Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of
A) amino acids
B) double bonds
C) saccharide units
D) peptide linkages
B
Linolenic acid, an omega-3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the
A) third carbon from the acid end
B) first 3 carbons from the acid end
C) third carbon from the methyl end
D) first 3 carbons from the methyl end
C
Characteristics of hydrogenated oils include all of the following EXCEPT
A) they are stored in adipose tissue
B) they lower HDL and raise LDL cholesterol in the body
C) some of their fatty acids change shape from cis and trans
D) products containing them become rancid sooner, contributing to a shorter shelf life
D
Which of the following is a feature of phospholipids?
A) Resistant to digestion
B) Soluble in both water and fat
C) Highly susceptible to oxidation
D) Found naturally only in animal foods
B
What is the major sterol in an omnivorous diet?
A) Palm oil
B) Lecithin
C) Cholesterol
D) Arachidonic acid
C
Which of the following substances CANNOT be absorbed directly into the blood?
A) Glycerol
B) Long-chain fatty acids
C) Short-chain fatty acids
D) Medium-chain fatty acids
B
What lipoprotein is largest in size?
A) Chylomicron
B) High-density lipoprotein
C) Low-density lipoprotein
D) Very-low-density lipoprotein
A
A low risk of cardiovascular disease correlates with high blood levels of
A) triglycerides
B) free fatty acids
C) high-density lipoproteins
D) very-low-density lipoproteins
C
Your roommate Bob has just come back from the doctor, where he was subjected to a blood lipid profile analysis. The doctor recommended he make dietary changes because the cholesterol results put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following results is consistent with the diagnosis?
A) Low LDL and high HDL
B) Low HDL and high LDL
C) Low DLD and high DHD
C) Low LDH and low HDL
B
Which of the following is a feature of fat metabolism?
A)
Cholesterol is stored primarily on the surface of veins
B) High-density lipoproteins represent the major transport vehicle for delivering fat to the adipose cells
C) Fat storage is highly efficient due to the rapid uptake of the intact triglyceride molecule by adipose cells
D) Triglycerides in the blood must first be broken down to monoglycerides, fatty acids, and glycerol prior to uptake by the adipose cells
D
Which of the following is a feature of an essential amino acid?
A) It is not necessary in the diet
B) It must be supplied by the diet
C) It can be made from fat in the body
D) It can be made from glucose in the body
B
What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal
shape of a protein chain?
A) Digestion
B) Condensation
C) Denaturation
D) Hydrogenation
C
Which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of enzymes?
A) They are all catalysts
B) They have a protein structure
C) They can be destroyed by heat
D) They are involved in synthesis reactions only
D
What is the amino acid pool?
A) The total amino acid content derived from a 24-hour dietary intake
B) A measure of the circulating essential amino acid levels available for protein synthesis
C) The total amount of free amino acids in the circulation destined for deamination and excretion
D) A mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary intake
D
Which of the following is a consequence of excess protein intake?
A) Decreased excretion of calcium
B) Decreased size of the liver and kidneys
C) Increased production and excretion of urea
D) Increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys
C
Your father, who has a high blood ammonia concentration, most likely has a poorly functioning
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Kidney
D) Intestinal tract
C
What primary factor governs the quality of a food protein?
A) Fat content
B) Essential amino acid content
C) Complex carbohydrate content
D) Nonessential amino acid content
B
The study of how environmental factors influence the expression of genes without altering the DNA is known as
A) epigenetics
B) nucleotide sequencing
C) microarray technology
D) epidemiological consequences
A
A typical cell contains "powerhouses," which is another name for the
A) DNA
B) ribosomes
C) mitochondria
D) electron transport chains
C
A feature of catabolic reactions is that they
A) involve release of energy
B) occur only in mitochondria
C) involve consumption of energy
D) occur only during loss of body weight
A
Which of the following is NOT among the functions of the liver?
A) Synthesis of urea
B) Synthesis of glycogen
C) Production of red blood cells
D) Conversion of fructose to fatty acids
C
Which of the following defines a coenzyme?
A) A unit consisting of an enzyme bound to reactants plus ATP
B) An organic molecule required for the functioning of an enzyme
C) The small, active part of an enzyme that binds to the organic reactants
D) An inactive enzyme that becomes functional upon contact with specific cofactors
B
Which of the following metabolic reactions occurs when a cell uses energy?
A) ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP
B) ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP
C) ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP
D) ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP
B
Which of the following outlines the overall sequence of events in the complete oxidation of glucose
A) Cori cycle, TCA cycle, glycolysis
B) Glycolysis, TCA cycle, electron transport chain
C) Electron transport chain, TCA cycle, Cori cycle
D) TCA cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis
B
Which of the following CANNOT be formed from acetyl CoA molecules?
A) Glucose
B) Cholesterol
C) Stearic acid
D) Carbon dioxide
A
The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of
A) lactate and glucose
B) glucose and amino acids
C) pyruvate and citric acids
D) fatty acids and acetyl CoA
A
Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of
A) ketones
B) fructose
C) pyruvate
D) acetyl CoA
D
After digestion and absorption, an amino acid not used to build protein will first be subjected to
A) removal of its amino group
B) removal of its carboxyl group
C) hydrolysis of its peptide bond
D) condensation of its peptide bond
A
Which of the following products is NOT generated via the TCA cycle or electron transport chain?
