Microbiology Lecture Exam 3 Review Flashcards


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1

The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because

the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.

2

Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because of their resistance to

sebum and salt

3

An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a

sty

4

One feature that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is its

production of both coagulase and beta-lactamase

5

Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce

beta-lactamase

6

Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin infection?

erysipelas

7

Impetigo can be caused by

both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

8

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by

exfoliative toxins

9

The common name for a furuncle is

a boil

10

Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by

both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.

11

A specific wavelength of blue light can be used to treat

acne

12

Cat scratch disease is caused by

Bartonella henselae.

13

Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?

the appearance of eschars on the skin

14

The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its

ability to pump drugs out of the cell

15

Petechiae are subcutaneous hemorrhages associated with which of the following?

RMSF

16

Transovarian transmission is a process by which

an infected female vector transmits a pathogen to the eggs in its ovaries.

17

What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

damage to blood vessels

18

"Pox" is a term synonymous with which of the following?

a pustule

19

Smallpox was the first human disease to be

globally eradicated

20

Clostridium perfringens is a strict anaerobe that is a common environmental contaminant and
consequently of wounds due to its ability to

produce endospores

21

Acyclovir is a chemotherapeutic agent used to treat

herpes

22

Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the same virus that causes

chickenpox

23

Common skin warts are the result of infection with

papillomaviruses

24

Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to

integrate into the host cell DNA

25

Erythema infectiosum is also known as

fifth disease

26

Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?

herpes zoster : genital warts

27

Which of the following can cause birth defects?

rubella

28

Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations?

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

29

"Ringworm" is caused by

dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.

30

Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?

Malassezia furfur

31

Sporotrichosis is more commonly known as

rose-gardener's disease.

32

A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he
has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from
the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is
likely suffering from

chromoblasomycosis.

33

A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small
inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of
infection with

Sarcoptes scabiei.

34

Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?

visceral

35

A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and
intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis, but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Grampositive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?

Streptococcus pyogenes

36

A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is

pyocyanin.

37

Which of the following is/are anti-phagocytic?

protein A, M protein, and leukocidin

38

Which of the following bacterial pathogens is an intracellular parasite?

Bartonella henselae

39

The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of

chickenpox

40

A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs and torso that is splotchy, and intensifies
after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms
are consistent with

fifth disease.

41

A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain
appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine silver) stain reveals brownish
filaments in the sample. These findings suggest

phaeohyphomycosis

42

Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis.

FALSE

43

M protein is a virulence factor associated with group A streptococci.

TRUE

44

Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii

FALSE

45

Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that are not contagious in
humans.

FALSE

46

Chromoblastomycosis is rarely a severe disease and can be treated easily with appropriate
drugs

FALSE

47

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is fatal in 100% of untreated cases.

FALSE

48

Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1980s because of adverse effects of
the vaccine.

TRUE

49

Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents.

TRUE

50

In pregnant women, roseola infection can result in teratogenic birth defects

FALSE

51

Pityriasis' characteristic appearance is the result of a fungal infection causing changes in the
production of melanin.

TRUE

52

Which of the following statements concerning viruses is FALSE?

Viruses enter a cell to complete the replication they have begun extracellularly

53

The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?

protection and recognition

54

During the intracellular state, a virus exists as

a nucleic acid.

55

Viruses are primarily classified according to their

type of nucleic acid.

56

Host specificity of a virus is due to

interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.

57

Who was the first person to demonstrate the existence of viruses?

Ivanowsky

58

How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?

They have no extracellular state.

59

Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure?

viroids

60

Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophage?

envelope

61

Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?

Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.

62

Which of the following statements comparing virus classification and taxonomy of
organisms is true?

Genus and specific epithet are used in both classification systems

63

Put the following stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages:
I. Synthesis
II. Assembly
III. Attachment
IV. Release
V. Entry

III, V, I, II, IV

64

Which of the following is associated with the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial
cell?

random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity

65

The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection
cycle?

entry and release

66

The phenomenon of transduction is associated with which of the stages of a bacteriophage
infection cycle?

assembly

67

Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but
NOT in the lysogenic cycle?

digestion of host DNA

68

Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?

The genetic material of the bacteriophage can be passed on to future generations of cells.

69

Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage back to a
lytic phage?

UV light and X rays

70

Zones of clearing in cell cultures that are the result of virus infection are called plaques.
Sometimes "cloudy plaques" are seen on bacterial cultures infected with bacteriophage. What
type of viral infection might cause this appearance?

lysogenic

71

Which of the following is matched INCORRECTLY?

adenovirus — membrane fusion

72

Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following?

retroviruses

73

The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA?

+ssRNA viruses

74

Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to
be replicated?

-ssRNA viruses

75

In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses, the poxviruses replicate solely in the cytoplasm of
the host cell. This fact implies that the viral genome may encode

RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase.

76

Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?

the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum

77

The majority of cases of infant diarrhea are caused by what kind of virus?

dsRNA viruses

78

How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda phage prophage?

The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA.

79

Which of the following individuals discovered prions?

Prusiner

80

One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory
sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be
involved in causing cancer by this mechanism?

retroviruses

81

Tumors invade other organs and tissues in a process called

metastasis

82

Plaque assays are used for

estimating the number of phages in a culture.

83

Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell cultures differ in which of the following ways?

longevity and source of cells

84

Viroids infect

plants.

85

How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?

They lack nucleic acid.

86

The infectious particles of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid. They are therefore
similar to

viroids.

