The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because
the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because of their resistance to
sebum and salt
An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a
sty
One feature that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is its
production of both coagulase and beta-lactamase
Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce
beta-lactamase
Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin infection?
erysipelas
Impetigo can be caused by
both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by
exfoliative toxins
The common name for a furuncle is
a boil
Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.
A specific wavelength of blue light can be used to treat
acne
Cat scratch disease is caused by
Bartonella henselae.
Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?
the appearance of eschars on the skin
The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its
ability to pump drugs out of the cell
Petechiae are subcutaneous hemorrhages associated with which of the following?
RMSF
Transovarian transmission is a process by which
an infected female vector transmits a pathogen to the eggs in its ovaries.
What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
damage to blood vessels
"Pox" is a term synonymous with which of the following?
a pustule
Smallpox was the first human disease to be
globally eradicated
Clostridium perfringens is a strict anaerobe that is a common
environmental contaminant and
consequently of wounds due to its
ability to
produce endospores
Acyclovir is a chemotherapeutic agent used to treat
herpes
Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the same virus that causes
chickenpox
Common skin warts are the result of infection with
papillomaviruses
Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to
integrate into the host cell DNA
Erythema infectiosum is also known as
fifth disease
Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?
herpes zoster : genital warts
Which of the following can cause birth defects?
rubella
Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations?
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
"Ringworm" is caused by
dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.
Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?
Malassezia furfur
Sporotrichosis is more commonly known as
rose-gardener's disease.
A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a
large wart. He reports he
has had the wart for some time, and the
pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from
the lesion
shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown
color. The man is
likely suffering from
chromoblasomycosis.
A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands
and wrists. The lesions are small
inflamed streaks, but do not
appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result
of
infection with
Sarcoptes scabiei.
Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?
visceral
A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to
the touch, and
intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis, but
it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Grampositive
cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely
to be responsible?
Streptococcus pyogenes
A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is
pyocyanin.
Which of the following is/are anti-phagocytic?
protein A, M protein, and leukocidin
Which of the following bacterial pathogens is an intracellular parasite?
Bartonella henselae
The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of
chickenpox
A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs and torso that is
splotchy, and intensifies
after being in the sun. The child does
not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms
are
consistent with
fifth disease.
A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the
microscope. A Gram stain
appears uniformly pink, but a GMS
(Gomori methenamine silver) stain reveals brownish
filaments in
the sample. These findings suggest
phaeohyphomycosis
Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis.
FALSE
M protein is a virulence factor associated with group A streptococci.
TRUE
Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii
FALSE
Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that
are not contagious in
humans.
FALSE
Chromoblastomycosis is rarely a severe disease and can be treated
easily with appropriate
drugs
FALSE
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is fatal in 100% of untreated cases.
FALSE
Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1980s because
of adverse effects of
the vaccine.
TRUE
Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents.
TRUE
In pregnant women, roseola infection can result in teratogenic birth defects
FALSE
Pityriasis' characteristic appearance is the result of a fungal
infection causing changes in the
production of melanin.
TRUE
Which of the following statements concerning viruses is FALSE?
Viruses enter a cell to complete the replication they have begun extracellularly
The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?
protection and recognition
During the intracellular state, a virus exists as
a nucleic acid.
Viruses are primarily classified according to their
type of nucleic acid.
Host specificity of a virus is due to
interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.
Who was the first person to demonstrate the existence of viruses?
Ivanowsky
How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?
They have no extracellular state.
Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure?
viroids
Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophage?
envelope
Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?
Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.
Which of the following statements comparing virus classification and
taxonomy of
organisms is true?
Genus and specific epithet are used in both classification systems
Put the following stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from
earliest to latest stages:
I. Synthesis
II.
Assembly
III. Attachment
IV. Release
V. Entry
III, V, I, II, IV
Which of the following is associated with the attachment of a
bacteriophage to a bacterial
cell?
random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity
The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a
bacteriophage T4 infection
cycle?
entry and release
The phenomenon of transduction is associated with which of the stages
of a bacteriophage
infection cycle?
assembly
Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of
bacteriophage T4 infection but
NOT in the lysogenic cycle?
digestion of host DNA
Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?
The genetic material of the bacteriophage can be passed on to future generations of cells.
Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a
prophage back to a
lytic phage?
UV light and X rays
Zones of clearing in cell cultures that are the result of virus
infection are called plaques.
Sometimes "cloudy
plaques" are seen on bacterial cultures infected with
bacteriophage. What
type of viral infection might cause this appearance?
lysogenic
Which of the following is matched INCORRECTLY?
adenovirus — membrane fusion
Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following?
retroviruses
The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA?
+ssRNA viruses
Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent
RNA transcriptase to
be replicated?
-ssRNA viruses
In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses, the poxviruses replicate
solely in the cytoplasm of
the host cell. This fact implies that
the viral genome may encode
RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase.
Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?
the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum
The majority of cases of infant diarrhea are caused by what kind of virus?
dsRNA viruses
How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda phage prophage?
The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA.
Which of the following individuals discovered prions?
Prusiner
One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the
genetic regulatory
sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the
following types of viruses is most likely to be
involved in
causing cancer by this mechanism?
retroviruses
Tumors invade other organs and tissues in a process called
metastasis
Plaque assays are used for
estimating the number of phages in a culture.
Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell cultures differ in which of the following ways?
longevity and source of cells
Viroids infect
plants.
How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?
They lack nucleic acid.
The infectious particles of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid.
They are therefore
similar to
viroids.
A lipid membrane is present
in both cells and viruses.
