) lateral foramen.
5. E) central canal.

5) To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the

1. A) subarachnoid space.
2. B) superior sagittal sinus.
3. C) carotid canal.
4. D) inferior sagittal sinus.
5. E) jugular foramen.

6) In each ventricle is a blood vessel network called the ________ that produces cerebrospinal fluid.

1. A) choroid plexus
2. B) jugular vein
3. C) carotid artery
4. D) vertebral artery
5. E) pia mater

7) Chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid are called

1. A) plexuses.
2. B) ganglia.
3. C) sinuses.
4. D) aqueducts.
5. E) ventricles.

8) Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the

1. A) cerebral aqueduct.
2. B) basal ganglia.
3. C) falx cerebri.
4. D) arachnoid mater.
5. E) septum pellucidum.

9) Cardiovascular centers located in the ________ adjust the heart rate, the strength of cardiac contractions, and the flow of blood through the peripheral tissues.

1. A) pons
2. B) medulla oblongata
3. C) prefrontal cortex
4. D) mesencephalon
5. E) basal ganglia

10) The term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated is

1. A) decussation.
2. B) contralateral.
3. C) ascending crossovers.
4. D) pyramidal tracts.
5. E) consensual tracts.

11) The folds of the surface of the cerebrum

1. A) increase the surface area of the cerebrum.
2. B) form a network of blood vessels over the brain.
3. C) consist of axons and dendrites of neurons.
4. D) are bathed in spinal fluid.
5. E) are called sulci.

12) The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching array called the

1. A) basal ganglia.
2. B) corpus callosum.
3. C) commissural fibers.
4. D) cortical folds.
5. E) arbor vitae.

13) The ________ are the four masses on the posterior of the midbrain.

1. A) quadriceps
2. B) tetrahygena
3. C) mesencephalon
4. D) choroid plexuses
5. E) corpora quadrigemina

14) The mesencephalon contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized component of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention.

1. A) falx cerebri
2. B) Wernicke's area
3. C) general association area
4. D) reticular activating system
5. E) basal ganglia

15) The ________ connects the two sides of the cerebrum.

1. A) decussation
2. B) mesencephalon
3. C) arbor vitae
4. D) ganglion
5. E) commissural fibers

16) Emotions and behavioral drives are associated with the

1. A) geniculate nucleus.
2. B) thalamus.
3. C) fornix.
4. D) general association area.
5. E) hypothalamus.

17) Stimulation of the ________ within the hypothalamus produces the sensation of hunger.

1. A) satiety center
2. B) feeding center
3. C) thirst center
4. D) limbic system
5. E) hormone center

18) The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland.

1. A) hippocampus
2. B) infundibulum
3. C) supraoptic nucleus
4. D) basal ganglia
5. E) amygdala

19) In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in

1. A) the left cerebral hemisphere.
2. B) the right cerebral hemisphere.
3. C) neither of the cerebral hemispheres.
4. D) both of the cerebral hemispheres.

20) The dominant cerebral hemisphere of the brain

1. A) is for emotional status.
2. B) is for interpretation of art and music.
3. C) performs analytical tasks.
4. D) controls vital functions such as blood pressure and heart rate.
5. E) controls emotions.

21) A person who has difficulty comprehending and using written language suffers from the disorder known as

1. A) Parkinsonism.
2. B) dyslexia.
3. C) a stroke.
4. D) Alzheimer's disease.
5. E) epilepsy

22) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas.

1. A) association
2. B) motor
3. C) cranial
4. D) sensory
5. E) intercalated

23) The white structure that connects the cerebral hemispheres is the

1. A) geniculate nucleus.
2. B) basal ganglia.
3. C) amygdala.
4. D) arbor vitae.
5. E) corpus callosum

24) The optic nerve crosses at the

1. A) decussation.
2. B) commissural fibers.
3. C) pons.
4. D) optic chiasm.
5. E) cerebral aqueduct