ST990 midterm review Flashcards


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1

What is the Joint commissions (TJC) primary function in healthcare?

TJC ensure healthcare facilities meet safety and quality standards

2

List three key agencies involved in hospital accreditation and safety?

APIC, OSHA, EPA

3

Defined perioperative professional and list three example?

Healthcare professionals involved in surgery, e.g., scrub tech, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist

4

What are the main department found in healthcare facility?

Pathology, radiology, infection control, pharmacy, blood bank, etc.

5

Identify three essential piece of equipment commonly found in the operation room?

Operating table, Mayo stand, back table

6

Explain the purpose of air flow and ventilation control in surgical suites?

Minimize airborne contaminants to reduce infection

7

What is the difference between inpatient and outpatient care?

Inpatients stay overnight; outpatients don't require overnight care

8

Describe the advantage and disadvantage of ambulatory Surgery centers?

Pros: cost- effective, convenient; Cons: limited staff, no overnight care

9

How does healthcare chain of command contribute to hospital efficiency?

Ensures clear leadership and accountability in healthcare setting

10

Explain the world of the sterile processing technicians in a hospital setting?

Sterilize and maintenance surgical instrument

11

a hospital administrator want to improve infection control measures. What steps should be taken?

Hand hygiene, Stillalizations, PPE enforcement Etc

12

if a surgical technologist notice non-compliance with hospital policies. What action should they take?

report concerns to hospital Administrations

13

A patient ask about the difference between HMO and PPO insurance plans. How will you explain this?

HMO required referral, PPO offers flexibility but higher costs

14

How can the central sterile processing department ensure the proper sterilization of surgical instruments?

Proper sterilization cycle, rootine in maintenance check

15

A healthcare facility want to enhance patients safety. What recommendations will you make?

Implement strict infection control, improved staff training

16

Compare and contrast the role of biomedical engineering and materials management in a hospital?

Biomedical engineering repairs equipment, materials management handle inventory.

17

Why is accreditation necessary for healthcare institutions, and what happen if a facility fails to meet standards ?

Accreditations ensure compliance with safety regulations

18

How does the risk management department contribute to a hospital safety procedures?

identifies potential hazard and develops safety policies

19

Discuss the importance of pre-operative professional in preparing patients for surgery?

Ensure patience are prepared for surgery, reducing complications

20

Evaluate how technology advancements in hospital management have improved efficiency and patient care?

Electronic health record, robotic assisted surgery, improve scheduling systems

21

Which organizations is responsible for accrediting Healthcare facilities?

the Joint commissions (TJC)

22

Which perioperative professional is responsible for ensuring a sterile environment and passing instruments to the surgeons ?

Scribe technologist

23

Which Healthcare payment system involve a fixed rate for specific treatment?

DRG (diagnosis related group)

24

what are the five skill of medical language communication ?

listinning, speaking, reading, writing, thinking

25

define the word etymology in context of medical language ?

it the study of medical word origins

26

list three types of medical word?

prefix, suffix, and root

27

What are the two primary origin of Medical terminology

Greek and Latin

28

Provide an example of a singular form medical term and it's plural form in Latin?

appendix ( singular) appendices ( plural)

29

What does the combining form cardi/O mean ?

pertaining to the heart

30

What is the role of a prefix in a medical term?

To modified the word

31

Define the term suffix?

It's the actions of the words that are most likely at the end of any medical terminology word.

32

What is the anatomical positions?

Standing upright positions with Palm facing forwards

33

Identify three major body cavity ?

cranial cavity, thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity

34

Explain why Latin and Greek are prevalent in medical terminology?

Because they are the first person to start naming bodies.

35

Describe how prefix modifying medical words?

To help indicated and be precise of what being said

36

Differentiate between combining form that are identical to their medical meaning and those that are not?

For example perri and para

peri- professional ( surgeon, nurse) and para-professional ( surgical tech students)

37

Why is spelling and pronunciations important in medical terminology?

To make sure that the professionals are on the same page and understand what been said

38

Compare and contrast a symptom and a sign?

A symptom is what you feel and a sign is physical

39

Explain the difference between acute, subacute and chronic disease?

Acute mean sudden and quick

sub acute mean less intensify

chronic= longer

40

Summarize the relationship between anatomy and physiology?

