the first and second line defense against microbial invasion are part of
innate- nonspecific immunity
adaptive immunity is sometimes called acquired immunity, which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name
to become activated lymphocytes require exposure to antigen in which they are specific
which of the following vaccines is an infection
attenuated
redness, swelling and itching of urticaria is due to _____ release
histamine
phagocytic cells in the epidermis known as ____ contribute to its ability to prevent microbial invasion
dendritic cells
which of the following is an exogenic antigen
bacteria outside the cell
discovery of antibodies and understanding of their action leads to ____ for disease
passive immunization
jess has A- blood type, has never received a blood transfusion, and has never been pregnant. Antibodies against what blood antigens will be present in Jess blood
B antigens
surface of the skin serves as a barrier to microbial invasion in part because
acidic, high salt environment
WBC are responsible for adaptive immunity are
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes
passive immunization is used when
protection against a recent infection disease is needed immediately
how is hemolytic disease of a new birth prevented
administering RhoGam
mucous and sweat contains _____ which damage and kill bacteria
antimicrobial peptides
antibody response is attributed to the action of
B lymphocytes
serilogical test for diagnosis of disease may detect
either antigens or antibodies specific for certain antigens
constriction of the airways and mucous production of asthma is the result of _____ response
type 1 hypersensitivity
monocyte leaves capillary in the lugs and enters lung tissue. It then matures to become
alveolar macrophages
which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes
interleukins
exposure to HIV can be verified using a
Western Blot assay
if circulating immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli, the ensuing type 3 hypersensitivity reaction can result in
kidney damage
healthy cells produce ____ in response to interferons
antiviral proteins
which of the following recognizes binds to MHC 2 antigens
CD4
individuals with egg allergies cannot receive flu vaccines because of the risk of which of the following
anaphylactic shock
small amounts of antigen is under the skin of patient. after 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. this type of response is due to
type IV hypersensitivity
which of the following substances stimulated phagocytic activity of phagocytes
gamma interferons
which type of the immunity produce by the body when a person contracts the disease
natural acquired active immunity
which of the following types of vaccine should not be given to pregnant women or immunocompromised person
attenuated vaccines
PPD and TB response mediated by
memory T-cells
the phenomenal of _____ facilitates the binding of phagocyte pseudopodia to pathogens
opsonization
what is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytes a microbe and processes it
display of microbial epitope MHC 2 complexes on the cell surface
why are subunit vaccines often preferred over whole agent vaccines
they tend to cause less of an inflammatory response
which of the following statements concerning allografts is true
they induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppresive drugs
_______ cells play a role in preventing neoplastic cell from professing to cancer
natural killer
vaccination triggers immune response which produces
artifical active immunity
many adjuvants can cause inflammatory reactions that make vaccines containing them problematic. without an adjuvant, which of the following modifications would make an inactivated vaccine more effective
increase the dosage and number of doses of the vaccine
antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissue and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristics of
type 3 hypersensitivity
tears contain which of the following antibacterial substances
lysozyme
which of the following best describes IgM antibodies
they are most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of immune response
the scientist wishes to produce a recumbent DNA vaccine . which of the following would be most useful for this task
plasmas
person with type b blood who can he get blood from
type b or type o
which of the following leukocytes is responsible for immune response against helminths
eosinophils
physician wants to stimulate immunological memory in a patient. which of the following types of immunity would be most useful
artificially acquired active immunity
the DtaP vaccine is given 4 times in first 18 months of life because its combination of
toxid vaccine and subunit vaccine
PT's with which of the following types grafts would require the most extensive therapy with the immunosuppressive drugs
xenograft
why are smokers more likely to have infections with respiratory pathogens
poisons in tobacco smoke damage ciliated columnar cells
which of the following would be unlikely to cause cell-mediated immune response
staphylococcus aureus
attenuated virus vaccine are produced by which of the following processes
growth in tissue culture cells for many generations
which of the following groups of individuals is most susceptible in general to autoimmune disease
older women
phagocytic cells associated with epidermis are called
dendritic cells
which of these are not a function of an anitbody
activating T cytotoxic cells