87

A lipid membrane is present

in both cells and viruses.

88

Double-stranded RNA genomes can be found

only in viruses

89

Cytoplasm is a characteristic of

cells only.

90

Proteins are present in

both cells and viruses.

91

Viruses are shed slowly and steadily during

persistent infection.

92

During __________, viruses remain dormant in a cell.

latency

93

Virus replication results in the death of the cell in a(n) __________ infection.

lytic

94

Virus infection results in cancer in the process of

oncogenesis

95

is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses.

Budding

96

Viruses cause most human cancers.

FALSE

97

Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy.

TRUE

98

Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.

TRUE

99

Many diseases of plants are caused by infectious RNA molecules lacking capsids.

TRUE

100

Bacteriophages are cheaper and easier to culture than animal viruses.

TRUE

101

Assembly of new viruses is a process that usually requires the direction of a variety of viral
and cellular enzymes

FALSE

102

Bacteriophage release is a gradual process in which small numbers are released at a time.

FALSE

103

Poxvirus is assembled in the cytoplasm of the cell instead of in the nucleus, as is the case for
the majority of dsDNA viruses.

TRUE

104

Transcription of RNA from RNA does not occur in uninfected cells.

TRUE

105

Virus vaccines are always cultured in embryonated chicken eggs

FALSE

106

Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?

microbes crossing the placenta to the fetus

107

Mutualism is a relationship

that provides benefits for both members, sometimes to the point that one cannot live without
the other.

108

Figure 14.1 represents a Petri dish with a fungus (F), shown in darker gray, growing in the midst
of bacterial lawn (B), shown in light gray. Both microbes were from the same patient sample.
The relationship between the fungus and the bacteria would best be described as

commensal.

109

The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found in the nasal cavity of healthy
people. If inhaled into the lungs, however, it may cause pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is
best described as

both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.

110

Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which
type of exposure does this represent?

parenteral route

111

Symptoms are

subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.

112

The close contact between newborns and family members allow them to become ________
with microbes that become established as their microbiota.

colonized

113

In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease?

A person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal
cavity by way of tears.

114

Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is
FALSE?

The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.

115

Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal
microbiota?

Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy.

116

Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic
pathogens?

treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

117

Which of the following is a fungus and is considered part of the normal human microbiome?

Candida

118

A toxin common to most Gram-negative bacteria is

lipid A.

119

Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase,
hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute to the ability of S. aureus to
invade the body?

hyaluronidase

120

Which of the following stages of an infectious disease is the most severe?

the illness period

121

Which of the following is an example of vehicle transmission?

drinking contaminated water

122

Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?

cockroach transmission of Shigella

123

Which of the following is a sign of disease?

fever

124

Which of the following is a symptom of disease?

dizziness

125

Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as ________

iatrogenic

126

A syringe is used for multiple patients, one of whom has hepatitis B. The syringe is not
properly sterilized, resulting in possible ________ transmission.

indirect contact

127

A person is exposed to fungus and develops an infection. No one taking care of him/her
becomes ill, suggesting the infection is a ________ disease.

non-communicable

128

) In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza ("swine
flu") in the United States. By the end of the year millions of people had been infected. The
pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) ________ disease.

epidemic

129

The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases.
This means

there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the United States in
the year 2000.

130

A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to
produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen
lost?

the ability to adhere to cells of the body

131

Over 470,000 cases of cholera were reported in Haiti in the two years following the 2010
earthquake. Which of the following was the most likely mode of transmission

contaminated water

132

The person known to history as "Typhoid Mary" was identified by public health officials as a
source of typhoid fever, although she reported she had never had typhoid fever. Which of the
following is the most accurate description of her in this scenario?

both a human carrier and a reservoir

133

Aerosols may be involved in ________ transmission of pathogens.

droplet

134

Fomites are

inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens.

135

Koch's postulates were used to demonstrate the relationship between

Haemophilus influenzae and meningitis.

136

Which of the following diseases may be reduced by improved public sanitation measures?

cholera

137

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of a disease process?

incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

138

People who wash their hands frequently during cold season typically have fewer colds than
those who do not. This observation suggests cold viruses can be transmitted by

both direct contact and fomites

139

A patient developed a blood infection after a dental procedure which resulted in bleeding
gums. The patient has

a healthcare-associated infection (HAI).

140

Which of the following virulence factors directly contributes to severe inflammation?

lipid A

141

A pathogen is best described as

any microorganism that causes disease.

142

Microbes known as transient microbiota are

organisms that remain in the body for a short time.

143

Infectious diseases can be classified on the basis of

disease severity and duration, organ system affected or type of microbe.

144

Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as

microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.

145

A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by
public health agencies to stop the spread?

Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected

146

Commensalism is best described as a(n)

relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits.

147

The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n)

relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.

148

An axenic environment is one

that is free of microbes.

149

The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as

an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of pre-existing microbes

150

A reservoir is

a source of microbial contamination.

151

In commensalism, one member of the relationship harms the other.

FALSE

152

Normal microbiota may cause disease if conditions change in the bod

TRUE

153

A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a particular
disease.

TRUE

154

All diseases go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness.

: FALSE

155

Microbial contamination always results in infection.

FALSE

156

Hepatitis C is an acute disease

: FALSE

157

Biofilms provide an alternative means for bacteria to attach to surfaces within the body.

TRUE

158

People in the incubation stage of a disease may be a reservoir of the agent.

TRUE

159

Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen.

FALSE

160

All infections result in disease.

: FALSE