Anatomy is the study of body structure while study of body functions

41

Describe the functions of allied health professional inpatient care?

Allied health professionals support and carry out specific services ordered by physicians.

42

What is the role of a medical record in healthcare?

Processing outpatients and inpatient record, retrieve ,and storage

43

Explain the importance of electronic health record?

it emphasizes health maintenance and preventive care.

44

Divided the word pericarditis into its word part and Define it?

peri= around

cardi= heart

it's= inflammation

the inflammation of the heart

45

Identify where the following word containing a prefix tachy cardia?

tachy= fast

cadia= heart

fast heart beat

46

Build a magical term that mean inflammations of the stomach?

Gastritis

47

Give the term neurology determining the meaning of its combining form?

neu= nervous system

rology= study of

the study of the nervous system

48

Identify where the epic gastric referred to a region, plane or cavity?

region

49

if a patient has pain in the left lower quadrant what organ could be affected?

intestine

50

You hear the word Hepatomegaly what does this indicate?

hepa=liver

omegaly= enlargement

the enlargement of the liver

51

A healthcare provider used auscultations during an exams what are they doing?

they using an instrument ( stethoscope) to listen the sound of the body

52

How will you explain to a patient what proximal and distal mean?

proximal mean closer to the body to the center of the body while distal mean away from the body

53

Giving the word hypoglycemia predict the meaning based on its word part?

hypo= lower

glycemia= sugar

low blood sugar

54

Compare the coronal sagittal and transverse plane?

Corona plane is divided body into the front and back

sagittal plane divided the body into equal half right and left

transverse plane divided body into Superior and inferior

55

Analyze how different disease categories help physician diagnose illness

nspection, or visual examination of external services and internal cavities
– Palpation, or use of the fingers to feel masses and organs and detect tenderness
and pain
– Auscultation, or use of a stethoscope to listen to body sounds
– Percussion, or tapping over body cavities to hear what sounds are produced

56

If a word contain two combine form what does this indicate?

the names of that specific word body part developed into combining forms.

57

Distanguage between physician extender and Allied health professionals?

a physician extender are professionals that examine, diagnose, and treat patients, and some prescribe drugs. while for an allied health professionals are support and carry out specific services ordered by physicians.

58

Differential between a clinic and ambulatory Surgery Center?

A clinic provides healthcare services for just one type of patient or one type of disease. while for ambulatory center is s a facility where minor surgery is performed.

59

Evaluate the difference between a refractory disease and a terminal illness?

A refractory disease is one that is not being responded to treatment while a terminal illness is lead to death

60

Why might a hospital choose to implant an electronic health record system?

easier access to patient health record and also reduce medical error.

61

Access why some medical term have both Latin and Greek origins

Because that were the first to start naming body part ( inventor)

62

How do prefix relate to speed effect medical meaning for example brady tachy?

It help give a clue of what is it actions or the verb is doing for example brady= slow, bradycardia meaning slow heartbeat

63

A healthcare provider document a cute exacerbations patient chart what does this mean?

acute = sudden and quick

sudden worsening of an illness

64

Evaluate the benefit and drawback of using electronic health record in modern Healthcare?

easy access to doctors, reduce medical error

65

Analyze the impact of medical terminology on patient communications. how can Healthcare professional ensure understanding?

by explaining in simple term and always asking for comprehensive method such as the teach back method

66

Compare the role of different medical professional in the healthcare System and how do they work together to provide comprehensive care?

the MD is the one that in charge of the team such a nurse, st etc and the Md would leads the team members and directs their activities and they would work together let's say in an operation to provide efficient care to patient.