A) Water
B) Energy
C) Ammonia
D) Carbon dioxide
C
Which of the following is the body's first response to the absorption of abundant amounts of carbohydrate?
A) Catabolism of body fat
B) Catabolism of glycogen
C) Synthesis and storage of glycogen
D) Synthesis and storage of triglycerides
C
What type of diet is associated with the development of ketosis?
A) Low fat
B) Low protein
C) Low carbohydrate
D) High carbohydrate
C
What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity
A) Fibrosis, gout, cirrhosis
B) Fibrosis, cirrhosis, fat depletion
C) Cirrhosis, fat accumulation, fibrosis
D) Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis
D
What is the most satiating macronutrient?
A) Fat
B) Water
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate
C
What instrument is used to measure the energy content of foods?
A) Energy chamber
B) Exothermic meter
C) Bomb calorimeter
D) Combustion chamber
C
Which of the following diets promotes the greatest loss of body heat?
A) High fat, low protein
B) High protein, low fat
C) High carbohydrate, low fat
D) Balanced protein, fat, and carbohydrate
B
What is the main explanation for the difference in basal metabolic rates between males and females of the same body weight?
A) Males are usually taller than females
B) Females have lower levels of thyroid hormones
C) Males have a higher percentage of lean body mass
D) Females have a lower percentage of adipose tissue
C
Jenny is 34 years old and has a BMI of 28. Her body type could be described as "pear-like." John is 55 years old with a BMI of 28, and a body type that is "apple-like." Why is John more likely than Jenny to be at risk for degenerative diseases?
A) He is male
B) He is older
C) He weighs more
D) He has central obesity
D
The major cause of insulin resistance is related to
A) low-protein diets
B) high-protein diets
C) excess body weight
D) prolonged excess carbohydrate intake
C
What are the three most common eating disorders, in order from highest to lowest prevalence?
A) Binge eating, bulimia nervosa, and anorexia nervosa
B) Anorexia nervosa, binge eating, and bulimia nervosa
C) Bulimia nervosa, binge eating, and anorexia nervosa
D) Bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa, and binge eating
A
What is the primary factor that differentiates bulimia nervosa from binge eating?
A) Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder
B) Higher rates of depression are reported in bulimia nervosa
C) More food is consumed at one setting in binge-eating disorders
D) Uncontrollable cravings for high-fat foods are seen only in bulimia nervosa
A
Which of the following is a feature of anorexia nervosa?
A) Often self-diagnosed
B) Underestimating body fatness
C) More frequent menstrual cycles in females
D) Frequently results in a BMI less than 17
D
According to body mass index values, what fraction of the U.S. adult population is considered overweight or obese?
A) 1/10
B) 1/6
C) 1/3
D) 2/3
D
Tom was overweight when he was 13. During puberty he continued to gain weight steadily until at age 23, when he decided to lose weight. Tom successfully lost 50 pounds. Which of the following most likely happened to Tom's fat cells?
A) They shrank in size but did not decrease in number
B) They melted away when he burned all the excess fat
C) They decreased in number but did not decrease in size
D) They changed very little since fat cells shrink only with a weight loss greater than 100 pounds
A
Which of the following is a characteristic of the lipoprotein lipase enzyme?
A) In men, the enzyme activity is high in abdominal fat cells
B) Obese people who lose weight show markedly higher enzyme activity
C) Obese people have less enzyme activity in their adipocytes than lean people do
D) In women, the enzyme activity is low in fat cells within the breasts, hips, and thighs
A
As a new assistant in a weight-loss research laboratory, you are given a tour of the mouse laboratory. Why is the leptin-deficient mouse much larger than its leptin-sufficient counterpart?
A) Leptin deficiency causes lower levels of ghrelin
B) Leptin deficiency enhances appetite and decreases energy expenditure
C) Leptin deficiency causes psychological depression, which leads to increased food intake
D) Leptin deficiency reduces the desire to do physical activity, resulting in more excess energy available for fat storage
B
Which of the following is a feature of gherkin?
A) It is a metabolic antagonist of leptin
B) It stimulates appetite and energy storage
C) The blood level in the fasting state correlates directly with body weight
D) It is released in high amounts from adipocytes during periods of excess energy intake
A
Compared with non-obese people, obese people have lower
A) basal metabolic rate
B) thermic effect of food
C) physical activity level
D) metabolic response to exercise
C
To help prevent body fat gain, the DRI suggests daily, moderately intense, physical activities totaling
A) 20 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 1 1/2 hours.
D) 3 hours
B
As a general rule, what minimum number of calories per day is necessary to ensure nutritional adequacy in an eating plan for reducing body weight in men?
A) 500
B) 800
C) 1200
D) 1600
C
What is the best approach to weight loss?
A) Avoid foods containing carbohydrates
B) Eliminate all fats from the diet and decrease water intake
C) Greatly increase protein intake to prevent body protein loss
D) Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure
D