Micro final Flashcards

Any microorganism is by definition smaller than 1 mm

true

false

Which of the following characteristics can distinguish bacterial cells from cells in the other two domains of
life?
a. Only bacterial cells lack a nucleus.
b. Only bacterial cells contain chloroplasts.
c. Only bacterial cells have peptidoglycan cell walls.
d. Only bacterial cells can be pathogenic to humans.

What is the flow of gene expression in the central dogma in molecular biology?
a. RNA -> DNA -> protein
b. protein -> RNA -> DNA
c. DNA -> RNA -> protein

An extrachromosomal DNA molecule found outside of the bacterial genome is called a
a. exon.
b. plasmid.
c. operon.

During conjugation, bacteria can transfer extrachromosomal DNA via
a. cell to cell contact of pili.
b. uptake of environmental DNA through the cytoplasmic membrane.
c. cell to cell contact via flagella.
d. Injection of genetic material through protein channels

Quorum sensing is a mechanism that allows bacteria to sense how many bacteria are around them. Why would this
be an important feature for numerous bacterial species?
a. To form biofilms
b. To exchange genetic material
c. To activate toxicity genes
d. All of these functions can be genetically regulated via quorum sensing signaling molecules.

_________ is the formation of complex molecules from
smaller ones, while _________ is the breakdown of
complex molecules into smaller ones.
a. Oxidation, reduction
b. Anabolism, reduction
c. Fermentation, catabolism
d. Anabolism, catabolism

In a redox reaction, the compound being reduced is
__________ electrons and the compound being
oxidized is ________ electrons

The generation of ATP is always driven by a proton motive force.
a. True
b. False

Fermenting cells grow faster (multiply more often in the same
amount of time) than respiring cells.
a. True
b. False

Planting legumes that have root nodule-forming bacteria can save farmers from
purchasing fertilizers because the bacteria
a. are able to kill pathogens that target plants.
b. are able to fix nitrogen in the root nodules of legumes.
c. form biofilms on the roots of plants that help with water retention
d. are a natural pesticide

Primary producers are not always photosynthetic organisms.
a. True
b. False

Decomposition in the soil is initiated by microorganisms that are
a. excreting exoenzymes for the hydrolysis of macromolecules.
b. fastest in transporting organic macromolecules into their cytoplasm for
energy generation.
c. capable of fermentation of organic macromolecules into small, partially
oxidized molecules

Louis Pasteur’s swan neck flask experiment disproved the theory of
a. food spoilage.
b. bacterial lifestyles.
c. spontaneous generation of life.
d. heterologous evolution

Sterile or aseptic technique includes all of the following, except
a. utilizing sterile media to control growth of microorganism in a sterile environment
such as a petri dish.
b. applying a series of practices to avoid contamination and guarantee organism
containment.
c. employing an autoclave and other sterilization procedures.
d. Never working in teams to prevent possible contamination

Listeria monocytogenes is a pathogenic bacteria that infects the intestinal tracts of
humans. Therefore this organism is considered a
a. Psychrophile
b. Thermophile
c. Mesophile
d. Hyperthermophile

You are working with a media with a high salt concentration that only allows bacteria that can withstand high salt environments to grow. This means this is differential media.
a. True
b. False

What are two key components needed to run a standard PCR protocol?
a. RNA template, Forward and Reverse Primers
b. DNA template, Forward and Reverse Primers
c. Protein template, Forward and Reverse Primers

What is the is the main goal of conducting genetic cloning?
a. To insert a mutation to change the phenotype of the bacterium of interest.
b. To insert a gene of interest into a bacterium and have it express that protein.
c. To insert a RNA into bacterium to change the function of the bacterium

Which is NOT a correct example of a organic pollutant?
a. Waste water
b. Plastics
c. Petroleum
d. Uranium