67

Propose a new way to teach medical terminology to students were struggling with memorizations?

created a quiz where u can play multiple times to try to remember, use repetition, try writing it down without looking into your note, work with a study buddy, try to explain to family members etc

68

Create a short mnemonic or strategy to help remember medical prefixes and suffixes?

note card

69

Greek singular and plural

Is, nx, oma, on

Example iris = irides, phalanx = phalanges,

Carcinoma = carcinoma, ganglion = ganglia

70

Latin singular and plural

A, us, um, is, ex

Example vertebra = vertebrae, bronchus = bronchi, bacterium = bacteria, diagnosis = diagnoses, apex = apices

71

Ai stand for

Conditions of

72

Ism stand for

Disease from a specific cause

73

Osis stand for

Abnormal

74

Pathy stand for

Disease

75

Gram stand for

Picture

76

Graphy stand for

Recording

77

Metry stand for

Measurement

78

Scope stand for

Instruments use to examine

79

Scopy stand for

Process of using an instrument to examine

80

Tomy stand for

Cutting, making an incision

81

Iatry stand for

Medical treatment

82

Ics stand for

Practice

83

Ist stand for

Person who specializes in

84

An stand for

Without

85

Dys stand for

Painful

86

Degenerative stand for

Process of destroying of cell

87

Iatrogenic stand for

Medicine receiving by patient

88

Asc stand for

Ambulatory surgery center

89

Cc stand for

Cheif command

90

Cnm stand for

Certified nurse midwife

91

Crna stand for

Certified registered nurse anesthesia

92

D.C stand for

Doctor of chiropractor

93

D.D.S stand for

Doctor of dental surgery

94

D.O stand for

Doctor of osteopathy

95

D.P.M stand for

Doctor of podiatric medicine

96

D.S stand for

Discharge summary

97

Dx stand for

Diagnosis

98

ED stand for

Emergency department

99

EHR stand for

Electronic health record

100

EMR stand for

Electronic medical records

101

EPR

Electronic patient record

102

ER stand for

Emergency room

103

FH stand for

Family history

104

H&P stand for

History and physical

105

Hippa stand for

Health insurance portability and accountability act

106

HPI stand for

History of present illness

107

ICU

Intensive care unit

108

LPN stand for

Licensed pratIcal nurse

109

LVN stand for

Licensed vocational nurse

110

M.D stand for

Doctor of medicine

111

O.D stand for

Doctor of optometry

112

Pharm.D.

Doctor of pharmacy

113

PMH stand for

Past medical history

114

PT stand for

Physical therapy

115

R/O stand for

Rule out

116

ROS stand for

Review of system

117

SH stand for

Social History

118

SNF stand for

Skilled nursing facility

119

What does the prefix “brady-” mean?

Slow

120

The suffix “-itis” refers to:

Inflammation

121

The word root “cephal/o” refers to which body part?

Head

122

Which of the following prefixes means “within” or “inside”?

Endo

123

What does the prefix “tachy-” mean?

Fast

124

What does the prefix “hypo-” indicate?

Under

125

The combining form “erythr/o” means

Red

126

What does the suffix “-logy” mean?

Study of

127

The prefix “peri-” means:

Around

128

Which medical term correctly describes an inflammation of the stomach?

Gastritis

129

If a patient has “cyanosis,” what color change occurs in their skin?

Blue

130

The term “osteomalacia” refers to:

Hardening of the bones

131

Which term refers to a specialist who studies diseases?

Pathologist

132

What does “polyuria” mean?

Absence of urine

133

The prefix “retro-” means:

backward

134

If a patient has a “subcutaneous” injection, where is the medication administered?

Under the skin

135

A “nephrectomy” is a procedure to

Removal of the kidney

136

If a doctor prescribes a medication for “bradycardia,” what condition is being treated?

Slow heart beat

137

A patient with “dysphagia” would likely have trouble with

Difficult of swallowing

138

A patient diagnosed with “macrocephaly” has a:

Enlargement of the head

139

If a patient has “intercostal pain,” where is the pain located?

Enlargement of the head

between the rib

140

A patient suffering from “melanoma” most likely has a

Skin cancer

141

If a procedure is called “laparoscopy,” what does it involve?

An examination of the abdominal cavity with a scope

142

A patient with “quadriplegia” has paralysis affecting:

All four limbs

143

Which of the following conditions involves hardening of an artery?

Arteriosclerosis

144

What does “pneumonectomy” mean?

The removal of the lungs

145

A “gastroscopy” is performed to

Examine the stomach with a scope

146

What does the combining form “anter/o” refer to?

Back

147

The term “caud/o” is associated with which body direction?

Tail

148

The prefix “mono-” means

one

149

Which of the following prefixes refers to “four”?