Double-stranded RNA genomes can be found
only in viruses
Cytoplasm is a characteristic of
cells only.
Proteins are present in
both cells and viruses.
Viruses are shed slowly and steadily during
persistent infection.
During __________, viruses remain dormant in a cell.
latency
Virus replication results in the death of the cell in a(n) __________ infection.
lytic
Virus infection results in cancer in the process of
oncogenesis
is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses.
Budding
Viruses cause most human cancers.
FALSE
Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy.
TRUE
Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.
TRUE
Many diseases of plants are caused by infectious RNA molecules lacking capsids.
TRUE
Bacteriophages are cheaper and easier to culture than animal viruses.
TRUE
Assembly of new viruses is a process that usually requires the
direction of a variety of viral
and cellular enzymes
FALSE
Bacteriophage release is a gradual process in which small numbers are released at a time.
FALSE
Poxvirus is assembled in the cytoplasm of the cell instead of in the
nucleus, as is the case for
the majority of dsDNA viruses.
TRUE
Transcription of RNA from RNA does not occur in uninfected cells.
TRUE
Virus vaccines are always cultured in embryonated chicken eggs
FALSE
Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?
microbes crossing the placenta to the fetus
Mutualism is a relationship
that provides benefits for both members, sometimes to the point that
one cannot live without
the other.
Figure 14.1 represents a Petri dish with a fungus (F), shown in
darker gray, growing in the midst
of bacterial lawn (B), shown in
light gray. Both microbes were from the same patient sample.
The
relationship between the fungus and the bacteria would best be
described as
commensal.
The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found in the nasal
cavity of healthy
people. If inhaled into the lungs, however, it
may cause pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is
best described as
both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.
Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that
penetrate blood vessels. Which
type of exposure does this represent?
parenteral route
Symptoms are
subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.
The close contact between newborns and family members allow them to
become ________
with microbes that become established as their microbiota.
colonized
In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease?
A person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is
washed into the nasal
cavity by way of tears.
Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the
etiology of disease is
FALSE?
The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.
Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby
acquires normal
microbiota?
Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy.
Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to
become opportunistic
pathogens?
treatment of a cancer patient with radiation
Which of the following is a fungus and is considered part of the normal human microbiome?
Candida
A toxin common to most Gram-negative bacteria is
lipid A.
Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are
hemolysin, coagulase,
hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of
these factors contribute to the ability of S. aureus to
invade
the body?
hyaluronidase
Which of the following stages of an infectious disease is the most severe?
the illness period
Which of the following is an example of vehicle transmission?
drinking contaminated water
Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?
cockroach transmission of Shigella
Which of the following is a sign of disease?
fever
Which of the following is a symptom of disease?
dizziness
Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as ________
iatrogenic
A syringe is used for multiple patients, one of whom has hepatitis B.
The syringe is not
properly sterilized, resulting in possible
________ transmission.
indirect contact
A person is exposed to fungus and develops an infection. No one
taking care of him/her
becomes ill, suggesting the infection is a
________ disease.
non-communicable
) In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel
H1N1 influenza ("swine
flu") in the United States. By
the end of the year millions of people had been infected.
The
pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents
a(n) ________ disease.
epidemic
The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States
was 12.43/100,000 cases.
This means
there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people
in the United States in
the year 2000.
A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to
lose the ability to
produce fimbriae and become less virulent as
a consequence. What function has this pathogen
lost?
the ability to adhere to cells of the body
Over 470,000 cases of cholera were reported in Haiti in the two years
following the 2010
earthquake. Which of the following was the
most likely mode of transmission
contaminated water
The person known to history as "Typhoid Mary" was
identified by public health officials as a
source of typhoid
fever, although she reported she had never had typhoid fever. Which of
the
following is the most accurate description of her in this scenario?
both a human carrier and a reservoir
Aerosols may be involved in ________ transmission of pathogens.
droplet
Fomites are
inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens.
Koch's postulates were used to demonstrate the relationship between
Haemophilus influenzae and meningitis.
Which of the following diseases may be reduced by improved public sanitation measures?
cholera
Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of a disease process?
incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
People who wash their hands frequently during cold season typically
have fewer colds than
those who do not. This observation suggests
cold viruses can be transmitted by
both direct contact and fomites
A patient developed a blood infection after a dental procedure which
resulted in bleeding
gums. The patient has
a healthcare-associated infection (HAI).
Which of the following virulence factors directly contributes to severe inflammation?
lipid A
A pathogen is best described as
any microorganism that causes disease.
Microbes known as transient microbiota are
organisms that remain in the body for a short time.
Infectious diseases can be classified on the basis of
disease severity and duration, organ system affected or type of microbe.
Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as
microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.
A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What
measures might be taken by
public health agencies to stop the spread?
Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected
Commensalism is best described as a(n)
relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits.
The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n)
relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.
An axenic environment is one
that is free of microbes.
The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as
an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of pre-existing microbes
A reservoir is
a source of microbial contamination.
In commensalism, one member of the relationship harms the other.
FALSE
Normal microbiota may cause disease if conditions change in the bod
TRUE
A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that collectively
characterize a particular
disease.
TRUE
All diseases go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness.
: FALSE
Microbial contamination always results in infection.
FALSE
Hepatitis C is an acute disease
: FALSE
Biofilms provide an alternative means for bacteria to attach to surfaces within the body.
TRUE
People in the incubation stage of a disease may be a reservoir of the agent.
TRUE
Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen.
FALSE
All infections result in disease.
: FALSE