What are some concerns when it comes to xenobiotic compounds, such as plastics,
being found in natural environments?
a. For many, there is no known way to degrade these products
b. Extremely diverse in chemical composition
c. Can be further fragmented into smaller components allowing to enter the food
chain
d. All of the above

What microorganism is commonly used in beer and bread
production?
a. Campylobacter (Foodborne Pathogen)
b. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c. Streptococcus pyogenes (Associated with strep-throat)
d. Actinobacteria (Gut Microbe)

Why are fermented foods considered “good” for human consumption?
a. Microbes that are alive inoculate into the intestine creating higher
gut diversity.
b. Microbes that are not alive contain fermented macromolecules
that are easy to digest.
c. Microbes found in fermented food help the human body fight
pathogens.
d. All of the above supports this claim

The rate at which food can spoil is impacted most by
a. water content.
b. protein content.
c. macromolecule size.
d. All types of food spoil at the same rate

Food poisoning and food infection are the same thing and
terms can be used interchangeably.
a. True
b. False

Which term overall best describes the relationship between the human body and
its microbiome?
a. Symbiotic
b. Commensal
c. Parasitic
d. Competitive

The oral microbiota consists strictly of aerotolerant organisms.
a. True
b. False

Preventing young children from exposure to microorganisms is the
best way to develop a healthy immune system.
a. True
b. False

The colonization of newborn guts is critical to for their health outcome in
the future. What are some common bacteria found in healthy newborn
guts?
a. bifidobacteria and enteric bacteria
b. fusobacterium and proteobacteria
c. Saccharomyces and staphylococcus

Conditions that affect the gut microbiome often have links between
secondary conditions such as obesity, heart disease, and high blood
pressure.
a. True
b. False

Some people carry MRSA as a part of their normal skin microbiota. In those cases, MRSA could
be described as a/an
a. obligate pathogen.
b. opportunistic pathogen.
c. persisting pathogen

Virulence factors are structures or excretions of bacteria that allow them to infect a host.
a. True
b. False

What critical role do capsules play in bacterial survival and interaction with host defense
mechanisms?
a. making bacteria more susceptible to antibiotics.
b. making bacteria more vulnerable to host defense mechanisms.
c. increasing the bacteria’s ability to lyse host cells.
d. protecting bacteria from host defense mechanisms

Which of these diseases that claim millions of lives per year is caused by a bacterium?
a. Hepatitis B
b. Malaria
c. HIV/ AIDS
d. Tuberculosis

What is the difference between a disinfectant and antiseptic?
a. A disinfectant is used on surfaces while an antiseptic is used on living tissues to sanitize.
b. An antiseptic is used on surfaces while a disinfectant is used on living tissues to sanitize

What is the most common source/organism causing a nosocomial urinary tract infection?
a. intestinal microflora, such as enterics
b. skin microflora, such as Staphylococcus aureus
c. oral microflora – such as lactic acid bacteria

All viruses require a live host cell to replicate.
a. True
b. False

What is one major difference between non-enveloped and enveloped viruses?
a. Non-enveloped viruses contain only RNA genomes while enveloped viruses contain
either an RNA or DNA genome.
b. Enveloped viruses infect preferentially bacteria while non-enveloped viruses rather
infect eukaryotic cells.
c. Enveloped viruses have a lipoprotein membrane surrounding the nucleocapsid, while
non-enveloped viruses are “naked”

Why do RNA viruses have a higher mutation rate than DNA viruses?
a. DNA viruses never make mistakes when replicating their genome.
b. The viral enzyme RNA replicase lacks proofreading capabilities and therefore is
inaccurate.
c. RNA viruses have larger genomes than DNA viruses

What technique can be used to quantify viruses?
a. Plaque assays
b. PCR
c. Restriction enzyme digests
d. Whole genome sequencing

Bacteria are mainly infected by _____ viruses, while Eukarya are more frequently
infected by _____ viruses.
a. single-strand DNA; single-strand RNA
b. single-strand RNA; single-strand DNA
c. double-strand DNA; single-strand RNA
d. double-strand RNA; double-strand RNA

Bacteriophages that exhibit a lytic lifestyle are _______, while lysogenic
bacteriophages are ________.
a. actively replicating, incorporated into host genome
b. incorporated into host genome, actively replicating

What is the mode of spreading for the common cold virus?
a. droplet
b. direct contact
c. fomites
d. All of these are ways the common cold spreads.