Quad

150

The term “later/o” refers to

Side

151

The prefix “poly-” indicates:

Many

152

The prefix “uni-” means

One

153

“Peripher/o” is associated with

The center

154

What does “dist/o” refer to?

Away form the body

155

The term “ventr/o” refers to the

Front

156

“Proxim/o” is used to describe

Closer to the body

157

The prefix “tetra-” refers to

Three

158

The combining form “medi/o” is associated with

Middle of the body

159

Poster/o” refers to which anatomical direction?

Back

160

What does “intern/o” describe?

Structure inside of the body

161

The prefix “di-” means:

Two

162

If a structure is “super/o,” it is located

Above

163

What is the opposite of “extern/o”?

Internal

164

A doctor describes a patient’s wound as “ventral.” Where is the wound located?

In front of the body

165

A structure that is “proximal” to another is

Closer to the point of attachment

166

A disease affecting “viscer/o” would involve which part of the body?

Internal organs

167

A “pariet/o” membrane is found

Lining a body cavity

168

If a doctor says a fracture is located in the “distal femur,” where is the injury?

Near the knee

169

The term “poli/o” relates to which color?

gray

170

A patient with “melanosis” would have:

An excess of melanin in the skin

171

The term “xanth/o” describes what color?

yellow

172

Which four aseptic transfer steps are there?

  • know when it dirty
  • know how to clean
  • know how to sterile
  • keep those three items separately
  • remedy contamination ASAP

173

What is cleaning?

Cleaning to remove soil

174

What is disinfecting?

Ability to kill microorganism with the exceptions of Spore

175

What is sterilization?

completely killed all microorganism

176

What is sterility maintenance?

Ability to understand that microorganisms are in the environment

177

What is a pathogen?

A microorganism that can cause disease

178

What are the three lines of defense in the human body?

Skin, hair, nails

179

Name three types of microorganisms that can cause infections.

Bacteria, fungi, viruses

180

What is the purpose of the Gram stain in microbiology?

To differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria

181

What does the Gram stain reveal about bacteria?

It shows their shape and structures

182

Define biofilm formation?

Germs stick to surfaces and form a protective layer

183

Why is biofilm formation significant in healthcare settings?

It makes infections harder to treat

184

What is the difference between nonpathogenic and pathogenic microorganisms?

Nonpathogenic cannot cause diseases while for pathogenic can cause disease.

185

Describe the four phases of bacterial growth.

Lag, log phase, stationary phase, death phase .

186

Why are bacterial spores resistant to sterilization techniques?

They have a protective coating layer

187

How do viruses replicate inside a host?

By injecting their genetic material into host cells

188

What are aerobic and anaerobic bacteria?

Aerobic need oxygen; anaerobic do not

189

How do aerobic and anaerobic bacteria differ?

By their ability to survive with or without oxygen

190

What infection control procedures should a surgical technologist follow?

Cleaning, disinfecting, sterilizing, maintaining sterility

191

What symptoms might a patient with a systemic infection exhibit?

Fever, chills, fatigue

192

How should a healthcare worker use knowledge of antibiotic resistance?

By choosing the right antibiotic and avoiding unnecessary use

193

How do prions differ from other microorganisms?

They are proteinaceous agents with no DNA or RNA

194

What are possible causes of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)?

Poor hand hygiene, contaminated equipment, weakened immune systems

195

Compare bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, and helminths.

Bacteria and fungi are cellular; viruses are non-cellular

196
  • Why might antimicrobial therapy be more effective for bacteria than viruses?

Bacteria are living and have targetable parts

197

What is quorum sensing in bacteria?

A process where bacteria communicate using chemical signals

198

Why is sterilization critical in surgical settings?

It kills germs on tools, preventing infections

199

What risks do perioperative personnel face regarding infectious agents?

Blood pathogens, airborne pathogens, needle stick injuries

200

What are the key components of infection control in the operating room?

  • Cleaning to remove soil
  • Disinfecting to kill most germs
  • Sterilizing to completely kill microorganisms
  • Maintaining sterility to prevent transmission

201

What are the symptoms of systemic versus localized infections?

Systemic infection symptoms:

  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Fatigue

Localized infection symptoms:

  • Redness
  • Pus
  • Pain

202

What are the differences in reproduction among bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses?