Everyone who carries herpesvirus always expresses symptoms.
a. True
b. False

Why do sexually transmitted diseases tend to go untreated or undetected?
a. Many sexually transmitted diseases have mild or no symptoms in healthy
individuals.
b. Many people are shy or reluctant to seek help.
c. Some sexually transmitted diseases can be mistaken for other diseases.
d. all of the above

What are antigens?
a. Specific structural compounds of or compounds produced by the pathogen.
b. Communication molecules produced by host cells to initiate inflammation.
c. Host derived cells that produce antibodies as part of the adaptive immune system

What is not a correct example of the human’s “first line of defense” against pathogens?
a. Skin
b. Stomach acid
c. B cells
d. Mucosal membranes

What is the name of the process by which white blood cells ingest and eliminate
bacteria?
a. endocytosis
b. apoptosis
c. cellular fission
d. phagocytosis

What cell type can produce antibodies?
a. Macrophages
b. T lymphocytes
c. B lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils

What effect do antibodies have on pathogens in the human body?
a. Antibodies directly target and rupture the pathogen’s membrane.
b. Antibodies serve as markers on pathogen surfaces to be recognized and targeted
for phagocytosis.
c. Antibodies penetrate pathogens and release enzymes that break down pathogens
from the inside out

Which of the following would be a good protein to make a key component for a new vaccine?
a. A specific gene in the nucleic acid genome of the pathogen
b. An enzyme expressed only inside of the host cell
c. A protein that is present in only a few variants of the pathogen
d. A protein on the surface of the pathogen that is essential for binding to the host cell

Which of the following would be a good target for an antibiotic?
a. An enzyme that is necessary for viral replication.
b. A bacterial enzyme that is involved in peptidoglycan synthesis.
c. An enzyme involved in DNA replication found in yeast.
d. The energy-generating ATP synthase enzyme, which is highly similar in bacteria and humans

Why are clinical laboratories typically categorized as BSL-2?
a. Clinical labs handle samples that can contain organisms that are able to infect healthy
individuals.
b. Clinical labs handle samples that can contain organisms that do not cause disease in
healthy individuals but do in immunocompromised individuals.
c. Clinical labs are categorized BSL-1 when they work with bacterial pathogens and BSL-2
when they work with viruses

What conditions must be met when collecting patients’ samples?
a. use of aseptic techniques to prevent exposure to additional organisms.
b. rapid sample processing to prevent degradation.
c. obtaining enough of the sample to conduct respective tests.
d. All of the above.

How do PCR-based methods work to detect a specific pathogen?
a. Scanning for the entire genome of target pathogen in patient sample.
b. Targeting and amplifying a gene that is specific to the target pathogen in a patient sample.
c. Causing the target pathogen to separate from the patient sample.
d. PCR-based methods do not work for pathogen detection

To prevent false negative test results, researchers are working on improving the
_______ of a test.
a. sensitivity
b. specificity
c. quantity
d. titer

Which of the following is in the correct order in terms of incidences from highest to lowest
global incidences?
a. Pandemic; endemic; epidemic
b. Endemic; pandemic; epidemic
c. Epidemic; pandemic; endemic
d. Pandemic; epidemic; endemic

What does the term “herd immunity” refer to?
a. The natural immunity acquired from exposure to antigens in the environment.
b. The total number of predicted antibodies in a population during a pandemic.
c. The proportion of population that must be immune to a disease to protect all
individuals in a population from infection

Ebola is an example of a disease with high morbidity but low mortality.
a. True
b. False