  • Bacteria: Asexual reproduction (binary fission)
  • Fungi: Usually sexual reproduction
  • Protozoa: Mainly asexual reproduction
  • Viruses: Require a host for reproduction

203

What is the significance of antibiotic resistance in surgical settings?

  • Makes treating infections more difficult
  • Increases the risk of healthcare-associated infections
  • Requires careful selection of antibiotics

204

What are the phases of bacterial growth

  • Lag phase: No population growth
  • Log phase: Exponential growth
  • Stationary phase: Equilibrium
  • Death phase: Decline in population

205

What are the two categories of microorganisms?

Nonpathogens and Pathogens

206

Why are microorganisms necessary for our existence?

They aid in food development and waste decay

207

What are the three lines of defense in the human body?

  • First line: Intact barriers (skin, mucous membranes)
  • Second line: Prevention of microorganism proliferation (inflammatory response)
  • Third line: Resistance (active and passive immunity)

208

What constitutes the first line of defense in the body?

Intact barriers like skin and mucous membranes

209

What is included in the second line of defense?

Inflammatory response and antibody production

210

What is the third line of defense in the body?

Resistance through passive and active immunity

211

What are the stages of microorganism transformation to pathogens?

  • Transfer from one place to another
  • Lag phase
  • Exponential growth phase
  • Stationary phase
  • Death

212

What are the types of infectious processes in the body?

  • Localized infection
  • Regional spread
  • Systemic infection and sepsis
  • Symptoms and diagnosis
  • Resolution

213

Who is at high risk for exposure to infections?

Surgeons and surgical assistants

214

What are the main types of pathogenic microorganisms?

  • Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Prions
  • Fungi
  • Protozoa
  • Helminths

215

What is the size range of most bacterial cells?

1-2 microns

216

What is a spore in bacteria?

A resistant form of bacteria for survival

217

How are bacteria commonly classified?

  • By shape
  • By color change
  • By need for oxygen

218

What are the three main shapes of bacteria?

  • Cocci (spherical)
  • Bacilli (rod-shaped)
  • Spirilla (spiral-shaped)

219

What are the two groups of bacteria identified by the Gram stain?

Gram-positive and Gram-negative

220

What is the Gram stain procedure?

  • Crystal violet (primary stain)
  • Iodine (mordant)
  • Alcohol (decolorizer)
  • Safranin (counterstain)

221

What type of bacteria requires oxygen to grow?

Aerobic bacteria

222

What type of bacteria does not require oxygen?

Anaerobic bacteria

223

What are the temperature requirements for bacteria?

  • Psychrophiles: Cold temperatures (15-20°C)
  • Mesophiles: Moderate temperatures (20-45°C)
  • Thermophiles: Warm temperatures (50-70°C)

224

How do bacteria reproduce?

By dividing through binary fission

225

How often do bacteria reproduce?

Approximately every 20 minutes

226

What are common viral diseases?

  • Smallpox
  • Rabies
  • Influenza
  • Measles
  • AIDS

227

What are the five distinct types of hepatitis viruses?

A, B, C, D, and E

228

Which hepatitis virus is often implicated in foodborne illnesses?

Hepatitis A

229

What is the significance of the Hepatitis B vaccine?

It is strongly recommended for technicians

230

What does HIV cause?

AIDS

231

How does understanding microorganisms help in healthcare?

  • Prevent reproduction
  • Control transmission
  • Destroy microorganisms
  • Protect patients and employees

232

What are the characteristics of viruses?

  • Minute infectious agents
  • Grow only in living tissue
  • About 1000 times smaller than bacteria

233

What is the impact of bacteria on the operating room department?

  • Potential for infections
  • Need for sterilization
  • Importance of hygiene practices

234

What virus causes AIDS?

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

235

When does HIV occur in the body?

When the virus enters the bloodstream

236

What are the benefits of understanding microorganisms?

  • Prevent reproduction
  • Control transmission
  • Destroy microorganisms
  • Protect patients and employees

237

What is a prion?

A proteinaceous infectious particle

238

What disease is associated with prions?

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

239

How are prions deactivated?

On contaminated items

240

What is a characteristic of fungi?

Inability to photosynthesize

241

How do fungi typically grow?

As a mold

242

How are fungi transmitted?

By direct contact

243

What substance is found in the cell walls of fungi?

Chitin

244

How can fungal infections spread?

From person to person or contaminated surfaces

245

What is another name for a fungal infection?

Mycosis

246

How do fungi reproduce?

By releasing spores

247

Where do fungal infections most likely affect the body?

Skin, nails, or lungs

248

What is athlete’s foot also known as?

Tinea pedis

249

What causes athlete’s foot?

Dermatophytes in warm, humid areas

250

How can athlete’s foot be spread?

From contaminated surfaces like showers

251

What is jock itch also known as?

Tinea cruris

252

Where does jock itch primarily affect?

Groin area, inner thighs, and buttocks

253

What is ringworm also known as?

Tinea corporis

254

What areas of the body does ringworm affect?

Skin and scalp

255

What is a yeast infection caused by?

Candida albicans

256

Where can yeast infections occur?

Skin, mouth, gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract

257

What is toenail fungus also known as?

Tinea unguium

258

What are protozoans?

Unicellular and heterotrophic organisms

259

What environments do protozoa inhabit?

Moist and aquatic environments

260

What are helminths?

Parasites in humans and animals

261

What are the three types of helminths that infect humans?

Roundworms, flukes, tapeworms

262

What are roundworms scientifically known as?

Nematodes

263

What do flukes generally infect?

Bile ducts, liver, or blood

264

What are tapeworms also known as?

Cestodes

265

What is the primary function of infection control?

Cleaning, disinfection, sterilization

266

What is the purpose of antimicrobial therapy?

To treat infections caused by microorganisms

267

What is selective toxicity in antimicrobial therapy?

Injures microorganisms without harming host cells

268

What does bioterrorism represent?

A threat for which EDs are ill prepared

269

What are the six basic steps identified for bioterrorism response?

Lockdown, protect personnel, decontaminate, isolate

270

What is the role of DNA in identifying microorganisms?

Identification through intracellular DNA

271

What are the three lines of defense against disease?

Physical, chemical, and biological barriers

272

How can microorganisms pose a threat?

They can infect patients and employees

273

What are the common types of fungal infections?

  • Athlete’s foot
  • Jock itch
  • Ringworm
  • Yeast infection
  • Onychomycosis (nail infection)

274

What are the characteristics of helminths?

  • Parasites in humans and animals
  • Found in immigrant communities or rural areas
  • Three main types: roundworms, flukes, tapeworms

275

What are the principles of antimicrobial therapy?

  • Inhibition of cell wall or protein synthesis
  • Use in perioperative patients
  • Routes of antibiotic administration
  • Therapeutic or prophylactic use

276

What are the infection control services?

  • Cleaning
  • Disinfection
  • Sterilization
  • Sterility maintenance

277

What does ABHES stand for?

Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools

278

What is the role of ABHES?

It is a nonprofit accrediting body

279

What does NBSTSA stand for?

National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting

280

What is the function of NBSTSA?

It certifies surgical technology professionals

281

What types of training programs are available for surgical technologists?

Vocational, 2-year, 4-year, military programs

282

What is required for certification by NBSTSA?

Must meet eligibility requirements.

283

What does CST stand for?

Certified Surgical Technologist

284

What does NCCT stand for?

National Center for Competency Testing

285

What does the NCCT require from applicants?

Scrub experience with 150 validated surgical cases

286

What is a requirement for NCCT applicants regarding education?

Must have a high school diploma

287

What is one way to qualify for NCCT certification?

Graduate from an accredited surgical program.

288

What credential do applicants receive after passing the NCCT exam?

Tech in Surgery–Certified (TS-C)

289

What is required for maintaining NCCT certification?

Continuing education credits.

290

What does continuing education provide for professionals?

Opportunity to improve knowledge and competency

291

What organization provides resources for continuing education credits?

Association of Surgical Technologists (AST)

292

What are the levels of the Clinical Ladder Program established by AST?

  • Level 1: Entry-level
  • Level 2: Proficient
  • Level 3: Expert

293

What is the role of a surgical technologist in the scrub role?

Member of the sterile team delivering surgical care.

294

What are the responsibilities of a circulator/assistant circulator?

Prepare nonsterile equipment and assist with patients.

295

What is one task of the second assistant?

Retraction

296

What are some other perioperative responsibilities of surgical technologists?

Emergency duty, patient care, leadership.

297

What does CST stand for in career opportunities?

Certified Surgical Technologist

298

What is one career opportunity for a CST

Facility-based technologist

299

What is a key attribute of a professional?

High standard of accountability and ethics.

300

What is a foundation of professionalism?

Personal integrity and respect for laws

301

What personal attribute is important for success in surgical technology?

Care and empathy

302

What is the historical role of nurses before WWII in surgical technology?

Nurses acted as surgical assistants.

303

What is one personal attribute for success in surgical technology?

Organizational skills

304

What does professional trust mean?

Being trustworthy and responsible in all areas

305

What organization created the Association of Operating Room Technicians (AORT)?

Association of Operating Room Nurses (AORN)

306

What significant event occurred in 1970 for surgical technologists?

The first certifying exam was administered.

307

What does CAAHEP stand for?

Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs

308

What is the role of ARC/STSA?

Recommends accreditation of surgical technology programs

309

What does the Clinical Ladder program define?

Specific levels of practice for surgical technologists

310

What is the primary focus of the profession of surgical technology?

To assist in surgical procedures.

311

What is the significance of the Korean War for surgical technology?

Nursing shortages led to corpsmen circulating.

312

What does CST/CFA stand for?

Certified Surgical Technologist/Certified First Assistant

313

What is material management in surgical technology?

Management of cleaning and sterilization of instruments

314

What does the AST provide for surgical technologists?

Resources for continuing education credits.

315

What is the importance of personal integrity in surgical technology?

It reflects accountability and respect for others.

316

What is the role of the surgical technologist in the sterile team?

To deliver direct surgical care and maintain sterility.

317

What is the significance of the AST's code of ethics?

It guides the professional conduct of surgical technologists.

318

What is the role of the surgical technologist in patient care?

To assist with patient positioning and preparation.

319

What is the importance of continuing education for surgical technologists?

It helps maintain competency and knowledge.

320

What is the role of the surgical technologist in the operating room?

To assist in surgical procedures and maintain sterility.

321

What is the significance of the surgical technologist's role in emergencies?

They must respond effectively to surgical emergencies.

322

What is the role of the surgical technologist in managing surgical instruments?

To prepare, pass, and maintain instruments during surgery.

323

What is the importance of teamwork in surgical technology?

It ensures effective collaboration during surgeries.

324

What is the role of the surgical technologist in patient safety?

To ensure a sterile environment and proper procedures.

325

What is the significance of the surgical technologist's role in patient education?

To provide information about surgical procedures and care.

326

What is the role of the surgical technologist in postoperative care?

To assist with patient recovery and care.

327

What is the importance of communication in surgical technology?

It ensures clear information exchange among team members.

328

What is the role of the surgical technologist in quality assurance?

To ensure compliance with safety and quality standards.

329

What is the significance of the surgical technologist's role in infection control?

To maintain a sterile environment and prevent infections.

330

What is the role of the surgical technologist in surgical planning?

To assist in preparing for surgical procedures.

331

What is the role of the surgical technologist in ethical decision-making?

To uphold ethical standards in surgical practice.

332

What is the significance of the surgical technologist's role in patient advocacy?

To ensure patient rights and safety during surgery.

333

What is the role of the surgical technologist in interdisciplinary collaboration?

To work effectively with other healthcare professionals.

334

What is the importance of adaptability in surgical technology?

To respond effectively to changing surgical situations.

335

What is the importance of professionalism in surgical technology?

It reflects the commitment to quality patient care.

336

What is the role of the surgical technologist in research and development?

To contribute to advancements in surgical technology.

337

What is the significance of the surgical technologist's role in community service?

To promote health and wellness in the community.

338

What does retraction mean?

Pulling back or withdrawal

339

What is the study of cell called?

Cytology

340

What does blessing mean in medical term?

Reduction or diminution

341

What does metastasis mean ?

The spread of a disease

342

Which hepatitis viruses if often implicate in skin diseases?

Hepatitis c

343

Which type of hepatitis virus implications the liver ?

B and D